BASIC SCIENCE Flashcards

1
Q

In metabolic acidosis, the renal regulation of body fluid pH depends primarily on

A

HYDROGEN SODIUM EXCHANGE

Within the renal cell cytoplasm, carbonic anhydrase generates H+ and HCO3- from CO2 and H2O. H+ is secreted in the urine through the Na+/H+ antiporter. HCO3- is reabsorbed into the blood via the HCO3-/Na+ symporter.

Thus, the kidneys regulate body fluid pH by secretion of protons in the proximal tubules via a Na+/H+ antiporter.

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2
Q

All of the following processes occur during the intermediate phase of wound healing and predominate between 2 and 4 days after wounding

A

Intermediate wound healing processes include

mesenchymal cell chemotaxis,

mesenchymal cell proliferation,
angiogenesis,

epithelialization this is early!

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3
Q

or testing differences between two unpaired treatments.

A

The Mann-Whitney U test, also known as the Mann-Whitney

eg, Analysis of the difference in gastric hair ball size of cats fed Furball Feedbag brand cat food, relative to cats fed 8-Lives Liver Surprise, using a 4-point size scale, would require:

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4
Q

Because of the unique nature of the tissues of the penis how are burns treated

A

NOT with the use of Silvadene or other specific antibiotic ointments is not warranted for genital thermal burn injuries

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5
Q

The majority of posterior urethral distraction injuries result from

A

almost exclusively associated with pelvic fracture or pubic diastasis injuries.

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6
Q

The long-term sequelae of pelvic fracture and urethral distraction are how common

A

rare:
incontinence is rarely seen

impotence is seen in approximately 30% to 50% of patients depending on the institution’s definition of impotence.

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7
Q

percent of pelvic fractures result in posterior urethral distraction injuries

A

only 5% to 10% of pelvic fractures result in posterior urethral distraction injury.

On rectal examination in the patient with a posterior urethral distraction, usually the anatomy is obliterated, the prostate is usually non-palpable, and one cannot digitally determine the distraction defect in any case.

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8
Q

The ovary supporting the dominant follicle can be detected as early as

A

day 5 of the follicular phase by measuring estrogen levels in the ovarian veins.

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9
Q

In the Frank-Starling curve, if the patient is to the right of the normal range, cardiac function is compromised because of

A

valvular disease,
extrinsic pressure such as pericardial tamponade,

or, more commonly,

a decrease in contractility.

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10
Q

the affinity of the hemoglobin molecule for oxygen

Factors that shift the curve to the left are

A

increased affinity such as a

decrease in temperature,

increase in pH,

decrease in PaCO2,

LOW levels of 2,3-diphosphoglycerate [(2,3-DPG), which is an organophosphate created in red blood cells (RBCs) during glycolysis which binds to hemoglobin and decreases its affinity for oxygen].

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11
Q

Factors that shift the O2 dissociation curve to the right are

A

right is right = right is better - let go of O2 in tissue

Conversely, a right shift of the curve causes a lower affinity of hemoglobin for oxygen and is caused by an

INCREASE in temperature,

lowering of pH,

increase in PaCO2 (paralel to incr acid),

INCREASE levels of 2,3-DPG.

The production of 2,3-DPG is probably an adaptive mechanism because its production increases during times of diminished peripheral tissue O2 availability

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12
Q

An anticholinergic drug is administered with an anticholinesterase drug during pharmacologic reversal of neuromuscular blockade in order to:

A

Anticholinergic drugs are administered to block muscarinic effects. The increase in acetylcholine due to anticholinesterase administration would lead to muscarinic as well as nicotinic stimulation. Anticholinergic drugs block the muscarinic effects.

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13
Q

CAVH is an extracorporeal filtration

A

technique that removes extracellular fluid across a synthetic membrane by means of a hydrostatic pressure gradient between the indwelling arterial and venous catheters.

Arteriovenous access is accomplished by means of percutaneous cannulation of the femoral artery and vein with a low incidence of complications.

Although full systemic anticoagulation is not necessary for CAVH, heparinization of the extracorporeal circuit is required.

CAVH is run continuously for as many days as renal replacement is needed.

little or no hemodynamic instability with treatment of critically ill patients with renal failure.

Fluid balance and serum electrolyte concentrations can be titrated to any level in a matter of hours by means of manipulation of the composition and rate of replacement solution.

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14
Q

The most important effect of the intra-aortic balloon pump is

A

reduces afterload.

It is the only afterload reducing therapy which does not drop the diastolic pressure and thereby reduce the coronary perfusion pressure.

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15
Q

The zona pellucida forms surrounding the oocyte during

A

the process of folliculogenesis.

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16
Q

Clinical manifestations of acute metabolic acidosis include which of the following?

A

The most important cardiovascular effects of acute metabolic acidosis are peripheral arteriolar dilatation,

decrease in cardiac contractility,

central venous constriction.

These can cause cardiovascular collapse and pulmonary edema.

Catecholamine secretion is stimulated by metabolic acidosis, and in mild cases, heart rate may be increased.

shifting the oxygen-hemoglobin disassociation curve to the right.

17
Q

A 95% confidence interval gives you the following information:

A

You have 95% confidence that the population mean lies within this interval.

95% of the data lie within two standard deviations of the mean,

You can use data derived from the sample to make an estimate of the true mean for the population.

18
Q

Tamponade produces characteristic changes in jugular venous pulsations:

A

the x descent (systolic collapse) remains, while the y descent (diastolic collapse) disappears.

19
Q

“pulsus paradoxus.”

A

With tamponade, there is typically a fall in systolic blood pressure of more than 10 mm Hg during inspiration

20
Q

The principal mechanism for development of goiter and hyperthyroidism in patients with Graves disease is production of autoantibodies to which of the following?

A

Graves is most common thyroid prob and TSH is most common thyroid test you want to get

Autoantibodies to the TSH receptor activate the adenylate cyclase receptor cascade, which stimulates thyroid vascularity, growth, and hormone release and is the basis for the development of this disorder.

Thyroglobulin autoantibodies are present in some patients with Graves

Autoantibodies to the thyroid microsomal antigen are present in approximately 80% of patients with Graves disease but do not account for the development of goiter and thyrotoxicosis.

21
Q

Thyroid peroxidase autoantibodies are commonly seen in patients with

A

autoimmune thyroid disease but do not result in thyrotoxicosis.

22
Q

Thyroxine.

A

more commonly found in patients with Hashimoto thyroiditis

23
Q

Thyroid microsomal antigen.

A

Autoantibodies to the thyroid microsomal antigen are present in approximately 80% of patients with Graves disease but do not account for the development of goiter and thyrotoxicosis.

24
Q

Treatment for bile salt diarrhea is

A

oral cholestyramine.

25
Q

bacteria overgrowth of the bowel Diagnosis is made with

A

an abnormal D-Xylose breath test.