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Basics of cardiology Flashcards

1
Q

What separates the right auricle from the right atrium?

A

Sulcus terminalis

Crista terminalis

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2
Q

Name the structures which form the cardiac borders

A

Right border - right atrium
Left border - left ventricle, left atrial appendage
Anterior border - right ventricle
Posterior border - left atrium, left ventricle
Superior border - atria and great vessels
Inferior border - right ventricle

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3
Q

Name the structures forming the right cardiac border

A

Right atrium

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4
Q

Name the structures forming the left cardiac border

A

Left atrial appendage

Left ventricle

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5
Q

Name the structures forming the anterior cardiac border

A

Right ventricle

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6
Q

Name the structures forming the posterior cardiac border

A

Left atrium

Left ventricle

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7
Q

Name the structures forming the inferior cardiac border

A

Right ventricle

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8
Q

Name the structures forming the superior cardiac border

A

Atria

Great vessels

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9
Q

Explain coronary arterial dominance

A

Describes the vessel which gives rise to the PDA
Right dominant ∼ 85% (RCA)
Left dominant ∼ 8% (LCX)
Co-dominant ∼ 7%

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10
Q

When does coronary blood flow peak?

A

Early diastole

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11
Q

Name the source of the left coronary artery

A

Left aortic sinus of ascending aorta

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12
Q

Name the source of the right coronary artery

A

Right aortic sinus of ascending aorta

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13
Q

Name the important branches of the left coronary artery

A

Left anterior descending artery (LADA)

Left circumflex artery

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14
Q

Name the important branches of the right coronary artery

A

Right marginal artery
PDA
AV nodal artery
SA nodal artery

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15
Q

Describe the course of the left anterior descending artery

A

Descends between right and left ventricles on anterior surface of heart in the anterior interventricular sulcus towards cardiac apex

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16
Q

Which structures are supplied by the left anterior descending artery

A 
> 50% of left atrium and ventricle
Anterior aspect of the left ventricle
Anterior ⅔ of the interventricular septum
Anterolateral papillary muscle 
Cardiac apex
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17
Q

Describe the course of the left circumflex artery

A

Courses left around the heart in the coronary sulcus towards the posterior aspect, ending before the posterior interventricular sulcus and gives off the left marginal artery

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18
Q

Which arteries supply the anterolateral papillary muscle?

A

LADA

LCX

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19
Q

Which structures are supplied by the left circumflex artery?

A

Posterolateral left atrium and ventricle
Anterolateral papillary muscle
SA node ∼ 40%
PDA ∼ 15%

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20
Q

Describe the course of the right marginal artery

A

Courses along diaphragmatic border

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21
Q

Which structures are supplied by the right marginal artery?

A

Lateral right ventricle

Cardiac apex

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22
Q

Describe the course of the posterior descending artery

A

Descends between right and left ventricles on posterior surface of the heart in the posterior interventricular sulcus towards cardiac apex

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23
Q

Which structures are supplied by the posterior descending artery?

A

Posterior ⅓ of the interventricular septum
Posteroinferior aspect of heart
Posteromedial papillary muscle

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24
Q

Which structures are supplied by the AV nodal artery?

A

AV node

Bundle of His

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25
Q

Which structures are supplied by the SA nodal artery?

A

SA node

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26
Q

Which is the most commonly occluded coronary artery?

A

LAD

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27
Q

The occlusion of which coronary vessel will result in cardiac arrythmias?

A

Right coronary artery

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28
Q

Where do the lymphatics of the heart drain?

A

Anterior mediastinal nodes

Tracheobronchial nodes

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29
Q

Discuss the innervation of the heart

A

Somatic nervous system - phrenic nerve
Sympathetic nervous system - cardiac plexus
Parasympathetic nervous system - vagus nerve

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30
Q

What is the visceral layer of serous pericardium?

A

Epicardium

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31
Q

What is the endocardium composed of?

A

Endothelium
Loose CT
Subendocardium

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32
Q

What is the subendocardium?

A

Loose connective tissue containing cardiac Purkinje cells, veins and nerves

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33
Q

What is the myocardium composed of?

A

Cardiomyocytes
Fibroblasts
Extracellular matrix

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34
Q

Which nerve is responsible for the sensory innervation of the pericardium?

A

Phrenic nerve

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35
Q

What germ layer gives rise to the heart?

A

Mesoderm

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36
Q

What do the endocardial cushions give rise to?

A

Atrial septum
Interventricular septum
Valves

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37
Q

What does the primitive atrium give rise to?

A

Trabeculated portions of atria

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38
Q

What does the primitive ventricle give rise to?

A

Trabeculated portions of ventricles

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39
Q

What does the primitive pulmonary vein give rise to?

A

Smooth portion of left atrium

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40
Q

What does the sinus venosus give rise to?

A

Right horn - smooth portion of right atrium

Left horn - coronary sinus

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41
Q

What does the cardinal veins give rise to?

A

SVC

IVC

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42
Q

What causes a defect in cardiac looping?

A

Defect in dynein arm of microtubules

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43
Q

What does a defect in cardiac looping result in?

A

Kartegener syndrome

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44
Q

How do you calculate EF?

A

SV/EDV

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45
Q

Name the 4 phases of the cardiac cycle

A

Isovolumetric contraction
Systolic ejection
Isovolumetric relaxation
Ventricular filling

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46
Q

During which phases of the cardiac cycle are all valves open?

A

None

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47
Q

During which phases of the cardiac cycle are all valves closed?

A

Isovolumetric contraction

Isovolumetric relaxation

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48
Q

Define chronotropy relative to cardiac physiology

A

Any influence on the heart rate

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49
Q

Define dromotropy relative to cardiac physiology

A

Any influence on myocardial conductivity

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50
Q

Define inotropy relative to cardiac physiology

A

Any influence on myocardial contractility

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51
Q

Define lusitropy relative to cardiac physiology

A

Any influence on myocardial relaxation

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52
Q

Define bathmatropy relative to cardiac physiology

A

Any influence on myocardial excitability

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53
Q

Which equation describes the relationship between vascular resistance, the length and radius of the vessel, and the viscosity of blood?

A

Poisueille equation

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54
Q

Name factors that influence blood flow

A

Blood viscosity
Blood velocity
Lumen diameter
Blood vessel wall smoothness

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55
Q

What Reynold’s number does laminar flow have?

A

Low

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56
Q

What Reynold’s number does turbulent flow have?

A

High

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57
Q

How do you calculate MAP?

A

⅓ systolic pressure + ⅔ diastolic pressure
OR
CO x TPR

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58
Q

What is a normal pulse pressure?

A

30–40 mmHg

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59
Q

Name causes of a low pulse pressure

A

Advanced heart failure
Cardiac tamponade
Aortic stenosis
Shock

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60
Q

Name causes of a high pulse pressure

A 
Exercise
Hypothyroidism
Aortic regurgitation
Anemia
OSA
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61
Q

What is the importance of Laplace’s law?

A

Increased vessel thickness results in decreased wall tension

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62
Q

Differentiate vascular compliance from vascular elastance

A

Compliance - adapt to change in pressure

Elastance - adapt to change in volume

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63
Q

What is the triad of symptoms in Cushing reflex?

A

Hypertension
Bradycardia
Respiratory depression

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64
Q

Explain the mechanism of Cushing reflex

A

↑ intracranial pressure → compensatory constriction of cerebral arterioles → ↓ cerebral perfusion → hypercapnia and acidosis → chemoreceptor mediated sympathetic response → ↑ blood pressure → stimulation of aortic arch baroreceptors → activation of the parasympathetic nervous system (vagus) → reflex bradycardia

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65
Q

What is the atrial reflex also known as?

A

Bainbridge reflex

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66
Q

What is the atrial reflex?

A

Atrial distension -> incr HR

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67
Q

What is the diuresis reflex also known as?

A

Gauer-Henry reflex

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68
Q

What is the diuresis reflex?

A

Incr BP -> decr ADH

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69
Q

Which chemoreceptors are more responsive to chronic hypoxia?

A

Peripheral > central

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70
Q

How does carotid massage act to reduce the heart rate?

A

Stimulating the carotid baroreceptors leads to an increased AV node refractory period

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71
Q

Where is central blood pressure regulation localized?

A

Solitary nucleus in the medulla oblongata

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72
Q

What are the afferent and efferent pathways of central blood pressure regulation?

A 
Afferent
- glossopharyngeal nn (carotid)
- vagus nerve (aorta)
Efferent
- sympathetic
- parasympathetic
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73
Q

What causes the release of ANP from atrial cardiomyoctyes?

A

Increased volume

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74
Q

How is RAAS activated?

A

Release of renin from the juxtoglomerular cells

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75
Q

What is myogenic autoregulation?

A

Myocytes in the walls of arteries and arterioles react to changes in blood pressure to maintain constant blood flow in the blood vessels (incr BP -> vasoconstriction)

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76
Q

Which receptors does epinephrine have a greater affinity for: alpha 1 or beta 2?

A

Beta 2 receptors

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77
Q

How does epinephrine concentration affect adrenergic receptors?

A

Low concentration - greater effect on beta 2

High concentration - stronger effect on alpha 1

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78
Q

What is the hypoxic pulmonary mechanism?

A

Hypoxia results in pulmonary vasoconstriction

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79
Q

Define hydrostatic pressure

A

The pressure exerted by any fluid on the wall of an enclosed space

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80
Q

Define osmotic pressure

A

The minimum pressure needed to prevent the flow of a solvent across a semi-permeable membrane

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81
Q

Define oncotic pressure

A

Intravascular osmotic pressure generated by proteins

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82
Q

What are the 4 Starling forces?

A

Capillary hydrostatic pressure
Interstitial hydrostatic pressure
Plasma oncotic pressure
Interstitial oncotic pressure

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83
Q

How do burns, infections and toxins cause edema?

A

They affect vessel permeability

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84
Q

At what point is the JVP elevated?

A

> 4cm

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85
Q

How do you estimate the CVP?

A

JVP + 5cm

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86
Q

Which side should you assess the JVP and why?

A

Right side

More direct path to SVC

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87
Q

What is the reference range of the CVP?

A

4-10 cm H20

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88
Q

What are signs of an elevated JVP?

A

Incr JVP
Kussmaul sign
Hepatojugular reflux

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89
Q

Name causes of elevated JVP

A 
Right sided HF
Fluid overload
Tricuspid dysfunction
Pericardial effusion
Constrictive pericarditis
Cardiac tamponade
SVC syndrome
Pulmonary hypertension
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90
Q

Name the components of the JVP waveform

A 
a wave
c wave 
x descent
v wave
y descent
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91
Q

What is the mechanism behind the a wave of the JVP waveform?

A

Atrial contraction

92
Q

What is the mechanism behind the c wave of the JVP waveform?

A

Tricuspid valve closure

93
Q

What is the mechanism behind the v wave of the JVP waveform?

A

Venous refilling of right atrium

94
Q

What is the mechanism behind the x descent of the JVP waveform?

A

Atrial relaxation

95
Q

What is the mechanism behind the y descent of the JVP waveform?

A

Tricuspid valve opening

96
Q

Name a cause of an absent a wave in the JVP waveform

A

Atrial fibrillation

97
Q

Name a cause of a cv wave in the JVP waveform

98
Q

Name a cause of an absent x descent in the JVP waveform

99
Q

Name a cause of a prominent v wave in the JVP waveform

100
Q

Name a cause of an absent y descent in the JVP waveform

A

TR

Constrictive pericarditis

101
Q

Name a cause of a prominent y descent in the JVP waveform

A

Cardiac tamponade

TS

102
Q

Which conditions can cause pulse bigeminus?

A

LHF

Digoxin toxicity

103
Q

What pulse rates can you get?

A

Tachycardia

Bradycardia

104
Q

What pulse rhythms can you get?

A 
Regular
Regularly irregular
Irregularly irregular
Pulse deficit
Pulse bigeminus
105
Q

What pulse volumes can you get?

A 
Hyperkinetic
Hypokinetic
Pulsus paradoxus
Reverse pulsus paradoxus
Pulsus alternans
Dicrotic pulse
Pulsus bisfiriens
106
Q

Name causes of bruits

A 
AV fistulas
AV malformations
Aneurysms
Vascular stenosis
Hyperdynamic circulation
107
Q

Where is De Musset sign seen?

108
Q

Name causes of an apex beat with a hyperdynamic impulse

A

High cardiac output

Volume overload

109
Q

Name causes of an apex beat with a heaving impulse

A

Pressure overload

110
Q

Name causes of an apex beat with a hypodynamic impulse

A 
MI
Obesity
Pericardial effusion
L pneumothorax
L pleural effusion
COPD
111
Q

Name causes of an apex beat with a tapping impulse

A

Mitral stenosis

112
Q

Name causes of an apex beat with a dyskinetic impulse

A

Left ventricular dysfunction

113
Q

Name causes of a murmur at Erb’s point

A

HOCM (systolic)

AR, PR (diastolic)

114
Q

Name causes of a murmur at the aortic area

A

AS
AR
Coarctation

115
Q

Name causes of a murmur at the pulmonary area

116
Q

Name causes of a murmur at the mitral area

A

MS
MR
Mitral valve prolapse

117
Q

Name causes of a murmur at the tricuspid area

118
Q

Which murmur also radiates to the carotid arteries?

A

Aortic stenosis

119
Q

Name causes of a pathological 3rd heart sound

A 
Chronic MR
AR
Heart failure
Dilated cardiomyopathy
Thyrotoxicosis
120
Q

Name causes of a pathological 4th heart sound

A

Ventricular hypertrophy

Ischemic heart disease

121
Q

Which murmur radiates to the left axilla?

A

Mitral regurgitation

122
Q

Which murmur radiates to the interscapular region?

A

Pulmonary stenosis

123
Q

How do you remember where which murmur is?

A

Systolic = stenosis

Therefore diastolic = regurgitation

124
Q

Which maneuver increases the sound of mitral murmurs?

A

Left lateral position

125
Q

Which maneuver increases the sound of aortic murmurs?

A

Sitting leaning forward

126
Q

Which maneuver increases the sound of right sided murmurs?

A

Inspiration

127
Q

Name the inferior ECG leads

128
Q

Name the lateral ECG leads

129
Q

Name the anteroseptal ECG leads

130
Q

What is the P wave in the ECG?

A

Atrial depolarization

131
Q

What is the PR interval in the ECG?

A

Depolarization from SA node -> atria -> AV node -> His-Purkinje system

132
Q

What is the QRS complex in the ECG?

A

Ventricular depolarization

133
Q

What is the ST segment in the ECG?

A

The duration between ventricular depolarization and repolarization

134
Q

What is the T wave in the ECG?

A

Ventricular repolarization

135
Q

What is the QT interval in the ECG?

A

Total time of ventricular depolarization and repolarization

136
Q

Explain your approach to reading an ECG

A
  1. Check patient information and standardisation
  2. Lead II
  3. aVR
  4. R wave progression
  5. ST segment
  6. T wave
  7. Lengths of PR, QT, QRS and R
137
Q

How do you determine cardiac axis deviation?

A 
Look at the QRS complex in lead I and aVF
Normal axis = I + aVF +
Left axis = I + aVF -
Right axis = I - aVF +
Extreme right axis = I - aVF -
138
Q

What does P pulmonale signify?

A

Right atrial enlargement

139
Q

What does P mitrale signify?

A

Left atrial enlargement

140
Q

What should the duration of a PR interval be?

A

0.12s-0.2s

141
Q

Name causes of a decreased PR interval

A

WPW

Pre-excitation syndromes

142
Q

Name causes of an increased PR interval

A

1st degree AV block

143
Q

What is the cause of progressively lengthening PR interval until a QRS complex is dropped?

A

Mobitz type I (2nd degree AV block)

144
Q

What is the cause of a constant PR interval with a constant QRS complex drop?

A

Mobitz type II (2nd degree AV block)

145
Q

Name causes of an abnormally wide Q wave

A 
Myocardial injury
Ventricular enlargement
Altered ventricular conduction
Acute PE
CHD
146
Q

Name causes of a dominant R wave

A 
RVH
RBBB
Posterior MI
HCM
WPW
147
Q

Name causes of poor R wave progression/persistent S wave

A 
RVH
Cardiac strain
LBBB
LAFB
WPW
148
Q

What should new onset LBBB with concurrent angina be treated as?

A

Acute coronary syndrome

149
Q

How do you remember V1 V6 M W shapes for LBBB vs RBBB?

A

WilliaM MorroW

150
Q

Name causes of a LBBB

A 
Cardiac
- coronary aa disease
- MI
- hypertension
- cardiomyopathy
Hyperkalemia
Digoxin toxicity
151
Q

Name causes of a RBBB

A 
Cardiac
- coronary aa disease
- MI
- mitral stenosis
Pulmonary
- pulmonary hypertension
- PE
- COPD
Brugada syndrome
152
Q

Name causes of an ST elevation

A 
Normal young healthy adult
STEMI
LBBB
Pericarditis
Perimyocarditis
PE
Brugada syndrome
Left ventricular aneurysm
153
Q

Name causes of a downsloping/horizontal ST depression

A

Subendocardial MI

Stress induced MI

154
Q

Name causes of an upsloping ST depression

A

Normal in tachycardia

MI if clinically ACS suspected

155
Q

Name causes of a sagging ST depression

156
Q

What is Brugada syndrome?

A

A rare, AD mutation of the cardiac voltage-gated Na channels that leads to abnormal cardiac conduction and sudden death

157
Q

In which population group is Brugada syndrome found?

158
Q

What signs on an ECG indicate Brugada syndrome?

A

PseudoRBBB

ST elevation in V1, V2, V3

159
Q

How do you treat Brugada syndrome?

A

Implantable cardiac defibrillator

Screen relatives

160
Q

Name complications of Brugada syndrome

A

Atrial fibrillation

Sudden death

161
Q

Name causes of T wave inversion

A 
Coronary aa disease
PE
BBB
Perimyocarditis
Digoxin
Ventricular hypertrophy
ICH
Wellens syndrome
162
Q

Name causes of T wave flattening

A

Hypokalemia
Hypoglycemia
Hypothyroidism
MI

163
Q

What is Wellens syndrome?

A

Severe proximal stenosis of the LAD resulting in unstable angina and deeply inverted/biphasic T waves on leads V2, V3

164
Q

Name causes of a peaked T wave

A

Hyperkalemia

Hypermagnesemia

165
Q

Name causes of a hyperacute T wave

A

Early STEMI

Prinzmetal angina

166
Q

Name causes of a biphasic T wave with initial positive deflection

A

MI

Wellens syndrome

167
Q

Name causes of a biphasic T wave with initial negative deflection

A

Hypokalemia

168
Q

Name causes of a prolonged QT interval

A 
Congenital
- Romano Ward syndrome
- Jervell and Lange Nielsen syndrome
Acquired
- drugs 
- electrolyte disturbance
- cardiac abnormalities
- arsenic poisoning
169
Q

Name drugs that can cause a prolonged QT interval

A

Antiarrythmics
Antidepressants
Antipsychotics
Antihistamines (1st generation)

170
Q

Which syndrome resulting in a prolonged QT interval is associated with sensorineural deafness?

A

Jervell and Lange-Nielsen syndrome

171
Q

Name causes of a shortened QT interval

A

Hypercalcemia
Hyperkalemia
Digoxin
Congenital

172
Q

What can cause a prominent U wave?

A

Hypokalemia

173
Q

What ECG pattern is seen in pulmonary embolism?

174
Q

What are the most relevant ECG findings in a STEMI?

A 
Early stage
- Hyperacute T wave
- ST elevation
Intermediate stage
- Absent R wave
- T wave inversion
- Pathological Q wave
175
Q

What are the most important clinical findings in a STEMI?

A 
Acute, retrosternal pain
Dyspnea
N+V
Diaphoresis
Anxiety
Syncope
New S4
176
Q

What are the most relevant ECG findings in an AV nodal re-entrant tachycardia?

A

Invisible P wave

Narrow QRS complexes

177
Q

What are the most important clinical findings in an AV nodal re-entrant tachycardia?

A

Palpitations
Dyspnoea
Dizziness
Diaphoresis

178
Q

What are the most relevant ECG findings in an AV nodal reciprocating tachycardiaI?

A 
Orthodromic
- narrow QRS
- p wave follows QRS
Antidromic
 - wide QRS
- shortened PR
179
Q

What are the most important clinical findings in an AV nodal reciprocating tachycardia?

A

Palpitations
Dyspnoea
Dizziness
Diaphoresis

180
Q

What are the most relevant ECG findings in a multifocal atrial tachycardia?

A

Irregularly irregular

3 varying p wave morphologies

181
Q

What are the most important clinical findings in a multifocal atrial tachycardia?

A

Palpitations
Dyspnoea
Dizziness
Diaphoresis

182
Q

What are the most relevant ECG findings in a paroxysmal atrial tachycardia?

A

Unusual p wave before normal QRS

183
Q

What are the most important clinical findings in a paroxysmal atrial tachycardia?

A

Palpitations
Dyspnoea
Dizziness
Diaphoresis

184
Q

What are the most relevant ECG findings in a WPW?

A

Short PR
Delta wave
Widened QRS

185
Q

What are the most important clinical findings in a WPW?

A

Palpitations
Dyspnoea
Dizziness
Diaphoresis

186
Q

What are the most relevant ECG findings in a torsades de pointes?

A

Wide QRS complex
Dissociated P wave
Fusion complexes
Capture beat

187
Q

What are the most important clinical findings in a torsades de pointes?

A 
Often asx
Palpitations
Syncope
Angina
Dyspnea
Dizziness
Hypotension
Cardiac arrest
188
Q

What are the most relevant ECG findings in an atrial fibrillation?

A

Irregularly irregular
Indiscernible P wave
Narrow QRS complex

189
Q

What are the most important clinical findings in an atrial fibrillation?

A

Asx
Arrythmia symptoms
Tachycardia with regularly irregular pulse
Thromboembolic events

190
Q

What are the most relevant ECG findings in atrial flutter?

A

Sawtooth P wave

Narrow QRS

191
Q

What are the most important clinical findings in atrial flutter?

A

Asx
Arrythmias symptoms
Tachycardia with regular pulse

192
Q

What are the most relevant ECG findings in a ventricular fibrillation?

A

Indiscernible QRS

Absent p wave

193
Q

What are the most important clinical findings in a ventricular fibrillation?

A 
Angina
Palpitatins
Dyspnea
LOC
Death
194
Q

What are the most relevant ECG findings in a 1st degree AV block?

A

PR interval >200ms

195
Q

What are the most important clinical findings in a 1st degree AV block?

A 
Asx
Fatigue
Dizziness
Syncope
Palpitations
196
Q

What are the most relevant ECG findings in a Mobitz type I?

A

Progressive PR interval lengthening followed by a beat drop

197
Q

What are the most important clinical findings in a Mobitz type I?

A 
Asx
Fatigue
Dizziness
Syncope
Palpitations
198
Q

What are the most relevant ECG findings in a Mobitz type II?

A

Constant PR interval with a beat drop

199
Q

What are the most important clinical findings in a Mobitz type II?

A 
Asx
Fatigue
Dizziness
Syncope
Palpitations
200
Q

What are the most relevant ECG findings in a 3rd degree AV block?

A

AV dissociation

201
Q

What are the most important clinical findings in a 3rd degree AV block?

A 
Asx
Fatigue
Dizziness
Syncope
Palpitations
202
Q

What are the most relevant ECG findings in an acute pericarditis?

A

Saddle shaped ST elevation
Diffuse PR depression
T wave inversion

203
Q

What are the most important clinical findings in an acute pericarditis?

A 
Pleuritic chest pain
Low grade fever
Tachypnea
Dyspnea
Non-productive cough
Pericardial friction rub
204
Q

What are the most relevant ECG findings in a cardiac tamponade?

A

Tachycardia
Low voltage QTS
Electrical alternans

205
Q

What are the most important clinical findings in a cardiac tamponade?

A 
Beck's triad
Pulsus paradoxus
Pallor
Cold sweats
Obstructive shock
Cardiac arrest
206
Q

What are the most relevant ECG findings in a hypertrophic cardiomyopathy?

A

LVH signs
Nonspecific ST/T changes
Septal Q waves

207
Q

What are the most important clinical findings in a hypertrophic cardiomyopathy?

A 
Asx
Dyspnea
Chest pain
Syncope
Palpitations
Sudden cardiac death
208
Q

What are the most relevant ECG findings in a restrictive cardiomyopathy?

A

Low voltage

BBBs

209
Q

What are the most important clinical findings in a restrictive cardiomyopathy?

A 
Dyspnea
JVP distension
Peripheral edema
Ascites
Hepatomegaly
210
Q

What are the most relevant ECG findings in a PE?

A

S1Q3T3

New RBBB

211
Q

What are the most important clinical findings in a PE?

A 
Dyspnea
Tachypnea
Sudden pleuritic pain
Cough
Haemoptysis
Decr breath sounds
212
Q

What are the most relevant ECG findings in a hypokalemia?

A

Flattened T wave
ST depression
U waves

213
Q

What are the most important clinical findings in a hypokalemia?

A 
Palpitations
Syncope
Muscle cramps
Muscle weakness
Decr DTR
N+V
Constipation
Polyuria
214
Q

What are the most relevant ECG findings in a hyperkalemia?

A

Wide QRS
Peaked T wave
Flattened, wide P waves

215
Q

What are the most important clinical findings in a hyperkalemia?

A 
Muscle weakness
Paralysis
Paresthesia
Decr DTR
N+V
Diarrhea
216
Q

What are the most relevant ECG findings in a hypocalcemia?

A

Prolonged QT interval

217
Q

What are the most important clinical findings in a hypocalcemia?

A 
Tetany
Spasms
Cramps
Paresthesia
Seizures
218
Q

What are the most relevant ECG findings in a hypercalcemia?

A

Shortened QT interval

219
Q

What are the most important clinical findings in a hypercalcemia?

A 
Nephrolithiasis
Nephrocalcinosis
Bone pain
Arthalgia
Myalgia
N+V
Constipation
Anorexia
PUD
Pancreatitis
220
Q

What are the most relevant ECG findings in a hypomagnesemia?

A

Prolonged PR

Prolonged QT

221
Q

What are the most important clinical findings in a hypomagnesemia?

A 
Anorexia
N+V
Muscle weakness
Muscle cramps
Tremor
Ataxia
Nystagmus
Seizures
222
Q

What are the most relevant ECG findings in a right atrial enlargement?

A

P pulmonale

223
Q

What are the most relevant ECG findings in a left atrial enlargement?

224
Q

What are the most relevant ECG findings in a LVH?

A 
Sokolow-Lyon criteria
>3.5mV
- RV5
- RV6 + SV1
- SV2
225
Q

What are the most relevant ECG findings in a RVH?

A 
Sokolow-Lyon criteria
>1.05mV
- RV1
- RV2 + SV5
- SV6
Right axis deviation

Internal medicine (16 decks)

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