Brainscape's Knowledge GenomeTM

Browse over 1 million classes created by top students, professors, publishers, and experts.


See full index

DEP > basic science, investigations and lasers > Flashcards

basic science, investigations and lasers Flashcards

1
Q

ocular structures are derived from which layer

A

germ

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

which conditions are autosomal dominant

A

Congenital cataracts Best disease
Fuchs’ corneal dystrophy (also sporadic) Granular and lattice corneal dystrophies Marfan syndrome
Neurofibromatosis
Retinitis pigmentosa (also AR or XLR) Retinoblastoma (most commonly sporadic) Stickler syndrome
Tuberous sclerosis
Von Hippel-Lindau (VHL)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

which conditions are autosomal recessive

A

Congenital glaucoma (most commonly sporadic)
Oculocutaneous albinism
Stargardt disease
Retinitis pigmentosa-like conditions

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

X linked recessive conditions

A

Fabry disease Lowe syndrome Ocular albinism

Retinoschisis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

X linked dominant

A

alport

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

mitochondrial

A

Kearns-Sayre syndrome

Leber hereditary optic neuropathy

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

most common cause of endogenous endophthalmitis

A

Candida albicans

in immunocompromised patients

w white fluffy retinal lesions

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

types of filamentous fungi

A

Aspergillus spp. and Fusarium spp.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

filamentous fungi are common when

A

common in warm climates and can cause fungal keratitis, usually following ocular trauma.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

what is toxoplasma gondi

A

Cats are the definitive host. Transmission to humans is via fecal-oral spread, inhalation or undercooked meats. It can also be transmitted in pregnancy via vertical transmission. T. gondii can cause congenital or adult toxoplasmosis.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

what is acanthamoeba

A

Protozoa that can be found in soil, water or swimming pools. It can cause severe keratitis.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

what is toxocara

A

Their hosts are cats and dogs. It can be transmitted to humans through fecal-contaminated material. It causes toxocariasis which presents with endophthalmitis in children.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

what is river blindness and what causes it

A

onchocerciasis

Onchocerca volvulus: The most common helminth-related ocular infection. The vectors are Simulium blackflies.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

which ABx inhibit cell wall synthesis

A

Penicillin
Cephalosporin
Vancomycin

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

which ABx inhibits cell membrane function

A

Antifungals: Imidazoles, amphotericin and

nystatin

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

which ABx inhibit protein synthesis

A

Aminoglycosides
Tetracyclines
Erythromycin
Chloramphenicol

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

which ABx inhibit nucleic acid synthesis

A

Fluoroquinolones (DNA gyrase)

Metronidazole

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

what is the innate immune system

A

rapid nonspecific response of the immune system towards a foreign antigen. Neutrophils, macrophages, dendritic cells and the complement system

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

what is the adaptive immune system

A

refers to an immune response towards a specific antigen, mediated by lymphocytes (T and B cells).

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

where is MHC and HLA found

A

short arm of chromosome 6

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

where is MHC 1 are

A

are expressed on all cells and stimulate CD8+ cytotoxic T cells.

display peptide fragments of proteins from within the cell to cytotoxic T cells;

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

where is mHC2 and role

A

stimulate CD4+ T-helper cells and are expressed on specialized antigen-presenting cells such as macrophages.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

what are cytokines

A

molecules responsible for recruitment and proliferation of the innate and adaptive immune systems.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

what is TNF

A

proinflammatory cells produced by macrophages. They help in the activation and differentiation of immune cells and increase vascular permeability. They are therefore mediators of inflammation and septic shock.

25
Q

what are interleukins

A

communication between different cells and are important in regulating immune responses.

26
Q 
IL 1
2
5
6
8
10
12
A

● IL-1: Induces immune responses and causes fever
● IL-2: Proliferation of T and B cells
● IL-5: Regulates growth and activation of eosinophils

HLA subtypes
Conditions

8 Basic science, investigations and lasers
● IL-6: Involved in differentiation of B cells and production of c-reactive protein (CRP); causes fever
● IL-8: Attracts neutrophils, T cells, basophils and eosinophils
● IL-10: Suppresses immune cells
● IL-12: Differentiates T cells into TH1 and enhances cytotoxicity

27
Q

What are chemokines

A

involved in chemotaxis

28
Q

what are interferons

A

proinflammatory or immunomodulatory cells. They can be also thought of as antiviral agents. Interferon beta can be used in managing multiple sclerosis (MS).

29
Q

what is normal IOP

A

10 and 21 mmHg

30
Q

Drugs that can raise IOP

A

● Steroids
● Tropicamide (close-angle glaucoma)
● Ketamine

31
Q

IOP lowering agents

A

● Cannabinoids: Short-lasting effect and tachyphylaxis (reduced response to the drug over time)
● Alcohol: Transient effect on IOP

32
Q

drugs that cause cataracts

A 
● Steroids
● Tobacco smoke
● Amiodarone
● Allopurinol
● Chlorpromazine
33
Q

mechanism of beta-blockers

A

decreases aqueous production

34
Q

SEs of beta blockers

A 
Decreased corneal sensation
dry eye
tachyphylaxis
bradycardia
bronchospasm and nocturnal hypotension
35
Q

role of prostaglandin analogues ie lantaoprost

A

Increase aqueous drainage via the uveoscleral outflow

36
Q

SEs of prostaglandin analogue

A

Conjunctival hyperaemia, iris hyperpigmentation, increased eyelash length and cystoid macular oedema (CMO)

37
Q

role of alpha2 agonists

A

Decrease aqueous production and increase uveoscleral outflow

38
Q

SEs of alpha 2 agonists

A

Follicular conjunctivitis, contact dermatitis, tachyphylaxis, dry mouth and sedation. Used with caution in infants as they can cross the blood-brain barrier

39
Q

role of topical anhydrase inhibitors - dorzolamide

A

Decrease aqueous production

40
Q

SEs of topical anhydrase inhibitors

A

Ocular stinging, bitter taste and punctate keratitis. Contraindicated in patients with sulphonamide allergies

41
Q

role of systemic anhydrase inhibitors

A

decrease aqueous production

42
Q

SEs of systemic CAI

A

Paraesthesia, urine frequency (diuretic effect), hypokalaemia, Steven-Johnson syndrome and metabolic acidosis

43
Q

Role of miotics - pilocarpine

A

Parasympathomimetics that increase aqueous drainage via trabecular meshwork by causing contraction of ciliary muscles

44
Q

SEs of miotics

A

Myopia, brow ache, miosis and retinal detachment

45
Q

role of osmotic agents - mannitol

A

Lowers IOP by decreasing vitreous volume

46
Q

SEs of osmotic agents

A

CVS overload

47
Q

what is cystoid macular oedema

A

painless disorder which affects the central retina or macula. When this condition is present, multiple cyst-like (cystoid) areas of fluid appear in the macula and cause retinal swelling or edema.

48
Q

drugs that cause cystoid macular oedema

A

Latanoprost, epinephrine, rosiglitazone and nicotinic acid

49
Q

what is bull’s eye maculopathy

A

causes a dartboard, or ring-shaped, pattern of damage around the macula.

50
Q

drugs that cause bull’s eye maculopathy

A

Hydroxychloroquine and chloroquine

51
Q

what is crystalline maculopathy

A

physical accumulation of refractile crystalline deposits in the superficial retina

52
Q

what drug causes crystalline maculopathy

A

tamoxifen

53
Q

what drugs cause optic neuropathy

A 
● Chloramphenicol
● Amiodarone
● Vigabatrin: Causes binasal visual field defects
● Isoniazid
● Ethambutol
54
Q

what is vortex keratopathy

A

describes a whorl-like pattern of golden brown or gray opacities in the cornea.

byproducts in the basal epithelial layer of the cornea.

55
Q

drugs that cause vortex keratopathy (corneal verticillata)

A

phenothiazines.

Amiodarone, chloroquines, indomethacin

56
Q

which disease cause vortex keratopathy (corneal verticillata)

A

fabry

57
Q

what is fabry disease

A

An XLR condition characterised by a deficiency of alpha-
galactosidase A. Other features of the disease include burning pain in the extremities, angiokeratomas, renal failure and posterior subcapsular cataracts.

58
Q

ocular features of river blindness

system features

Mx

A 
decreased VA
sclerosing keratitis
anterior uveitis
BL chorioretinitis
optic neuritis
can visualise microfilariae with slit lamp examination

maculopapular rash

ivermectin

DEP (20 decks)

Brainscape helps you reach your goals faster, through stronger study habits.
© 2024 Bold Learning Solutions. Terms and Conditions