Basic Sciences Flashcards

1
Q

Cardiac Output (CO)

A

Cardiac Output = Stroke Volume x Heart Rate

Stroke Volume: the volume of blood pumped by the left ventricle in a single heartbeat. Defined as end-diastolic volume (EDV) minus end-systolic volume (ESV). Increases with increased contractility, increased preload, and decreased afterload.

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2
Q

Factors that contribute to cardiac output

A
  1. Heart Rate
  2. Preload
  3. Afterload
  4. Contractility
  5. Heart Rate
    (+) : sympathetic stimulation (adrenaline) atropine
    (-) : parasympathetic stimulation (acetylcholine), adenosine
2. Preload (end diastolic volume) 
Volume entering the ventricle influenced by: 
- Venous return 
- Fluid volume 
- Atrial contraction 
3. Afterload 
Resistance ventricles must overcome to circulate blood 
Factors increasing afterload:
- Atherosclerosis
- Vasoconstriction 
- Advanced AS, uncontrolled severe HTN
  1. Contractility
    How hard the myocardium contracts for a given preload
    (+): sympathetic stimulation –> noradrenaline
    Drugs: dobutamne
    (-): parasympathetic stimulation –> acetylcholine
    Drugs: B blockers, calcium channel blockers
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3
Q

Familial hypercholesterolemia

A
  • Autosomal DOMINANT
  • Corneal arcus –> xanthelasma –> tendon xanthoma

PCSK9

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4
Q

What is QP:QS?

A

QP:QS signifies ratio of pulmonary to systemic flow

Large shunts (eg: big VSD, ASD) = large QP, QS

As high shunt flow continues, pulmonary resistance may increase (Eisenmenger’s) and QP:QS “normalises”

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5
Q

A 50yo woman has had worsening shortness of breath and oedema. An echo shows a secundum atrial septal defect. Qp:Qs ratio is 2. This implies:
A. She may experience progressive right heart failure due to a chronic reduction in right ventricular preload
B. She may experience progressive right heart failure due to chronic increase in right ventricular preload
C. She may experience progressive left heart failure due to chronic reduction in left ventricular preload
D. She may experience progressive left hear failure due to chronic increase in right ventricular preload.
E. She is unlikely to have any worsening o symptoms over time.

A

B

▪ Atrial septal defect - left atrial pressures > right atrial pressure
▪ Flow from left atrium to right atrium
▪ Qp:Qs - pulmonary circulation vs systemic circulation
▪ Twice as much blood in right ventricle vs left ventricle
▪ Increased preload and right heart failure and pulmonary HTN
▪ Would intervene if Qp: Qs ratio > 1.5
ASD can be asymptomatic

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6
Q

A 60yo woman has increasing shortness of breath. She has a history of ischaemic heart disease, htn and rheumatic valvular disease. At right and left heart cath:

  • Mean PA pressure: 36mmHg (normal 9-19)
  • Pulmonary wedge pressure: 29mmHg (normal 4-12)
  • LVEDP: 10mmHg (normal 4-12)
  • Cardiac output: 5.6L/min

Her symptoms are most likely due to
A. Pulmonary HTN secondary to pulmonary emboli
B. Pulmonary HTN secondary to primary pulmonary HTN
C. Mitral stenosis
D. Aortic stenosis
E. Left heart failure and diastolic dysfunction

A

Mitral stenosis

▪ Pulmonary wedge pressure = left atrium
▪ Left atrial pressure high
▪ Left ventricular pressure is normal
▪ The gap between the left atrium and left ventricle indicates a mitral stenosis

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7
Q

A 68 year old lady with limited scleroderma with calcinosis, oesophageal dysmotility and sclerodactyly presents with palpitations. The most appropriate management is?

A

Answer: H) Verapamil

ECG: Atrial Flutter with Variable Block

Scleroderma is associated with Cardiac Disease

  • Pericarditis, pericardial effusion, myocardial fibrosis, heart failure, myocarditis, microvascular disease, myocardial infarction (MI), conduction disturbances, and arrhythmias
  • Conduction system disease and arrhythmias are common. They are likely to result from fibrosis of the myocardium and conduction system. Many deaths among SSc patients are sudden, and some may result from a ventricular arrhythmia.

B-blockers in Scleroderma

  • Vasodilating B-blockers aggravate Raynaud symptoms and may not be tolerated
  • B-blockers with b-1 selectivity (metoprolol) less likely to cause vasoconstriction

Amiodarone
- Interstitial lung disease

Calcium channel blockers
- Beneficial in terms of Raynauds + HF in scleroderma

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8
Q

What are the compensatory mechanisms that are activated in heart failure

A

Compensatory mechanisms that are activated in heart failure include:
• Increased ventricular preload with ventricular dilatation and volume expansion
• Peripheral vasoconstriction, which initially maintains perfusion to vital organs
• Myocardial hypertrophy to preserve wall stress as the heart dilates
• Renal sodium and water retention to enhance ventricular preload
• Activation of the adrenergic nervous system, which increases heart rate and
contractile function

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9
Q
Which is the most common origin of idiopathic ventricular tachycardia in the
absence of structural heart disease?
A. Aortic annulus
B. Aortic sinuses
C. Great cardiac vein
D. Epicardium
E. Right ventricular outflow tract
A

E. Right ventricular outflow tract

  • Idiopathic ventricular tachycardia must be distinguished from ventricular
    tachycardia with structural heart disease, because the latter often warrants an
    implantable cardioverter defibrillator (ICD).
    Detection of ventricular scar on cardiac imaging can be helpful.
  • Although idiopathic monomorphic ventricular tachycardia can cause syncope, sudden death is rare.
  • Beta-blockers, calcium-channel blockers or catheter ablation are often effective.
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10
Q

ECG and their corresponding

A

p wave: atrial depolarisation
QRS: ventricular depolarisation
T wave: ventricular repolarisation

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11
Q

Perhexiline

A
  • Perhexiline has been used in the treatment of congestive heart failure and refractory
    angina. It relieves symptoms of angina, improves exercise tolerance and
    increases workload needed to induce ischemia.
  • MOA: modifying myocardial substrate utilisation from fatty acids to carbohydrates, which is energetically more efficient for the heart to metabolise, thus reducing myocardial oxygen consumption.

SE: hepatotoxicity, peripheral neuropathy and hypoglycaemia.

  • Perhexiline is metabolised by cytochrome P450 2D6. Drug level monitoring is essential to identify patients who are slow metabolisers, which occurs in about 7–10% of Caucasians who harbour mutations in CYP2D6.
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12
Q

Carvedilol

A

A non-selective beta-blocker with α1-adrenoreceptor blocking activity.

B1 selective - nebivolol, bisoprolol, metoprolol XR

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13
Q

A selective β1-adrenoreceptor blocker with nitric-oxide potentiating vasodilatory
effect.

A

nebiviolol

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14
Q

Dabigatran inducers and inhibitors

A

Dabigatran is given as the prodrug dabigatran etexilate, and this prodrug is a
substrate for efflux by the p-glycoprotein transporter.

INHIBITORS of p-glycoprotein, such as below can increase dabigatran plasma concentration by decreasing the efflux of the drug into the gastrointestinal lumen.

  • ketoconazole (most azoles),
  • protease inhibitors
  • macrolides
  • calcineurin inhibitors
  • amiodarone
  • verapamil
INDUCERS
Strong inducers of p-glycoprotein, such as below can reduce plasma concentrations
- rifampicin
- carbamazepine
- phenytoin,
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15
Q
During pregnancy, which one of the following heart diseases is associated
with the highest maternal mortality?
A. Aortic stenosis
B. Atrial septal defect
C. Coarctation of aorta
D. Eisenmenger syndrome
E. Mitral stenosis
A

D. Eisenmenger syndrome

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16
Q

A 22-year-old man who is known to have hypertrophic cardiomyopathy
undergoes physical and echocardiographic examination. Which one of the following
findings is most predictive of this patient’s risk of sudden cardiac death?
A. Hypertension
B. Double apex beat
C. Atrial dilatation
D. Intensity of systolic murmur
E. Septal wall thickness of 3 cm or greater

A

E. Septal wall thickness of 3 cm or greater

17
Q

Which one of the following disorders does NOT cause high-output heart
failure?
A. Hyperthyroidism
B. Paget disease
C. Brachio-cephalic arteriovenous fistula
D. Cirrhosis
E. Amyloidosis

A

E. Amyloidosis

Cardiac amyloidosis is usually dominated by right heart failure and is a cause
of low-output heart failure.

18
Q
A patient with acute fulminant myocarditis is most likely to present with:
A. Dyspnoea
B. Palpitations
C. Hypotension
D. Fever
E. Chest pain
A

A. Dyspnoea

Patients with fulminant myocarditis typically present in acute heart failure up to
2 weeks after a viral prodrome. Many symptomatic cases of myocarditis present
with a syndrome of dilated cardiomyopathy and heart failure

19
Q

45yo male with recurrent syncope when standing for long periods of time and when seeing noxious stimuli like blood. What is an indication for cardiac pacing?
A. Syncope despite midodrine
B. Syncope more than once a week
C. Syncope causing injury
D. Syncope associated with carotid hypersensitivity
E. Vasodepressor response on tilt table

A

. Syncope associated with carotid hypersensitivity

Pacing will be beneficial for tilt table showing CARDIOINHIBITORY RESPONSE rather than VASODEPRESSOR

20
Q
  1. Which of the following cardiac changes would not be within the bounds of normal pregnancy physiology?
    A. Development of mild tricuspid regurgitation
    B. Leftward axis rotation of -20° on ECG
    C. Increase in systolic blood pressure of 20mmHg
    D. Increase in left ventricular end-diastolic dimension from 5.0 to 5.4cm (normal <5.5cm)
A

C. Increase in systolic blood pressure of 20mmHg

Blood pressure typically falls in pregnancy due to reduced systemic vascular resistance. A rise in blood pressure might raise concern for gestational hypertension or pre-eclampsia and should prompt further examination and investigations.

21
Q
Which one of the following viral infections is the commonest cause of myocarditis
in developed countries?
A. Enterovirus
B. Cytomegalovirus
C. Hepatitis C virus
D. Human immunodeficiency virus (HIV)
E. Influenza virus
A

A. Enterovirus

Enteroviruses, including the Coxsackie virus, are the most commonly associated viral species. The Coxsackie virus has a myocardial affinity because of its easy entrance into the myocardial cell through the Coxsackie– adenoviral receptor, which triggers the host immune response.

Cytomegalovirus is commonly associated with post-transplantation myocarditis.

Influenza myocarditis is often associated with haemorrhagic pulmonary oedema.

HIV has been reported to cause myocarditis. However, it may be difficult to determine
the exact cause of cardiac dysfunction because symptoms may be due to the inflammatory response to HIV; the HIV infection itself; or coexisting opportunistic
infections, side effects of anti-retroviral treatment, or a combination of
these causes.

Hepatitis C, adenovirus, parvovirus B19 and Epstein–Barr virus (EBV) have been
reported to cause myocarditis.