Basic Sciences Flashcards

1
Q

What are the transition points of first and second order neurons?

A

Cranial nuclei and anterior horn cells

A lesion of this will lead to LMN signs, same as a 2nd order neuron lesion

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2
Q

In which lobe is the hippocampus?

A

Temporal lobe

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3
Q

Where is the primary motor cortex located?

A

Frontal lobe

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4
Q

Where is the sensory motor cortex location?

A

Parietal lobe

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5
Q

Where is the primary auditory cortex located?

A

Temporal lobe

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6
Q

Where does the corticospinal tract decussate?

A

Lower medulla

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7
Q

Which part of the brain is the terminal for all sensory nerves?

A

Thalamus

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8
Q

Within the thalamus, what do the anterior, lateral, medial and posterior nuclei do?

A

Anterior - language and memory function

Lateral - motor and sensory function

Medial - arousal and memory

Posterior - visual function

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9
Q

What are the 4 medial structures of the brainstem?

A

Motor pathway

Medial lemniscus

Medial longitudinal fasciculus

Motor nucleus

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10
Q

What are the 4 side structures of the brainstem?

A

Spinocerebellar pathways

Spinothalamic pathways

Sensory nucleus of the 5th CN

Sympathetic tract

Note - all begin with S

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11
Q

What is Frank-Starling’s law of the heart?

A

The stroke volume of the heart increases in response to an increase in the volume of blood in the ventricles before contraction (i.e. preload) when all other factors remain constant.

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12
Q

What is the modified Bernoulli equation for echo assessment of systolic PA pressure?

A

PASP = 4V^2 + RAP

Assuming no RVOT obstruction

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13
Q

Which part of an antibody do immune cells bind to?

A

Fc region

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14
Q

What is the function of a peroxisome?

A

Catabolism of very long chain fatty acids and amino acids

Results in the formation of hydrogen peroxide

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15
Q

What is the function of a proteosome?

A

Along with the lysosome pathway involved in degradation of protein molecules that have been tagged with ubiquitin

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16
Q

What is the function of a ribosome?

A

Translation of RNA into proteins

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17
Q

What is the function of a lysosome?

A

Breakdown of large molecules such as proteins and polysaccharides

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18
Q

What is the function of a nucleolus?

A

Ribosome production

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19
Q

What is the function of Golgi apparatus?

A

Modifies, sorts, and packages molecules that are destined for cell secretion

Site of O-linked glycosylation

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20
Q

What is the function of smooth endoplasmic reticulum?

A

Steroid and lipid synthesis

Examples of cells which have extensive SER includes those in the testes, ovaries, adrenal cortex and hepatocytes

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21
Q

What is the function of rough endoplasmic reticulum?

A

Translation and folding of new proteins

Manufacture of lysosomal enzymes

Site of N-linked glycosylation

Cells with extensive RER include pancreatic cells, goblet cells, plasma cells

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22
Q

What is p53, where is it located and what is its function?

A

p53 is a tumour suppressor gene on chromosome 17p

Prevents entry into S phase of cell cycle until DNA has been checked and repaired

Implicated in breast, colon and lung cancer, among others

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23
Q

What is the main source of IL-1, and what are its functions?

A

Macrophages

Acute inflammation and induction of fever

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24
Q

What is the main source of IL-2, and what is its function?

A

Th1 cells

Stimulates growth and differentiation of T cell response

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25
Q

What is the main source of IL-3, and what is its function?

A

Activated T helper cells

Stimulates differentiation and proliferation of myeloid progenitor cells

26
Q

What is the main source of IL-4, and what is its function?

A

Th2 cells

Stimulates proliferation and differentiation of B cells

27
Q

What is the main source of IL-5, and what is its function?

A

Th2 cells

Stimulate production of eosinophils

28
Q

What are the main sources of IL-6, and what are its functions?

A

Macrophages, Th2 cells

Stimulates differentiation of B cells, induces fever

29
Q

What is the main source of IL-8, and what is its function?

A

Macrophages

Neutrophil chemotaxis

30
Q

What is the main source of IL-10, and what are its functions?

A

Th2 cells

Inhibits Th1 cytokine production
Also known as human cytokine synthesis inhibitory factor and is an “anti-inflammatory” cytokine

31
Q

What are the main sources of IL-12, and what are its functions?

A

Dendritic cells, macrophages, B cells

Activates NK cells and stimulates differentiation if naive T cells into Th1 cells

32
Q

What is the main source of TNFa, and what is its function?

A

Macrophages

Induces fever and neutrophil chemotaxis

33
Q

What is the main source of IFNy, and what is its function?

A

Th1 cells

Activates macrophages

34
Q

What is the role of hepcidin in regulation of the body’s iron stores?

A

Binds to ferroportin on basolateral surface of gut enterocytes and plasma membrane of reticuloendothelial cells (macrophages)

Causes internalisation and degradation of ferroportin

Iron is trapped in enterocyte/reticular endothelial cell

35
Q

What are the subunits of HbA, HbA2 and HbF?

A

HbA - a2b2

HbA2 - a2d2

HbF - a2y2

36
Q

Name 6 causes of microcytic anaemia

A

Iron

Thalassaemia

Anaemia of inflammation/chronic disease

Hyperthyroidism

Lead poisoning

Congenital sideroblastic anaemia

37
Q

What are common self surface markers for B cells? Name 4.

A

CD19

CD20

Kappa

Lambda

An individual B cell can only express either kappa or lambda light chains.

38
Q

What are the common cell surface markers for T-cells? Name 4.

A

CD3

CD4

CD8

CD5

39
Q

What is the cell surface marker for stem cells?

A

CD34

40
Q

What are the cell surface markers for granulocytes? Name 3.

A

CD33

CD13

CD15

41
Q

What are the cell surface markers for monocytes? Name 2.

A

CD14

CD64

42
Q

Which factors does prothrombin complex concentrate contain?

A

Factor II

Factor VIIa

Factor VIII

Factor IX

Factor X

43
Q

Name 4 mechanisms of metastatic spread in malignancies.

A

Haematogenous spread

Lymphatic spread

Transcoelomic spread
- direct seeding of peritoneal/pleural cavity

Transplantation

44
Q

Name the phases of the cell cycle and what happens during each.

A

G1 - cellular contents, excluding chromosomes, are duplicated

S - each of the 46 chromosomes are duplicated by the cell

G2 - chromosome errors are checked for, with repairs made if necessary

Mitosis - cell divides

45
Q

Name 4 types of monoclonal antibodies, and associated nomenclature.

A

Mouse - -omab

Chimeric (34% mouse protein) - -uximab

Humanised (10% mouse protein) - uzumab

Fully human - umumab

46
Q

What does a phase one study aim to do?

A

Dose defining study - find out maximum tolerated dose

Given in population with target disease

47
Q

What does a phase two study aim to do?

A

Look for signal of efficacy.

48
Q

What does a phase three study aim to do?

A

Comparing experimental with standard i.e. effectiveness.

49
Q

In the context of antibiotic resistance, what is conjugation?

A

Direct cell-to-cell contact, considered main mode of horizontal gene transfer of antibiotic resistance genes

Plasmid exchange via a bacterial pilus

50
Q

In the context of antibiotic resistance, what is transduction?

A

Transduction is the transfer to genetic material from one bacterium to another using a viral vector (i.e. a bacteriophage)

51
Q

In the context of antibiotic resistance, what is transformation?

A

Transformation is when free short fragments of DNA (through death and lysis of another bacterium) are taken up by naturally transferable bacteria

52
Q

How does GFR change in pregnancy?

A

GFR increased by 50% within 6 weeks - maximal 12-20 weeks

Equal afferent and efferent arteriolar dilatation maintains glomerular hydrostatic pressure

53
Q

How does hyperkalaemia impact upon blood pH?

A

Increases pH

54
Q

What is the main site of potassium absorption in the nephron?

A

Proximal convoluted tubule

55
Q

In normal conditions, what makes the concentration of bicarbonate ions in the urine small?

A

Reabsorption of bicarbonate ions by type A and B intercalated cells in the proximal tubule

56
Q

How does angiotensin II impact upon renal blood flow?

A

Renal blood flow is reduced by elevated plasma concentrations of angiotensin II and vice versa.

57
Q

How does renal sympathetic activity impact upon renal blood flow?

A

Renal sympathetic activity = renal afferent arteriolar constriction = reduced renal blood flow

58
Q

How does partial compression/occlusion of the renal artery impact upon renin secretion, urine output and arterial blood pressure?

A

Reduction in renal arterial pressure results in reduced GFR, and thus the NaCl in the macula densa, which then stimulates renin secretion from the juxtaglomerular apparatus.

59
Q

What are the 3 functions of vasopressin?

A

Increasing water permeability of initial and cortical collecting tubules via insertion of aquaporin-2 channels - effect mediated by V2 receptors

Augmenting urea absorption in the inner medullary collecting ducts

Acute increase of sodium absorption across the ascending loop of Henle

60
Q

What is the role of the alpha intercalated cells in the kidney?

A

The alpha intercalated cells are responsible for secreting excess acid and reabsorbing base.

Alpha = secrete Acid

61
Q

What is the role of the alpha intercalated cells in the kidney?

A

The beta intercalated cells are responsible for secreting excess base (bicarbonate) and reabsorbing acid.

Beta = secrete Base

62
Q

What compound does a healthy liver convert ammonia to?

A

Glutamine