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NASM-CPT > Basic Exercise Science > Flashcards

Basic Exercise Science Flashcards

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1
Q

The cumulative sensory input to the central nervous system from mechanoreceptors that sense body position and limb movement.

A

Proprioception

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2
Q

Specialized structures that respond to mechanical pressure within tissues and transmit signals through sensory nerves.

A

Mechanoreceptors

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3
Q

Muscle Spindles

A

Receptors sensitive to change in length of the muscle and the rate of that change

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4
Q

Golgi Tendon Organs

A

Receptors sensitive to change in tension of the muscle and the rate of that change

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5
Q

Joint receptors

A

Receptors surround a joint that respond to pressure, acceleration, and deceleration of the joint

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6
Q

A layer of connective tissue that is underneath the fascia and surrounds the muscle

A

Epimysium

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7
Q

The connective tissues that surround fascicles (middle layer)

A

Perimysium

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8
Q

The deepest layer of connective tissue that surround individual muscle fibers

A

Endomysium

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9
Q

Type 1 Muscle Fiber Characteristics

A

Slow-Twitch
-more capillaries, mitochondria, and myoglobin; increased oxygen delivery; smaller in size; less force produced; slow to fatigue; long-term contractions (stabilizations)

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10
Q

Type 2 Muscle Fiber Characteristics

A

Fast Twitch
-fewer capillaries, mitochondria, and myoglobin; decreased oxygen delivery; larger in size; more force produced; quick to fatigue; short-term contractions (force and power)

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11
Q

Chest Press: Agonist, Synergist, Stabilizer, and Antagonist

A

Agonist: Pectoralis Major; Synergist: Anterior Deltoid, Triceps; Stabilizer: Rotator Cuff; Antagonist: Posterior Deltoid

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12
Q

Overhead Press: Agonist, Synergist, Stabilizer, and Antagonist

A

Agonist: Deltoid; Synergist: Triceps: Stabilizer: Rotator Cuff; Antagonist: Latissimus Dorsi

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13
Q

Row: Agonist, Synergist , Stabilizer, and Antagonist

A

Agonist: Latissimus Dorsi; Synergist: Posterior Deltoid, biceps; Stabilizer: rotator cuff: Antagonist: Pectoralis Major

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14
Q

Squat: Agonist, Synergist, Stabilizer, and Antagonist

A

Agonist: Gluteus Maximus, quadriceps; Synergist: hamstring complex; Stabilizer: transverse abdominis; Antagonist: Psoas

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15
Q

function of the right atrium

A

Gathers deoxygenated blood returning to the heart from the entire body

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16
Q

function of the right ventricle

A

receives deoxygenated blood from the right atrium and pumps it to the lungs to be saturated with incoming oxygen

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17
Q

function of the left atrium

A

gathers oxygenated blood coming to the heart from the lungs

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18
Q

function of the left ventricle

A

pumps oxygenated blood out to the rest of the body

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19
Q

What are the support mechanisms of blood?

A

Transportation, Regulation, and Protection

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20
Q

What bones make up the respiratory pump?

A

sternum, ribs, vertebrae

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21
Q

Which muscles are involved in respiratory inspiration?

A

Diaphragm, External Intercostals, Scalenes, Sternocleidomastoid, Pectoralis Minor

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22
Q

Which Muscles are involved in respiratory expiration?

A

Internal intercostals, abdominals

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23
Q

What is the study of energy in the human body?

A

Bioenergetics

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24
Q

The process in which nutrients are acquired, transported, used, and disposed of by the body

A

Metabolism

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25
Q

The examination of bioenergetics as it relates to the unique physiologic changes and demand placed on the body during exercise.

A

Exercise Metabolism

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26
Q

The material or substance on which an enzyme acts

A

substrates

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27
Q

Organic compounds of carbon, hydrogen, and oxygen which includes starches, cellulose, and sugars.

A

Carbohydrates

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28
Q

Simple sugar made by the body from carbs, fats, and to lesser extent, protein, and serve as a primary source of fuel for the body

A

Glucose

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29
Q

Complex carb molecule used to store carbs in the liver and muscle cells.

A

Glycogen

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30
Q

The chemical or substrate form in which most fat exists in food as well as in the body

A

Triglycerides

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31
Q

Amino Acids linked by peptide bonds which consists of carbon, hydrogen, oxygen, and nitrogen and usually sulfur, that have several essential biologic compounds.

A

Protein

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32
Q

The formation of glucose from non carbohydrate sources

A

Gluconeogenesis

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33
Q

Energy storage and transfer unit within the cells of the body

A

Adenosine Triphosphate

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34
Q

High energy compound occurring in all cells from which ATP is formed

A

Adenosine Diphosphate

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35
Q

Anaerobic, simplest, and fastest energy system used at the onset of all activity, primarily for high-intensity, short duration bouts of exercise. (10-15s)

A

ATP-PC system

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36
Q

Anaerobic energy system that produces ATP through the breakdown of either glucose or glycogen into glucose-6-phospate. Limited to 30 to 50 seconds of exercise duration.

A

Glycolysis

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37
Q

Aerobic energy system with slow but indefinite ATP production

A

Oxidative System

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38
Q

The breakdown of triglycerides into smaller subunits called free fatty acids to convert into acyl-CoA molecules which are used in the Krebs cycle for the production of ATP.

A

β-Oxidation

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39
Q

Excess Postexercise Oxygen Consumption

A

The state in which the body’s metabolism is elevated after exercise.

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40
Q

Common Force Couple that produces trunk rotation

A

internal and external obliques

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41
Q

Common Force Couple that produces upward rotation of the scapula

A

Upper Trapezius and the lower portion of the serratus anterior

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42
Q

Force-Couple that produces hip and knee extension during walking, running, stair climbing, etc.

A

Gluteus Maximus, Quadriceps, and calf muscles

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43
Q

Force couple that performs plantar flexion at the foot and ankle complex

A

Gastrocnemius, peroneus longus, and tiabilis posterior

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44
Q

Force Couple that performs shoulder abduction

A

Deltoid and rotator cuff

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45
Q

Which heart rate zone builds an aerobic base and aids in recovery?

A

Zone 1

46
Q

Which heart rate zone increases aerobic and anaerobic endurance?

A

Zone 2

47
Q

Which heart rate zone builds high-end work capacity?

A

Zone 3

48
Q

THR Zone 1 percentages

A

65%-75%

49
Q

THR Zone 2 percentages

A

76%-85%

50
Q

THR Zone 3 percentages

A

86%-95%

51
Q

What is the formula to calculate the BMI?

A

Weight(kg) divided by the Height in meters squared OR weight(lbs) divided by the height in inches squared and the result multiplied by 703.

52
Q

A BMI of 25-20.99 shows what risk of disease?

A

Increased Risk

53
Q

A BMI of 30-34.99 shows what risk of disease?

A

High Risk

54
Q

A BMI of 35-39.99 shows what risk of disease?

A

Very High Risk

55
Q

What are the first two steps of the YMCA 3-Minute step test?

A
  1. Client performs 96 steps per minute on a 12 inch step for 3 minutes
  2. Within 5 seconds of exercise completion record the clients resting heart rate for 60 seconds.
56
Q

What is the first step of the Rockport Walk test?

A
  1. Record the client’s weight then have the client walk 1 mile on a treadmill. Record the time it takes to complete the mile and record the client’s heart rate immediately.
57
Q

What are the altered joint mechanics for someone with pronation distortion syndrome?

A

Increased: Knee Adduction, Knee Internal Rotation, Foot Pronation, Foot External Rotation

Decreased: Ankle Dorsiflexion, Ankle Inversion

58
Q

What possible injuries are associated with pronation distortion syndrome?

A

Plantar fasciitis, Posterior tibialis tendonitis (shin splints), patellar tendonitis, low-back pain

59
Q

What are the altered joint mechanics for someone with lower crossed syndrome?

A

Increased: Lumbar extension

Decreased: Hip extension

60
Q

What are the possible injuries associated with lower cross syndrome?

A

Hamstring complex strain, Anterior knee pain, low-back pain

61
Q

What are the altered joint mechanics for someone with upper crossed syndrome?

A

Increased: Cervical extension, scapular protraction/elevation

Decreased: Shoulder extension, Shoulder external rotation

62
Q

What are the possible injuries associated with upper crossed syndrome?

A

headaches, biceps tendonitis, rotator cuff impingement, thoracic outlet syndrome

63
Q

What are the overactive muscles for an excessive forward lean during the overhead squat assessment?

A
  • Soleus
  • Gastrocnemius
  • Hip flexor complex
  • Abdominal complex
64
Q

What are the under active muscles for someone with an excessive forward lean during the overhead squat assessment?

A
  • Anterior Tibalis
  • Gluteus Maximus
  • Erector Spinae
65
Q

What are the overactive muscles for someone whose low back arches during the overhead squat assessment?

A
  • Hip Flexor Complex
  • Erector Spinae
  • Latissimuss Dorsi
66
Q

What are the under active muscles for someone whose low back arches during the overhead squat assessment?

A
  • Gluteus Maximus
  • Hamstring complex
  • Intrinsic Core Stabilizers
67
Q

What are the overactive muscles for someone whose arms fall forward during the overhead squat assessment?

A
  • Latissimus Dorsi
  • Teres Major
  • Pectoralis Major/Minor
68
Q

What are the under active muscles for someone whose arms fall forward during the overhead squat assessment?

A
  • mid/lower trapezius
  • rhomboids
  • rotator cuff
69
Q

What are the overactive muscles for someone whose feet turn out during the over head squat assessment?

A
  • Soleus
  • lateral gastrocnemius
  • Biceps femoris (short head)
70
Q

What are the under active muscles for someone whose feet turn out during the overhead squat assessment?

A
  • Medial gastrocnemius
  • medial hamstring complex
  • gracilis
  • sartorius
  • popliteus
71
Q

What are the overactive muscles for for a client’s whose knees move inward during the overhead squat assessment?

A
  • adductor complex
  • biceps femoris (short head)
  • TFL
  • Vastus lateralis
72
Q

What are the under active muscles for a client’s whose knees move inward during the overhead squat assessment?

A
  • Gluteus maximus/medius

- Vastus medalis oblique (VMO)

73
Q

What are the overactive muscles for a client whose knees move inward during the single-leg squat assessment?

A
  • adductor complex
  • biceps femoris (short head)
  • TFL
  • vastus lateralis
74
Q

What are the under active muscles for client whose knees move inward during the single leg squat assessment?

A
  • Gluteus Maximus/medius

- Vastus Medalis oblique (VMO)

75
Q

What are the overactive muscles when a client’s low back arches during the pushing assessment?

A
  • Hip flexors

- Erector spinae

76
Q

What are the under active muscles when a client’s low back arches during the pushing assessment?

A

-Intrinsic Core Stabilizers

77
Q

What are the overactive muscles when a client’s shoulders elevate during the pushing assessment?

A
  • Upper Trapezius
  • Sternocleidomastoid
  • Levator Scapulae
78
Q

What are the under active muscles when a client’s shoulders elevate during the pushing assessment?

A

-mid/lower trapezius

79
Q

What are the overactive muscles when a client’s head migrates forward during the pushing assessment?

A
  • Upper Trapezius
  • Sternocleidomastoid
  • Levator Scapulae
80
Q

What are the under active muscles when a client’s head migrates forward during the pushing assessment?

A

-deep cervical flexors

81
Q

What are the overactive muscles for a client’s low back arch during the pulling assessment?

A
  • Hip flexors

- Erector spinae

82
Q

What are the under active muscles for a client’s low back arch during the pulling assessment?

A

-Intrinsic core stabilizers

83
Q

What are the overactive muscles for a client’s whose shoulders elevate during the pulling assessment?

A
  • Upper Trapezius
  • sternocleidomastoid
  • levator scapulae
84
Q

What are the under active muscles for a client’s whose shoulders elevate during the pulling assessment?

A

-mid/lower trapezius

85
Q

What are the overactive muscles when a client’s head protrudes forward during the pulling assessment?

A
  • Upper Trapezius
  • sternocleidomastoid
  • levator scapulae
86
Q

What are the under active muscles when a client’s head protrudes forward during the pulling assessment?

A

-deep cervical flexors

87
Q

Which assessment measures upper extremity agility and stabilization? Who is not appropriate for?

A

Davies Test; clients who lack shoulder stability

88
Q

Which assessment measures lower extremity agility and neuromuscular control?

A

Shark Skill Test

89
Q

What are the shortened muscles in pronation distortion syndrome?

A

Gastrocnemius, Soleus, Peroneals, Adductors, Ilitobial Head, hip flexor complex, biceps femoris (short head)

90
Q

What are the lengthened muscles in pronation distortion syndrome?

A

Anterior Tibialis, posterior tibialis, vastus medialis, gluteus maximus/medius, hip external rotors

91
Q

What are the short muscles in lower crossed syndrome?

A

Gastrocnemius, Soleus, adductors, hip flexor complex, latissimus dorsi, erector spinae

92
Q

What are the lengthened muscles in lower crossed syndrome?

A

Anterior tibialis, posterior tibialis, gluteus maximus, gluteus medius, transverse abdominus, internal oblique

93
Q

What are the short muscles in upper crossed syndrome?

A

Upper trapezius, levator scapulae, sternocleidomastoid, scalenes, latissimuss dorsi, teres major, subscapularis, pectoralis major/minor

94
Q

What are the lengthened muscles in upper crossed syndrome?

A

Deep cervical flexors, serratus anterior, rhomboids, mid trapezius, lower trapezius, teres minor, infraspinatus

95
Q

The ability to move a joint through its complete range of motion

A

Flexibility

96
Q

Capability to be elongated or stretched

A

Extensibility

97
Q

The tendency of the body to the seek the path of least resistance during functional movement patterns

A

Relative Flexibility

98
Q

When one muscle contracts at the same time its antagonist does to allow movement to take place

A

Reciprocal Inhibition

99
Q

When tight agonist muscle inhibits its antagonist

A

Altered Reciprocal Inhibition

100
Q

When inappropriate muscles take over the function of a weak inhibited prime mover

A

synergistic dominance

101
Q

States that soft tissue models along the lines of stress

A

Davie’s Law

102
Q

Which type of flexibility is used at phase 1 of the OPT model?

A

Corrective Flexibility

103
Q

Flexibility that is designed to improve the extensibility of soft tissue and increase neuromuscular efficiency by using reciprocal inhibition

A

Active Flexibility

104
Q

Which type of flexibility is appropriate at phases 2,3, and 4 of the OPT model?

A

Active Flexibility

105
Q

Type of flexibility that uses self-myofascial release techniques along with dynamic stretching

A

Functional Flexibility

106
Q

Amount of time a person is required to keep pressure on a tender spot while using myofascial release techniques

A

30 seconds

107
Q

The stimulation the GTO and simultaneous inhibitory effect on the muscle spindle during static stretching

A

autogenic inhibition

108
Q

The active extension of a muscle using force production and momentum to the move the joint through the full available range of motion

A

Dynamic Stretching

109
Q

Acute variables for active-isolated stretching

A

1-2 sets holding each stretch for 1-2 seconds for 5-10 reps

110
Q

Acute variables for static stretching

A

1-3 sets held for 30 seconds each

111
Q

Acute variables for dynamic stretching

A

1-2 sets for 10-15 reps ranging from 3-10 exercises

NASM-CPT (4 decks)

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