Basic Micro

Question 1

Invented the first compound microscope in1597

Answer 1

Zacharias Janssen

Question 2

suggested to be first to observe microorganisms; 20 years before Hooks, 29 years before leeuwenhoek

Answer 2

Athanasius Kirche

Question 3

create compound microscope in 1676 “wee animalcules”

Answer 3

Antonie van leeuwenhoek

Question 4

“cells” in cork, “elongated stalks” fungi, 30x compound microscope 1665

Answer 4

Robert Hooke

Question 5

Author of meat in jar experiment 1668

Answer 5

Francesco Redi

Question 6

Author of mutton broth in flask, unsealed boiling 1745

Answer 6

John Needham

Question 7

Redone mutton broth experiment, sealed boiling 1768

Answer 7

Lazzaro Spallanzani

Question 8

debunked spontaneous generation via passing air through strong acid

Answer 8

Franz Schultze

Question 9

debunked spontaneous generation via passing air through red-hot tubes

Answer 9

Theodor Schwann

Question 10

debunked spontaneous generation via filtering air through sterile cotton wool 1850

Answer 10

Georg Friedrich Schroder
Theodor von Dusch

Question 11

Autho of Swan-neck flask experiment, prroving life did not arise from non-life 1822-1895

Answer 11

Louis Pasteur

Question 12

Delivered the final blow against spontaneous generation; dust carries microorganisms; provided evidence for the existence of heat-resistant bacteria 1820-1893

Answer 12

John Tyndall

Question 13

“Disease are caused by specific agents called germs”

Answer 13

Germ theory of disease

Question 14

“disease was caused by invisible living creatures” 1478-1553

Answer 14

Girolamo Fracastoro

Question 15

showed that Beauveria bassiana (fungi) cause silkworm disease 1773-1856

Answer 15

Agostino Bassi

Question 16

showed that the great potato blight of ireland was caused by Phytophthora infestans (fungus-like) 1845

Answer 16

Miles Joseph Berkeley

Question 17

smut and rust fungi cause cereal crop disease; Founding father of plant pathology 1853

Answer 17

Heinrich Anton de Bary

Question 18

savior of mothers; asepsis

Answer 18

Ignaz Philipp Semmelweis 1861

Question 19

used phenol or carbolic acid in surgical dressing and heat- sterilized surgical instruments; Father of Antiseptic Surgery 1867

Answer 19

Joseph Lister

Question 20

showed that the pebrine disease of silkworms was caused by Nosema bombycis (protozoa)

Answer 20

Louis Pasteur

Question 21

established the relationship between B. anthracis and anthrax, Tuberculosis, cholera

Answer 21

Robert Koch

Question 22

State the Principles of Koch Postulates

Answer 22

1. The suspected causative agent must be absent from all healthy organisms but present in all diseased organisms.
2. The causative agent must be isolated from the diseased organism and grown in pure culture.
3. the cultured agent must cause the same disease when inoculated into a healthy susceptible organism.
4. The same causative agent must then be reisolated from the inoculated diseased organism

Question 23

The informal “vaccination” before vaccines were developed

Answer 23

variolation

Question 24

Diseases of the vaccines created by Pasteur and his co-workers

Answer 24

chicken cholera, anthrax, rabies

Question 25

Developed porcelain bacterial filterer 1851-1908

Answer 25

Charles Chamberland

Question 26

Tobacco mosaic disease caused by an infectious agent smaller than a bacterium he called “virus”1898; “contagium vivum fluidum”; one of the founders of virology

Answer 26

Martinus Beijerink

Question 27

developed 606th compound SALVARSAN; organic arsenal used to treat syphilis

Answer 27

Paul Ehrlich

Question 28

demonstrated role of yeasts in fermentation; alcohol fermentation by yeasts; lactic acid fermentation by bacteria

Answer 28

Louis Pasteur

Question 29

discovered the existence of heat-resistant bacterial endospores

Answer 29

Ferdinand Cohn

Question 30

studied soil and soil microorganisms; developed enrichment cultures and selective media

Answer 30

Sergei Winogradsky
Martinus Beijerink

Question 31

Discovered nitrogen fixation

Answer 31

Martinus Beijerink

Question 32

Discovered lithotophy and chemoautotrophy

Answer 32

Sergei Winogradsky

Question 33

microscope that uses light waves and mirrors

Answer 33

simple, compound/complex light microscopes

Question 34

microscope that has higher magnification and resolving power, uses electron beams as energy source, for <0.2mm objects, in vacuum

Answer 34

electron microscope

Question 35

Light microscope; darker objects; bright micro field; for gross morphology

Answer 35

bright field

Question 36

light microscope; dark micro field; luminous objects; for invisible, cannot be stained, and distorted by staining specimen

Answer 36

dark field

Question 37

light microscope; based on refractive indices; detailed examination for internal structure

Answer 37

Phase contrast

Question 38

Light microscope; based on refractive indices; no diffraction halo; 3D appearance

Answer 38

differential interference contrast

Question 39

light microscope; detection of immunological reactions ; uses fluorochromes; visualize specimen that fluoresce

Answer 39

fluorescence

Question 40

light microscope; use for thick specimen like biofilms; to visualize structures

Answer 40

confocal

Question 41

light microscope; to examine living cells within intact issues

Answer 41

two-photon

Question 42

electron microscope; ultrastucture in thin section of cells; resolution up to atomic level of thinner objects; examine viruses

Answer 42

TEM

Question 43

electron microscope; surface features; reveals 3D image

Answer 43

SEM

Question 44

organic compounds carrying chromophoric ions; provides increase in contrast for internal and external cell structure visualization

Answer 44

Dye/ stains

Question 45

Types of stains

Answer 45

basic/positively-charged, acidic/negatively charged, neutral

Question 46

staining type; only one dye

Answer 46

simple staining

Question 47

staining type; one dye; cells same color as dye

Answer 47

positive/direct simple staining

Question 48

staining type; one dye; cells are colorless or luminous

Answer 48

negative/ indirect simple staining

Question 49

basic dyes/ positive stains

Answer 49

crystal violet, malachite green, methylene blue, safranin

Question 50

acidic dye/ negative stains

Answer 50

acid fuchsin, eosin, rose bengal, india ink, nigrosine

Question 51

stain type; 2 or more dyes/ reagents; ex gram stain, acid-fast

Answer 51

differential staining

Question 52

makes dye less soluble to adhere to cell walls

Answer 52

mordant- iodine

Question 53

differential staining; for diagnosis of tuberculosis

Answer 53

acid fast staining; Ziehl-Neelsen, kinyoun

Question 54

differential staining; for capsules, endospores, flagella, storage granules

Answer 54

structural staining

Question 55

capsule staining; negative; bacterial cells resuspended in antiserum that contains antibodies raised against the capsule

Answer 55

quellung reaction

Question 56

capsule staining; cv as primary stain, decolorizing agent and counterstain 20% copper sulfate

Answer 56

Anthony’s method

Question 57

capsule staining; congo red as ph indicator; phenol+ CH3COOH+FeCl3, phenol+ FeCl3 (acid fuchsin)

Answer 57

Maneval’s staining

Question 58

culture; population arose from a single cell

Answer 58

pure/ axenic culture

Question 59

method to increase population of microorganisms by providing nutritional and physical requirements

Answer 59

cultivation

Question 60

types of culture media based on physical state

Answer 60

liquid/ broth, semi-solid 0.1-0.5% solidifying agent, solif 1.5-2.0% sol a

Question 61

types of culture media based on chemical composition

Answer 61

synthetic, complex

Question 62

types of culture media according to principal function, purpose or application

Answer 62

general purpose, differential

Question 63

isolation technique; visible colonies

Answer 63

plating

Question 64

isolation technique; for isolation of unusual physiological types of microorganisms which are present in small numbers/ grow slowly; isolation by combining nutrient and physical conditions

Answer 64

enrichment culture

Question 65

isolation technique; used if desired microorganisms is present at higher level

Answer 65

serial dilution

Question 66

isolation technique; use micropipette/ microprobe to physically pick a single cell to transfer to an agar medium

Answer 66

single-cell isolation technique

Question 67

isolation technique; for samples with low population

Answer 67

membrane filter technique

Question 68

culture preservation; considers time interval of transfers

Answer 68

periodic transfer to fresh media

Question 69

culture preservation; to limit availability of oxygen thereby reducing metabolic rate

Answer 69

overlaying cultures with mineral oil

Question 70

culture preservation; rapid drying in frozen state

Answer 70

lyophilization

Question 71

culture preservation; uses cryoprotective agent, -196C

Answer 71

freezing with liquid nitrogen

Question 72

culture preservation; samples grown on sterile paper discs with nutrient and air dried, use of calcium chloride

Answer 72

drying

Question 73

complete destruction of all microorganisms and endospores

Answer 73

sterilization

Question 74

killing, inhibition, or removal of pathogenic microorganisms

Answer 74

disinfection

Question 75

reduction of microbial population to levels considered safe by public health standards

Answer 75

sanitization

Question 76

carry out antisepsis, effective against microorganisms does not damage tissues

Answer 76

antiseptics

Question 77

mechanical removal + use of mild chemicals on tissues or skin

Answer 77

degerming

Question 78

example of moist heat method

Answer 78

pasteurization, boiling, steam under pressure, tyndallization

Question 79

example of dry heat application

Answer 79

direct flame

Question 80

microbial control ; decreased enzyme activity;decrease metabolic activity

Answer 80

refrigeration

Question 81

microbial control; exclusion of microorganisms; for heat sensitive solutions

Answer 81

filtration

Question 82

microbial control; irreversible denaturation of enzymes and structural proteins

Answer 82

moist heat

Question 83

microbial control; oxidation of molecular components

Answer 83

dry heat- hot air

Question 84

microbial control; lowers water activity; microbiostasis

Answer 84

dessication

Question 85

microbial control; lowers water activity; microbiostasis; rapid freezing then sublimation

Answer 85

lyophilization

Question 86

microbial control; osmotic shock

Answer 86

addition of solutes

Question 87

microbial control;breaks DNA double strand; for materials that cannot be autoclaved

Answer 87

ionizing radiation

Question 88

microbial control; formation of thymine dimers;poor penetrating power-surface disinfection

Answer 88

non-ionizing radiation

Question 89

microbial control; thymine dimers and oxidation ROS

Answer 89

radiation- sunlight

Question 90

microbial control; antimicrobial agent; substance that kills microorganisms

Answer 90

cidal; bactericidal, fungicidal etc

Question 91

microbial control; antimicrobial agent; prevent growth of microorganisms

Answer 91

static; bacteriostatic, fungistatic etc

Question 92

microbial control; membrane disruption and protein denaturation

Answer 92

phenol and phenolics

Question 93

microbial control; phenol and phenolics; inhibits fatty acid biosynthesis pathway; banned by USFDA

Answer 93

triclosan

Question 94

microbial control; protein denaturation; inhibit cell metabolism; disrupts cell membrane; lyse cell; cidal to enveloped virus

Answer 94

alcohol

Question 95

microbial control; group VIIA

Answer 95

halogens

Question 96

microbial control;halogens; oxidation of celllular components

Answer 96

iodine, chlorine, bleach

Question 97

microbial control;halogens; interferes with bacterial metabolism ; bacteriostatic

Answer 97

fluorine/fluoride

Question 98

microbial control; protein denaturation; oligodynamic, no selective toxicity

Answer 98

heavy metals

Question 99

microbial control; protein denaturation; oligodynamic, no selective toxicity; used to treat syphilis

Answer 99

mercury

Question 100

microbial control; protein denaturation; oligodynamic, no selective toxicity; combined with antibiotics; coating in med supplies

Answer 100

silver

Question 101

microbial control; nucleic acid and enzyme inactivation

Answer 101

alkylating agents; aldehydes, ethylene oxide

Question 102

microbial control; oxidation of cellular components ; disinfectant/ antiseptic

Answer 102

peroxygens, hydrogen peroxide

Question 103

measuring microbial control; time needed to kill a given number of organisms at specifc temp

Answer 103

thermal death time

Question 104

measuring microbial control; time required to destroy 90% of organisms

Answer 104

decimal reduction time; D value

Question 105

measuring microbial control; smallest amount of agent needed to inhibit the growth of a test organism

Answer 105

MIC

Question 106

classification system; based on arbitrary chosen criteria

Answer 106

artificial

Question 107

classification system; arranges organisms into groups whose members share many characteristics.

Answer 107

natural

Question 108

classification system; natural classification; based on mutual similarity of the organism phenotypes

Answer 108

phenetic system

Question 109

classification system; based on evolutionary relationships rather than general resemblance

Answer 109

phylogenetic or phyletic system

Question 110

2 kingdom scheme; carolus linnaeus 1735

Answer 110

animalia, vegetabilia

Question 111

3 kingdom system; primitive and advanced forms

Answer 111

Ernst Haeckel

Question 112

2 empire system; prokaryote and eukaryote 1937

Answer 112

Edouard Chatton

Question 113

the 4th kingdom in the 4 kingdom scheme by Herbert Copeland 1938

Answer 113

Monera

Question 114

5 kingdom scheme

Answer 114

Robert Whittaker

Question 115

6 kingdom Scheme 1977

Answer 115

Carl Woese

Question 116

Woese, Kandler and Wheelis 1990

Answer 116

3 Domains of life

Question 117

ubiquitous; conserved for identification yet variable to determine evolutionary relationships

Answer 117

rRNA

Question 118

system used in nomenclature

Answer 118

Binomial nomenclature

Question 119

Nutritional type; energy source sunlight; carbon source C02

Answer 119

photoautotroph

Question 120

Nutritional type; energy source sunlight; carbon source organic compounds

Answer 120

photoheterotroph

Question 121

Nutritional type; energy source inorganic chemicals; carbon source C02

Answer 121

chemoautotroph

Question 122

Nutritional type; energy source organic compounds; carbon source organic compounds

Answer 122

chemoheterotroph

Question 123

inclusion bodies; stored carbon and energy source

Answer 123

glycogen granules

Question 124

inclusion bodies; lipid-like, stored carbon and energy source

Answer 124

PHB

Question 125

inclusion bodies; stored nitrogen source polymer of amino acids, produced in times of stress

Answer 125

cyanophycin

Question 126

inclusion bodies; contains enzymes involved in carbon fixation

Answer 126

carboxysomes

Question 127

inclusion bodies; present in Bacillus thuringiensis

Answer 127

crystal proteins

Question 128

inclusion bodies; impermeable to water and solutes but not to gases, for buoyancy

Answer 128

gas vacuoles

Question 129

inclusion bodies; not an energy storage, orientation for favorable conditions

Answer 129

magnetosomes

Question 130

inclusion bodies; inorganic; metachromatic polyphosphate reservoirs

Answer 130

volutin

Question 131

inclusion bodies; inorganic; energy and electron source; present in T. namibiensis

Answer 131

sulfur granules

Question 132

rapid approach for evaluating polymorphisms between strains

Answer 132

genome fingerprinting

Question 133

genome fingerprinting; fragments of DNa generated from individual genes or whole genomes

Answer 133

ribotyping

Question 134

acts like a copying machine

Answer 134

PCR

Question 135

determine relatedness between strains; gold standard for the delineation of bacterial species

Answer 135

DNA-DNA hybridization

Question 136

growth where the cells double its numbers

Answer 136

exponential growth

Question 137

most common mechanism of replication in bacteria; asexual reproduction

Answer 137

binary fission

Question 138

The time it takes the cell to double its numbers

Answer 138

generation time

Question 139

proteins that interact to form a division apparatus in the cell (divisome

Answer 139

fts proteins- filamentous temperature-sensitive

Question 140

orchestrates the synthesis of new cytoplasmic membrane and new cell wall material

Answer 140

divisome

Question 141

protein that forms a constricting ring at the division site

Answer 141

FtsZ

Question 142

protein that serves as the driving force behind membrane invagination at the division site

Answer 142

FtsA

Question 143

protein that helps in separating the replicated bacterial chromosome

Answer 143

FtsK

Question 144

protein that plays a role in the later stages of peptidoglycan synthesis

Answer 144

FtsI

Question 145

also known as the adaptation phase; synthesis of protoplasm; no immediate increase in cell numbers or mass; synthesis of new components

Answer 145

lag phase

Question 146

growth and division at the maximal rate; constant growth rate; cells are uniform chemically, metabolically, and physiologically

Answer 146

log/ exponential growth phase

Question 147

no net increase; growth rate tapers off; equal death and growth rate;

Answer 147

stationary phase

Question 148

decline of viable cells; death higher than growth

Answer 148

death / logarithmic decline phase

Question 149

flow system of constant volume to which fresh medium is added continuously and spent culture medium removed at a constant rate

Answer 149

chemostat/ continuous culture

Question 150

when a system is in equilibrium; cell number and nutrient status constant

Answer 150

steady state

Question 151

measuring of microbial growth; total cell count; uses squares to determine cell count

Answer 151

counting chamber method/ Petroff-Hausser chamber

Question 152

measuring of microbial growth; total cell count; initially developed to count blood cells; uses electrodes; senses the change in resistance in an electrolyte solution that takes place when a cell passes through a small opening automatically counting cells

Answer 152

coulter counter method

Question 153

measuring of microbial growth; total cell count; employed for counting bacteria in milk samples; cheap and rapid; gives indirect information about the herd from which the milk was drawn

Answer 153

breed count

Question 154

measuring of microbial growth; uses cfu/ml; one cell gives rise to one colony;employs serial dilution

Answer 154

viable cell count/ viable plate count

Question 155

measuring of microbial growth; viable cell count; volume of sample is 0.1-1ml; involves molten agar; surface and subsurface colonies

Answer 155

pour plate method

Question 156

measuring of microbial growth; viable cell count; volume of sample is 0.1 ml; surface colonies

Answer 156

spread plate method

Question 157

measuring of microbial growth; viable cell count; uses 20 ul of sample; valid colony counts 10-20 ul

Answer 157

Miles and Misra (drop method)

Question 158

measuring of microbial growth; viable cell count; uses a logarithmically decreasing volume of sample by dispensing it on a petri dish in an archimedes spiral

Answer 158

Spiral plate method (spiral plater)

Question 159

measuring of microbial growth; viable cell count;for dairy and food products; use of screw-capped tubes/ bottles of varying sizes; pre-determined amounts of melted and inoculated agar are added into the tube and the agar is made to solidify as a thin layer on the inside of the vessel; colonies are counted by rotating the vessel

Answer 159

roll tube method

Question 160

measuring of microbial growth; viable cell count; to concentrate the cells

Answer 160

Filtration; membrane filter technique

Question 161

measuring of microbial growth; viable cell count; a statistical estimating method based on the fact that the greater the number of bacteria in a sample, the more dilution is needed to reduce the density to the point at which no bacteria are left to grow in the tubes in a dilution series; combines dilution to extinction with statistical probability

Answer 161

most probable number method (MPN)

Question 162

measuring of microbial growth; less costly than viable count; ie electric particle counting, detection of carbon isotopes

Answer 162

rapid semi/ automated counts

Question 163

determination of mass; direct types

Answer 163

wet and dry weight determination

Question 164

determination of mass; indirect method; uses spectrophotometer

Answer 164

turbidimetric methods

Question 165

used to standardized the number of bacteria in a liquid suspension

Answer 165

McFarland standards

Question 166

measurement by chemical analysis; biochemical assays; can be used to estimate living biomass (luciferin-luciferase assay)

Answer 166

ATP and total Adenylate Nucleutides

Question 167

represents the quantity of energy being stored; expressed in units of weight/ units of energy

Answer 167

biomass

Question 168

adaptation of psychrophilic bacteria

Answer 168

-largely unsaturated fatty acids in their plasma membranes
- have greater amounts of alpha helix and lesser contents of beta sheet secondary making their proteins less rigid and greater flexibility in catalyzing reactions at colder environments

Question 169

adaptation of thermophilic bacteria

Answer 169

-high G+C content in their DNA
-presence of highly saturated membrane fatty acids
-hyperthermophiles membranes has phytane
-heat stable structural proteins and proteins are modified for thermal stability

Question 170

Response of aerobes and aerotolerant anaerobes to presence of oxygen

Answer 170

-production of superoxide dismutase ( prevents lethal accumulation of superoxide)
-having the enzyme catalase (directed to decompose H202)
-peroxidase enzymes in LAB in place of catalase in some species

Question 171

Response of obligate anaerobes to presence of oxygen

Answer 171

-lacks superoxide dismutase, catalase, and/or peroxidase (reason oxygen is toxic to them)
-presence of carotenoid pigments (all photosynthetic, some non-photosynthetic are protected from the lethal oxidation of singlet oxygen due to this)

Question 172

Biochemical test; used to determine if the mcg is able to detoxify hydrogen peroxide; produces bubbles as a positive reaction

Answer 172

catalase test

Question 173

Biochemical test; to determine the presence of cyt c oxidase enzyme ; oxidizes tetramethyl-p-phenylenediamine dihydrochloride TMPD resulting to indophenol blue positive reaction

Answer 173

oxidase test

Question 174

microorganisms which live in dry environments (due to lack of water)

Answer 174

xerophiles

Question 175

microorganisms which live in environments with high sugar

Answer 175

osmophiles

Question 176

growth factors; required for the synthesis of nucleic acids (DNA and RNA)

Answer 176

purines and pyrimidines

Question 177

growth factors; required for the synthesis of proteins

Answer 177

amino acids

Question 178

growth factors; needed as coenzymes and functional groups of certain enzymes

Answer 178

vitamins

Question 179

mutant strains of bacteria that require growth factor not needed by the wild type

Answer 179

auxotrophs

Question 180

needed for the synthesis of amino acids, purines, pyrimidines, etc

Answer 180

nitrogen

Question 181

present in nucleic acids, phospholipids, nucleotides etc ; form inorganic phosphates

Answer 181

phosphorus

Question 182

needed for the synthesis of cysteine and methionine, some CHO, biotin and thiamine etc

Answer 182

sulfur

Question 183

mcgs that use CO2 as sole or principal carbon source

Answer 183

autotrophs

Question 184

mcgs that use reduced, preformed organic molecules as carbon sources

Answer 184

heterotophs

Question 185

mcgs that use light as their energy source

Answer 185

phototrophs

Question 186

mcgs that obtain energy from oxidation of organic/ inorganic compounds

Answer 186

chemotrophs

Question 187

mcgs that use reduced inorganic compounds as their electron source

Answer 187

lithotrophs

Question 188

mcgs that use reduced organic compounds as their electron source

Answer 188

organotrophs

Question 189

nutrient uptake; molecules from an area of high concentration to low concentration; limited to a few small useful molecules (ie glycerol, H2O, O2, and CO2)

Answer 189

passive diffusion

Question 190

nutrient uptake; involves carrier molecule( i.e. permease) to increase rate of diffusion; higher to lower conc

Answer 190

facilitated diffusion

Question 191

nutrient uptake; metabolic energy is used to move molecules to the cell interior where the solute concentration is already higher (against conc gradient); requires expenditure of metabolic energy ; w transport proteins

Answer 191

active transport

Question 192

nutrient uptake; active transport; mediated by transporters; no modification of substances transported; uniporters; energy provided by ATP hydrolysis

Answer 192

primary active transporters

Question 193

nutrient uptake; active transport; used potential of ion gradients; no modification of substances being transported; cotransporters- symport and antiport

Answer 193

secondary active transport

Question 194

nutrient uptake; active transport; substances are modified as they are transported into the membrane; i.e. best translocation system -phosphoenolpyruvate: sugar phosphotransferase system

Answer 194

Group translocation

Question 195

nutrient uptake; needed for cytochrome and several eznymes; uses siderophores

Answer 195

iron uptake

Question 196

genetic transfer; cell to cell contact

Answer 196

conjugation

Question 197

extra chromosomal independently replicated DNA in bacteria and yeasts

Answer 197

plasmids

Question 198

plasmid that can exist w/wo being integrated into the host’s chromosome

Answer 198

episome

Question 199

genetic transfer; via viruses (most common)

Answer 199

transduction

Question 200

genetic transfer; transduction; occurs during the lytic cycle of virulent and temperate viruses; host DNA becomes part of the virion DNA

Answer 200

generalized transduction

Question 201

genetic transfer; transduction; occurs only in some temperate viruses; transfer of specific region of the host chromosome into the virus replacing some of the viral genes

Answer 201

specialized/ restricted transduction

Question 202

genetic transfer; uptake of naked DNA molecule or fragment from the medium and its incorporation into the recipient cell ; contact with competent cell (able to take up DNA)

Answer 202

transformation

Question 203

genetic transfer; used in microorganisms with no known conjugation system; uses enzymes to digest cell wall

Answer 203

protoplast fusion

Question 204

unicellular fungi

Answer 204

yeast

Question 205

fungi phylum; motile spores with flagella

Answer 205

chytridiomycota

Question 206

fungi phylum; resistant zygosporangium as sexual stage

Answer 206

zygomycota

Question 207

fungi phylum; arbuscular mycorrhizae

Answer 207

glomeromycota

Question 208

fungi phylum; sexual spores borne internally in sacs called asci

Answer 208

ascomycota (sac fungi)

Question 209

fungi phylum; elaborate fruiting body called basidiocarp

Answer 209

basidiomycota (club fungi)

Question 210

fungi phylum; unicellular fungi that are obligate intracellular parasites; some are human pathogens; lack mitochondria, peroxisomes, and centrioles; form a very early-branching lineage of eukarya; capable of forming spores

Answer 210

microsporidia

Question 211

fungi phylum; aquatic; only fungi with flagellated spores/ zoospores; majority are saprobic; some are parasites; simplest true fungi ; diverged earliest

Answer 211

chytridiomycota

Question 212

fungi phylum; sexual reproduction via zygospores (resistant heterokaryons) producing genetically variable spores; asexual reproduction via sporangiospores and chlamydospores; mostly saprobic

Answer 212

zygomycota

Question 213

fungi phylum; capable of infecting roots of plants; associated with ~90% of plant species; important symbiotes of plant roots increasing its absorption capacities; obligate symbiotes

Answer 213

glomeromycota

Question 214

fungi phylum; largest division; presence of ascus (sac-like cases); sexual reproduction ascospores ; asexual reproduction conidia/conidiospores (naked spores)

Answer 214

ascomycota

Question 215

fungi phylum; sexual reproduction via club-shaped reproductive structures (basidia) containing basidiospores; uncommon asexual reproduction

Answer 215

basidiomycota (club fungi)

Question 216

fungi phylum;eclectic group; unknown sexual structures; only an anamorph is known (asexual state; imperfect fungi

Answer 216

deuteromycetes

Question 217

morphological and physiological conversion of certain fungi from one phenotype to another when such fungi change from one environment to another

Answer 217

fungal dimorphisms

Question 218

examples of fungi that are dimorphic

Answer 218

Blastomyces, coccidioides, histoplasma, paracoccidioides. sporothrix, candida albicans

Question 219

General characteristics of fungi

Answer 219

all eukaryotic
most are filamentous
some unicellular
protoplasm of hypha or cell is surrounded by a rigid wall (chitin and glucans, some cellulose) 80-90 % polysaccharide
many reproduce both sexually and asexually
all are chemoheterotrophic
all are achlorophyllous
mainly saprophytic

Question 220

Haploid cells from 2 different mycelia fuse to form a heterokaryotic cell with 2 or more nuclei

Answer 220

plasmogamy

Question 221

Nuclei fuse to form a diploid zygote

Answer 221

Karyogamy

Question 222

fungal morphology; tubular filament exhibiting apical growth

Answer 222

hypha

Question 223

fungal morphology; mass of hyphae

Answer 223

mycelium

Question 224

fungal morphology; body/soma of fungi

Answer 224

thallus

Question 225

fungal morphology; types of hyphae; based on septation

Answer 225

septate
coenocytic/ non septate

Question 226

fungal morphology; types of hyphae; based on function; penetrate the media and absorb food

Answer 226

vegetative hyphae

Question 227

fungal morphology; types of hyphae; based on function; directed above the surface of media

Answer 227

aerial hyphae

Question 228

fungal morphology; types of hyphae; based on function; aerial hyphae that carry different spores

Answer 228

reproductive hyphae

Question 229

specialized hyphal structure; outgrowth of somatic hypha in parasitic in fungi ; fungal hypha penetrate plant cell wall

Answer 229

Haustoria

Question 230

specialized hyphal structure; root-like structure

Answer 230

rhizoids

Question 231

specialized hyphal structure; hypha that connects two rhizoids

Answer 231

stolon

Question 232

specialized hyphal structure; formed by nematode-trapping fungi ; adapted for trapping and killing prey

Answer 232

ring

Question 233

Nutrition types of fungi

Answer 233

chemoheterotrophic
absorptive; some phagocytic
saprophytic or parasitic

Question 234

preferred carbon source of fungi

Answer 234

glucose or maltose

Question 235

fungal environmental interactions; associations between fungi and algae/cyanobacteria; biomonitors of atmospheric quality

Answer 235

lichens

Question 236

role of fungi in lichens

Answer 236

mycobiont

Question 237

role of algae/cyanobacteria in lichens

Answer 237

photobiont

Question 238

common reproductive structures of lichens

Answer 238

soredia

Question 239

method to determin the age of exposed rock surfaces based on the size of lichen thalli

Answer 239

lichenometry

Question 240

compound used for the suppression of tuberculosis, bioactive compound mainly found as a secondary metabolite in lichens

Answer 240

usnic acid

Question 241

symbiotic association between plant roots and fungi

Answer 241

mycorrhizae

Question 242

asexual reproduction; hyphae break up into their component cells that behave as spores (arthrospores- fragmented hyphal cells- arthroconidia)

Answer 242

fragmentation

Question 243

asexual reproduction; simple splitting of a cell into 2 daughter cells by constriction and formation of a cell wall

Answer 243

fission

Question 244

asexual reproduction; production of a small outgrowth from a parent cell

Answer 244

budding

Question 245

asexual reproduction; most common; varied size, shape, number and arrangement of cells and manner

Answer 245

asexual spore formation

Question 246

types of asexual spores; borne within a sporangium

Answer 246

sporangiospores

Question 247

types of asexual spores; sporangiospores; motile with flagella

Answer 247

zoospores

Question 248

types of asexual spores; sporangiospores; non motile

Answer 248

aplanospores

Question 249

types of asexual spores; exogenous/ free/naked

Answer 249

conidiospores

Question 250

types of asexual spores; budding spores

Answer 250

blastospore

Question 251

types of asexual spores; based on spore development;
develop by septation and fragmentation; at tip of hypha (arthrospores) or intercalary (chlamydospores)

Answer 251

thallic

Question 252

types of asexual spores; based on spore development; develop by budding and swelling; single spores or chain of spores (ie blastospores, phialospores)

Answer 252

blastic

Question 253

3 phases of fungal sexual reproduction

Answer 253

plasmogamy; union of 2 protoplasts
karyogamy; fusion of 2 nuclei brought on by plasmogamy
meiosis- turns to haploid

Question 254

types of sexual reproduction; gametes of complementary mating types

Answer 254

planogametic copulation

Question 255

types of sexual reproduction; planogametic copulation; the gametes in a fusing pair are morphologically similar but physiologically distinct

Answer 255

isogamy

Question 256

types of sexual reproduction; planogametic copulation; one planogamy is larger in size; larger more active gamete and smaller female gamete

Answer 256

anisogamy

Question 257

types of sexual reproduction; planogametic copulation; motile gametes are release from male gametangium some reach the oogonium;large immotile female gametes and small motile male gametes

Answer 257

oogamy

Question 258

types of sexual reproduction; gametangia come in contact but do not fuse ; gametangy (ascomycota); male gamete is transferred to the female gamete via a fertilization tube

Answer 258

gametangial contact

Question 259

types of sexual reproduction; gametangiogamy (ascomycota); gametangia fuse and gives rise to a zygote that develops into a resting spore

Answer 259

gametangial copulation

Question 260

types of sexual reproduction; fusion of somatic cell during plasmogamy (ascomycota, basidiomycota)

Answer 260

somatogamy

Question 261

types of sexual reproduction; fusion of hyphal tips of two complementary mating types; receptive hypha and spermatia

Answer 261

spermatization

Question 262

general characteristics of algae

Answer 262

eukaryotic
unicellular, multicellular/filamentous, some colonial
cell wall is thin and rigid
mostly non-pathogenic
photosynthetic
some motile, some attached to substratum(benthic)

Question 263

site of CO2 fixation and starch formation in algae

Answer 263

pyrenoids

Question 264

organ for phototaxis in algae

Answer 264

eyespot/ stigma

Question 265

unicellular algae; model system for photosynthesis, flagellar movement, phototaxis, and cell-cell communication

Answer 265

Chlamydomonas

Question 266

pigments found in algae

Answer 266

chlorophylls
carotenoids (carotenes, xanthophylls)
phycobilins : phycoerythrobilin-red
phycouronilin- orange
phycoviolobilin- purple
phycocyanabilin/phycobiliverdin- blue

Question 267

Rhodophytes common traits

Answer 267

key genera- polysiphonia, cyanidium, galdiera;
habitat- salt water, few in freshwater and terrestrial; reddish color due to phycoerythrin, chlorophyll a, phycobiliproteins, phycocyanin, allophycocyanin;
mostly multicellular and non-motile
cell wall composed of cellulose, pectin, and carrageenan
reproduction; asexual spores and sexual gametes

Question 268

Chlorophytes common traits

Answer 268

key genera; chlamydomonas, volvox
habitat; fresh water, salt water, soil, bark of tree (lichens)
principal pigments: chlorophyll a and b, carotenes, xanthophylls
unicellular to filamentous to colonial, multicellular
storage product: starch-glucose polymer
cell wall: cellulose, pectin
reproduction; asexual fission, spores, sexual
motility; mostly non-motile (except for chlorococcales), some reproductive structures are motile

Question 269

the six recognized supergroups of eukarya

Answer 269

archaeplastida
rhizaria
chromalveolata
excavata
amoebozoa
opisthokonta

Question 270

general characteristics of protists

Answer 270

eukaryotic
mostly heterotrophs
unicellular, colonial, multicellular
heterotrophic via endocytosis
free-living (aquatic, terrestrial), symbiotic (parasitic, mutualistic)

Question 271

engulfing and digesting of microscopically visible particles

Answer 271

phagocytosis

Question 272

engulfing and digesting of dissolved particles, “cell drinking”

Answer 272

pinocytosis

Question 273

algal morphology; vegetative form, metabolically active invasive stage

Answer 273

trophozoite

Question 274

algal morphology; dormant yet infectious stage; protection against adverse conditions; site for nuclear reorganization and cell division; means of transfer between hosts

Answer 274

cyst

Question 275

algal morphology; bands of protein inside the membrane that adds rigidity to cell

Answer 275

pellicle

Question 276

algal morphology; for phtototaxis

Answer 276

chloroplast

Question 277

algal morphology; semisolid/ gelatinous cytoplasm that imparts rigidity to cell

Answer 277

ectoplasm

Question 278

algal morphology; inside the ectoplasm that contains most of the organelles

Answer 278

endoplasm

Question 279

algal morphology; nuclei; regulates somatic functions (locomotion, osmoregulation, cell regeneration, feeding) by directing protein synthesis

Answer 279

macronucleus

Question 280

algal morphology; nuclei; functions in sexual reproduction, regeneration of macronucleus

Answer 280

micronucleus

Question 281

algal morphology; vacuoles; sites of food digestion; fuses with lysosymes

Answer 281

food vacuole

Question 282

algal morphology;vacuoles; for excretion, osmoregulation, and water balance

Answer 282

contractile vacuole

Question 283

algal morphology; locomotory organelles; blunt lobe-like extensions of the cytoplasm

Answer 283

pseudopodia (false feet)

Question 284

algal morphology;locomotory organelles; thin, long whip- like projections arising from the surface of the cell

Answer 284

flagella

Question 285

algal morphology;locomotory organelles; shorter more numerous than flagella

Answer 285

cilia

Question 286

algal morphology; shell composition of foraminiferans

Answer 286

calcium carbonate

Question 287

algal morphology; shell composition of radiolarians and diatoms

Answer 287

silica

Question 288

algal nutrition; employs phagocytosis

Answer 288

holozoic

Question 289

algal nutrition; nutrient cross plasma membrane by pinocytosis, diffusion or carrier-mediated transport

Answer 289

saprozoic

Question 290

algal reproduction; exchange of genetic material from one cell to another

Answer 290

sexual

Question 291

algal reproduction; asexual; cell divides evenly to form two new cells

Answer 291

fission

Question 292

algal reproduction; asexual; cell divides unevenly

Answer 292

budding

Question 293

algal reproduction; asexual; nucleus of the cell divides multiple times before the rest of the cell divides

Answer 293

schizogony- multiple fission

Question 294

algal classification; key genera- giardia, trichomonas, typanosoma, euglena; chemoorganotrophs, phototrophs, anaerobic; motile via flagella; groups- diplomonads, parabasalids, kinetoplastids, euglenids; habitat- anoxic (animal intestines for example). freshwaer

Answer 294

excavata

Question 295

algal classification; excavata; 2 nuclei of 2 equal size, each with 4 associated flagella with mitosomes; some free- living, most commensal; can be parasitic and anaerobic

Answer 295

diplomonads

Question 296

algal classification; excavata; diplomonads; causative agent for giardiasis

Answer 296

Giardia intestinalis/ Giardia lamblia

Question 297

algal classification; excavata; parabasal bodies for structural support, lacks mitochondria; w hydrogenosome( site for pyruvate metabolism);anaerobic; binary fission; parasites/ commensals in intestines and urogenital tract

Answer 297

Parabasalids

Question 298

algal classification; excavata; parabasalids; causative agent of trichomoniasis; checked via pap smear

Answer 298

trichomonas vaginalis

Question 299

algal classification; excavata; contains kinetoplast inside mitochondrion; with single flagellum; free-living in soil or aquatic envi; primarily feed on bacteria; some are parasites in humans and vertebrate animals

Answer 299

kinetoplastids

Question 300

algal classification; excavata; kinetoplasids; causative for african sleeping sickness; tsetse fly vector

Answer 300

tryponosoma brucei

Question 301

algal classification; excavata; kinetoplastids; causative of leishmaniasis; sandfly vector

Answer 301

leishmania

Question 302

algal classification; excavata; nonpathogenic; chemo and phototrophic with chloroplasts; aquatic marine and freshwater; can lose chloroplasts in darkness and exists as chemoorganotrophs; feed on bacterial cells by phagocytosis; some are symbionts

Answer 302

euglenids

Question 303

algal classification; key genera- gonyaulaz, plasmodium, paramecium; presence of alveoli (cytoplasmic sacs located under cytoplasmic membrane that can function as armor plates (dinoflagellates) and help in maintaining influx and efflux of osmotic balance); groups - ciliates, dinoflagellates, apicomplexans

Answer 303

alveolata

Question 304

algal classification; alveolata; posses cilia for motility; paramecium uses cilia for motility and obtaining food; 2 micro and macronuclei; some symbiotic and parasitic

Answer 304

ciliates

Question 305

algal classification; alveolata; ciliates; causative of balantidiasis

Answer 305

balantidium coli

Question 306

algal classification; alveolata; marine and fresh water alveolates; posses 2 flagella; some symbiotic with animals that form coral reef, some free-living can bioluminescence; some are toxic

Answer 306

dinoflagellates

Question 307

algal classification; alveolata;dinoflagellates; example of bioluminescent species

Answer 307

Pyrodinium bahamense

Question 308

algal classification; alveolata; dinoflagellates; causes paralytic shellfish poisoning and red tide

Answer 308

Gonyaulax

Question 309

algal classification; alveolata; nonphototrophic obligate parasites; nonmotile adults; nutrient are taken up in soluble form across cytoplasmic membrane; produces sporozoites (functions in transmission), contains apicoplasts (degenerate chloroplasts)

Answer 309

apicomplexans

Question 310

algal classification; alveolata;apicomplexans; causative of malaria; anopheles mosquito vector

Answer 310

plasmodium vivax, p. falciparum

Question 311

algal classification; alveolata;apicomplexans; causative of toxoplasmosis; infection via eating raw or undercooked meat; sexual stage occurs in cat; asexual occurs in warm-blooded animals

Answer 311

toxoplasma condii

Question 312

algal classification; key genera phyotphthera, nitzschia, ochromonas, macrocystis; chemororganotrophic and phototrophic micro-macroorganisms; flagellated with short hairlike extensions; groups- diatoms, oomycetes, golden and brown algae

Answer 312

stramenopiles

Question 313

algal classification; stramenopiles; unicellular, phototrophic microbial eukaryotes; produce cell wall made of silica; protects against predation; varied shapes and can be highly ornate; has frustule remains after cell dies (external structure, eukaryotic fossil)

Answer 313

diatoms

Question 314

algal classification; stramenopiles; water molds; cell wall made of cellulose; flagellated cells; plant pathogens

Answer 314

oomycetes

Question 315

algal classification; stramenopiles; oomycetes; causative of late blight disease on potatoes

Answer 315

Phytophthora infestans

Question 316

algal classification; stramenopiles; chrysophytes mostly unicellular and freshwater phototrophs; some chemoorganotrophs ( via phagocyt or transpot of soluble organic comps across cell membrane); motile 2 flagella; chloroplast dominated by brown colored carotenoid-fucoxanthin; ie ochromonas w 1-2 chloroplasts only

Answer 316

golden algae

Question 317

algal classification; stramenopiles; primarily marine and multicellular; macroscopic; brown/ green depending on amount of fucoxanthin produces; i.e. macrocystis- giant kelp up to 50 m in length

Answer 317

brown algae

Question 318

algal classification; threadlike cytoplasmic extrusions (pseudopodia); nonphotosynthetic; many produce shells or skeletons; groups- chlorarachniophyta, radiolaria, foraminifera

Answer 318

Rhizaria

Question 319

algal classification; Rhizaria; freshwater and marin amoeba-like phototrophs; some ingests bacteria and smaller protists; develop flagellum for dispersal; chloroplasts with 4 membranes; ie chlorarachnion. lotharella, bigelowiella

Answer 319

chlorarachniophyta

Question 320

algal classification; Rhizaria;exclusive marine amoeba-like microorganisms; form shell-like structure called tests (made of calcium carbonate) that are heavy making mcgs sink to the bottom to feed on bacteria, protsits and remains of feed on dead organisms; test is resistant to decay and are readily fossilized; can form symbiotic relationship with algae

Answer 320

foraminifera

Question 321

algal classification; Rhizaria; chemoorganotrophic, mostly marine eukaryotes; consume bacteria and particulate organic matter; can form symbiotic relationship with algae; possess tests with radial symmetry; tests made of silica in one fused piece; needle-like pseudopodia; reproduce by fission

Answer 321

radiolaria

Question 322

algal classification; key genera- amoeba, entamoeba, physarum, dictyostelium; terrestrial and aquatic protists; lobe-shaped pseudopodia for movement and feeding; groups; gymnamoebas;entamoebas, plasmodial and cellular slime molds

Answer 322

amoebozoa

Question 323

algal classification; amoebozoa; free living; aquatic and soil envi; exhibit and amoeboid movement using pseudopodia; feed by phagocytosis on bacteria, protists, and particulate organic matter

Answer 323

gymnamoebas

Question 324

algal classification; amoebozoa; parasites of vertebrates and invertebrates; oral cavity or intestinal tract of animals; exhibit amoeboid movement using pseudopodia; ie. causative of amebic dysentery- e. histolytica, only known pathogenic species

Answer 324

entamoebas

Question 325

algal classification; amoebozoa; motile; plasmodial (vegetative forms are masses of protoplasm- physarum) & cellular slime molds (vegetative forms are single amoebae- Dictyostelium discoideum ); live on decaying plant matter- w haploid and diploid stages

Answer 325

slime molds