Basic Science Flashcards

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1
Q

What are three consequences of p53 loss

A

Genomic instability (loss of G1/S checkpoint),
impaired DNA repair
impaired apoptosis

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2
Q

Fibrosis is common after RT. List THREE cytokines/pathways that cause it

A

TGFB (transforming growth factor beta ) – converts fibroblasts into myofibroblasts; collagen production: I found the most evidence for this
CTGF (connective tissue growth factor) – collagen production
PDGF (platelet derived growth factor)

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3
Q

What are the 4 Phases of Mitosis

A

Prophase – Chromatin condenses to chromosomes
Metaphase – Spindle fibres align at metaphase plate
Anaphase – Paired chromosomes move to opposite sides of cell
Telophase – Division into daughter cells, chromosome dispersal

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4
Q

Name 3 angiogenic factors produced by tumor cells

A

Vascular endothelial growth factor (VEGF)
Interleukin-8
tumor necrosis factor (TNF)-α

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5
Q

What type of molecule is HER2?
What are the 2 domains or components of HER2?
Why is trastuzumab humanized?

A

Receptor tyrosine kinase of the EGFR family.
Extracellular domain: signal transduction is initiated through dimerization with other receptors. Intracellular domain: responsible for phosphorylation and recruitment of proteins
Improves efficacy because humanized monoclonal antibodies (as compared to chimeric [mouse-human] or mouse MABs) are less likely to induce an immune response in the patient.

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6
Q

Explain the mechanism of p53

A

tumor suppressor gene and checkpoint protein, with many anti-cancer mechanisms:
- recognize DNA damage
- cause cell cycle arrest if damage detected
- initiate DNA repair
- initiate apoptosis or programmed cell death if DNA irreparable

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7
Q

What is Fluorescence in situ hybridization (FISH) and give an example where you would use it

A

FLUORESCENT LABELLED PROBES COMPLEMENTARY TO SEPCIFIC DNA SEQUENCES. hER-2/NEU. TRANSLOCATION FOR Dx LIKE in double hit lymphoma with C-MYC and BCL2 or BCL6

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8
Q

What gene is amplified in a liposarcoma?

A

MDM2
CDK4

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9
Q

Name 3 ways the human genome differs between individuals

A
  • Various mutational events
  • Genetic drift – insertions, deletions, translocations.
  • Epigenetics factors: eg silencing.
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10
Q

Explain the mechanism of: BRCA1

A

– BRCA1 is a tumor suppressor gene.
interact with RAD51 during repair of DNA double-strand breaks. DNA repair protein in Homologous recombination.

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11
Q

8 modifiable breast cancer risk factors

A
  • Parity
  • Time of first pregnancy
  • Breastfeeding duration
  • Weight loss
  • Use of oral contraceptive pill
  • Use of hormone replacement therapy
  • Use of selective estrogen receptor modulator (raloxifene)
  • Choice to have prophylactic oophorectomies
  • Choice to have prophylactic mastectomies
  • Alcohol
  • Physical activity
  • Smoking
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12
Q

Prove that HPV causes cervical cancer (from Gunderson)

A

1) Multiple epidemiologic studies showing HPV infection as the most important risk factor for the development of squamous cell intra-epithelial lesions and cervical carcinomas
2) Detection of HPV DNA in more than 90% of cervical cancers and their precursor lesions
3) Evidence of HPV transcriptional activity in neoplastic tissues
4) Evidence that HPV oncogenes can mediate malignant transformation in transgenic mice

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13
Q

List 3 reasons why a screening study may falsely show improved survival

A

Lead time bias
Length time bias
Selection bias

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14
Q

Between which 2 active phases is G0? (0.5)

A

M and G1

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15
Q

List 5 factors that influence relative biological effectiveness:

A

o Linear energy transfer
o Radiation dose
o Number of fractions
o Dose per fraction
o Dose rate
o Biological system or tissue studied

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16
Q

Abiraterone: How does it work as an anti-androgen?

Why do you prescribe prednisone with abiraterone?

A

Androgen biosynthesis inhibitor, which inhibits 17α hydroxylase/C1, 20-lyase (CYP-17A1) involved in androgen biosynthesis and mineralocorticoid production. Abiraterone also inhibits DHEA and androstenedione

To replace endogenous steroids

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17
Q

EGFR+ NSCLC, what are two most common point mutations. Does gefinitib work better for one mutation than another. If there is resistance what mutation do you now test for and what medication is health Canada approved to treat with now.

A

Two most common point mutations: Exon 19 and exon 21
Gefinitib works better than Exon 19
If resistent to Gefinitib, test for T790M and if positive, can use Osimertinib

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18
Q

In personalized medicine what enzymes could be tested for, that would limit efficacy of;
Tamoxifen: tamoxifen is SERM (selective estrogen receptor modulator). metabolizes it to active metabolites.
Capecitabine:

A

Tamoxifen: CYP2D6 to make the drug effective
Capecitabine: DPD enzyme metabolizes, and deficiency could cause severe toxicity.

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19
Q

8 side effects to monitor for capecitabine

A

Palmar plantar erythrodysesthesia
Diarrhea
Nausea
Vomiting
Stomatitis
ALT elevation
AST elevation
Neutropenia (also anemia, lymphopenia, thrombocytopenia)

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20
Q

Name 2 classes of immunostimulatory antibodies. Name 1 example each and its mechanism of action

A

mAbs that interfere with co-inhibition (block inhibition of immune checkpoint receptors): Ipilimumam and nivolumab

mAbs that promote the performance of APCs (triger activating receptors): CD40 Dacetuzumab

21
Q

Molecular target of cialis (tadalafil), abiraterone, siladosin (rapaflo), degarelix (firmagon), denosumab, dutasteride

A

PDE5 inhibitor, 17alpha-hydroxylase, alpha receptor antagonist, LHRH antagonist, RANKL inhibitor, 5a-reductase

22
Q

List the target and/or mechanism of each other following:
- bortezomib
- temsirolimus

A

a. Bortezomib (Velcade): proteasome inhib. – used for myeloma /lymphoma
b. Temsirolimus: mTOR inh – used for rcc and mantle cell

23
Q

For lymphoma, list the mechanisms for the drugs in CHOPR (5)

A

Cyclophosphamide – alkylating agent
doxorubicin – anthracycline; DNA intercalator and also inhibits topoisomerase II
vincristine – vinca alkaloid; blocks microtubule assembly by binding to tubulin
prednisone – corticosteroid; induces death of lymphoma cells
rituximab – chimeric monoclonal antibody; anti-CD20

24
Q

Paclitaxel: MOA and 4 S/E apart from fatigue, nausea, hair loss

A

myelosupression/neutropenia
nausea/vomiting
peripheral neuropathy
mucositis

25
Q

3 common s/e of IV bisophosphonates

A
  • hypocalcemia
  • arthralgia
  • pyrexia (fever)
26
Q

6 chemos that act as a radiosensitizer and can increase radiation-induced lung injury

A
  • Doxorubicin, bleomycin, mitomycin c, dactinomycin (think: what is bleomycin, and what are two other anti-neoplastic antibiotics)
  • Taxanes: paclitaxel, docetaxel
27
Q

3 system agents used in RCTs in chemoprevention trials for breast cancer

A

Tamoxifen
Raloxifene
Exemestane

28
Q

2 electrolyte abnormalities with concurrent cisplatin chemotherapy

A

hypomagnesemia, hypocalcemia: increased urinary excretion

29
Q

Mechanism of action of sutent

A

RTK (receptor tyrosine kinase) inhibitor: antiangiogenic against VEGF, PDGF

30
Q

What are three common side effects of AI (2 points)

A

Vaginal dryness
Hot flashes
Myalgia
Arthralgia
Osteoporosis

31
Q

What tissues can aromatase enzyme be found? (2 points)

A

Adipose tissue
Gonads
Brain
Skin
Bone
NOT adrenal gland

32
Q

What are 8 established sequelae of long term androgen deprivation therapy?

A

Loss of libido
Erectile dysfunction
Testicular atrophy
Gynecomastia
Osteoporosis
Lean muscle mass loss
Hyperglycemia
Coronary artery disease
Weight gain
Anemia
Depression

33
Q

Give 2 theoretical mechanisms for antiandrogen withdrawal syndrome.

A

Paradoxical stimulation of mutated androgen receptor via androgen receptor gene mutations
Androgen receptor co-regulatory protein alteration via NSAA (increased expression)
Clonal selection
Activation of MAP kinase pathway by anti-androgen

34
Q

What chemotherapy + radiation adds toxicity in the following organs:
CNS,
heart,
lung,
esophagus,
lower GI,
peripheral nerves,
kidney.

A

CNS, Methotrexate
heart, Doxorubicin,5-FU (cardiac)
lung, Bleomycin, paclitaxel
esophagus, Cisplatin
lower GI, 5-FU (diarrhea), ipilumumab (colitis)
peripheral nerves, Cisplatin, docetaxel, paclitaxel, vincristine, vinblastine, vinorelbine
kidney. Cisplatin

35
Q

Mechanism and two important side effects of (3 points each):

Sunitinib (Sutent): T
Irinotecan:
Oxaliplatin:

A

Mechanism and two important side effects of (3 points each):
Sunitinib (Sutent): Tyrosine kinase inhibitor (multi-target including VEGF-R and PDGF-R)
Diarrhea
hypertension
Hand-foot syndrome
Edema (peripheral)
Irinotecan: belongs to topoisomerase inhibitors, prevents DNA from unwinding
Diarrhea
Neutropenia
Oxaliplatin: platinum agent – interferes with DNA synthesis through covalent binding of DNA molecules to form intrastrands and interstrands DNA cross -links
Peripheral neuropathy
Neutropenia

36
Q

mechanism of action of Amifostine

A
  • Radioprotectant
  • Amifostine detoxifies metabolites of platinum/alkylating agents and scavenges free radicals.
37
Q

What is mechanism of Avastin, and what are 2 side effects

A

VEGFR inhibitor - inhibit angiogenesis (specifically - inhibits growth of new tumor blood vessels, decrease vascular permeability of microvascular growth, induce regression of tumor microvessels)
Bowel perforation
Bleeding
Hypertension
Stroke

38
Q

Name the 2 MOST IMPORTANT POTENTIAL SEVERE side effects of IV bisphosphonate therapy

A

necrosis of jaw
renal failure

39
Q

Mechanism and two side effects of:
- Cetuximab
- Bevacizumab

A

Cetuximab
monoclonal antibody inhibitor of the EGFR receptor, competitively inhibits the binding of EGF and other ligands
S.E. – acneiform rash, diarrhea, changes in nails, headache, sore throat, GI upset (n/v)

Bevacizumab – monoclonal antibody of the VEGFR
S.E. hypertension, diarrhea, bowel perforation, hemorrhage, myelosuppression

40
Q

What is the molecular target for the following monoclonal antibodies:

A

Vemurafenib: BRAF inhibitor
Imatinib: Bcr-Abl TKI
Exemstane: Aromatase inhibitor

41
Q

What is the OER? (1)

A

OER is the ratio of hypoxic to aerated doses needed to achieve the same biologic effect. Here the OER is 2.5

42
Q

If you increase energy of radiation, what will happen with LET, increase, or decrease?

A

The higher the energy, the lower the LET for any given particle, and thus, the lower the RBE

43
Q

How is OER affected by increasing LET?

b)What happens to OER as you have decreasing LET <50 keV/um? (0.5)

c) What happens to OER as you increase LET >300 keV/um? (0.5)

A

As LET increases, OER decreases and approaches 1
Low LET radiation has OER of about 2.5, whereas high LET radiation is around 1.3m and when you get to LET of 200 keV/µm, OER is 1.0

b) When LET decreases, OER increases

c) No change above 200 as by then OER approaches 1

44
Q

You radiated with low energy alpha particles with 3 Gy and the remaining cells alive are 10% under hypoxic conditions. What is the proportion of cells that will survive if you give 3 Gy x 2 in aerated conditions? (1)

A

High LET radiation, OER is approximately 1, so ignore effect of oxygen
2 fractions 1%

45
Q

Does the presence of oxygen increase or decrease sensitivity of cells to radiation

A

a) increases sensitivity!!!! remember - it forms DNA damaging free radicals!

46
Q

What is D0

A

D0 is the final slope of a cell survival curve.
 1/D0= the slope of the survival curve.

D0 is also a means of representing the relative radiosensitivity of cell populations. D0 is the dose required to reduce the surviving fraction to 37% of that associated with the previous dose

47
Q

What is the most common alpha/beta ratio for acute tissue / tumors? Late?

A

Acute tissue/tumors – 10 and Late – 3 (CNS 2)

48
Q

LET is ______ proportional to the energy of the particle
The directly ionizing effect of radiotherapy is responsible for __ % of total damage to tumor cells

A

Inversely
33% (indirect is responsible for 66% <3)