Basic Care and Comfort Flashcards

1
Q

Clients with polycythemia vera are at risk of developing?

A

thrombosis

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2
Q

Dialysis disequilibrium syndrome (DDS ) is a potentially life-threatening condition associated with?

A

cerebral edema

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3
Q

Clients with dysphagia should receive what type of liquids?

A

thickened liquids and be monitored for coughing, gagging, and pocketing food

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4
Q

The nurse should position the client with the head of the bed for JVD at what angle?

A

30 - 45 degree angle

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5
Q

What is the measure for preventing aspiration pneumonia relating to the head-of-bed?

A

90 degrees during and 30 minutes after meals

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6
Q

What is the measure for preventing aspiration pneumonia relating to movements of the neck?

A

neck flexion while swallowing

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7
Q

having less than three bowel movements a week is considered

A

Constipation

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8
Q

The medical definition is three or more loose stools over a 24-hour period

A

Diarrhea

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9
Q

the best way to assess a patient’s mobility

A

direct visualization

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10
Q

can give valuable information about balance, motor strength, joint mobility, and muscle coordination

A

Gait

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11
Q

Decreased weight-bearing movement leads weakness and

A

muscle atrophy

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12
Q

Some examples of non-pharmacological comfort measures include

A

the use of music, warm blankets, and environmental controls such as low lighting and relaxation sounds (white noise, water, etc.)

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13
Q

BMI of 25 - 29.9

A

overweight

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14
Q

BMI of 30+

A

Obese

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15
Q

an ostomy for urine

A

Urostomy

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16
Q

The size of the catheter is referred to as the

A

French or Fr

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17
Q

Hyperressonance is an abnormal finding over

A

adult lung tissue

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18
Q

hyperresonance is a normal finding in

A

children’s lung tissue

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19
Q

an environment that is planned and maintained in a manner that eliminates all possible stressors so that psychiatric mental health clients with emotional and behavioral issues can concentrate their energies and thoughts on the things impacting them rather than external stressors

A

a milieu environment

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20
Q

a critical aspect and component of a milieu environment

A

Consistent boundaries

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21
Q

The American Nurses Association (ANA) advocates for pain management even if the

A

life-threatening side effects hasten death

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22
Q

Clients should be assessed for their bathing needs in preferences of their [. . .]

A

type of bathing

Note: Additionally, a bath once a week is acceptable as long as the client remains clean, without bodily odors, and is still hygienic. Pt refusing partial baths upon entry to hospital must be respected due to their cultural habits. So the appropiate response is to tell them → That is fine. At what time of the day do you prefer to bathe and do you prefer a shower or tub bath

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23
Q

theory of aging describes the aging process as one that results from cellular death that results from collagen

A

cross-linked theory

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24
Q

theory of aging describes the aging process as one that results from failure of the endocrine glands such as the pituitary gland and the hypothalamus gland

A

endocrine theory

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25
Q

theory of aging describes the aging process as one that results from cellular death that results from the breakdown of the person’s immune system

A

immunological theory

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26
Q

theory of aging describes the aging process as one that results from the collection and accumulation of free radicals in the body

A

free radical theory

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27
Q

which phase of the nursing process is the most foundational for delivery of care

A

assessment

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28
Q

Serotonin syndrome has S/S that go → Up or Down

A

↑ Up

eg. Muscle rigidity Restlessness and agitation Sinus tachycardia etc etc

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29
Q

The description of “nonverbal” in the context of pain assessment is the

A

inability to self-report pain

the failure to be adequately assessed using a numerical pain scale, and the inability to be adequately evaluated using a pictorial pain assessment scale

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30
Q

Inspection refers to

A

visual examination

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31
Q

what is the term that refers to visual examination in assessments

A

Inspection

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32
Q

is the first technique of the overall general survey and for each body part

A

Inspection

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33
Q

is a form of palpation and vibrations are felt in the abdomen or intestines

A

Tympany

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34
Q

Lungs are clearHeart rate and rhythm are regular

A

auscultation form of assessment

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35
Q

According to Dorothea Orem self-care theory, clients are in the educative and supportive mode when they can

A

care for their own self-care needs

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36
Q

in the self-care theory by Dorothea Orem, clients are in compensatory when they need

A

they need complete assistance from another to meet their self-care needs

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37
Q

Dorothea Orem developed the self-care theory that describes the degree to which our clients can fulfill their

A

self-care needs

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38
Q

Appetite decreases and the gastrointestinal system

A

slows with age

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39
Q

Pain is often called the

A

Fifth Vital Sign

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40
Q

first step in pain assessment is for the nurse to

A

Accept the client’s report of pain

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41
Q

If a patient does not immediately report pain, it is still the nurse’s responsibility to

A

question if he/she feels any pain

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42
Q

what 2 markers are significant (or should be monitored) if the client is taking warfarin

A

PT and INR

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43
Q

HEP goes with which blood marker (3 letters)

A

PTT

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44
Q

PT and INR

A

are significant if the client is taking warfarin

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45
Q

PTT and platelet count should be monitored closely when receiving what kind of infusion

A

heparin infusion

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46
Q

in therapeutic communications what does the phrase “what is causing you” mean when you tell this to a patient

A

focusing - you are focusing them on a topic or theme

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47
Q

I’ve noticed in therapeutic communication means

A

observation

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48
Q

What would you like to talk in therapeutic communication means

A

using a broad opening

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49
Q

The nurse should not ask about feelings of

A

dissatisfaction or anger

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50
Q

which are the risk factors that a patient most likely will be able to corrected by themselves

A

Lifestyle choices

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51
Q

Glaucoma, cataracts, and macular degeneration are all more common in the

A

elderly

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52
Q

is believed to be caused by the loss of elasticity of the crystalline lens

A

Presbyopia

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53
Q

CMP stands for

A

comprehensive metabolic panel

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54
Q

A patient with increased intracranial pressure should have the head of the bed elevated at

A

30 or 40 degrees

Note: Nurses should also be sure to avoid Trendelenburg and prevent the patient’s neck from flexing.

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55
Q

Subjective data is information that is perceived only by

A

the person affected

Note: This data cannot be seen or verified by another person

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56
Q

Objective data are

A

observable and measurable data

Note: that can be heard, seen, or felt by someone other than the person who is experiencing them. Examples of actual data include edema, vomiting, or having an elevated body temperature.

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57
Q

Therapeutic play should be - unstructured or structured

A

unstructured - meaning let the kid do his play

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58
Q

with children, once therapeutic play is initiated it should be done how often

A

regularly

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59
Q

the cane should be held with the hand on which side

A

opposite side of the injury

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60
Q

as the patient advances the cane forward they need to move their

A

affected leg forward too

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61
Q

which patient “status” should always be given priority in any assessment

A

Respiratory status

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62
Q

Trendelenburg position increases the venous blood return to the

A

heartNote: when a client is affected by hypotension, hypovolemia, or shock

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63
Q

position used to increase oxygenation in patients with respiratory distress

A

Prone position

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64
Q

What are some procedures which use the Sim’s position

A

usually used for rectal exams, treatments, and enemas

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65
Q

position usually used for rectal exams, treatments, and enemas

A

Sim’s position (lateral recumbent position)

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66
Q

describe lateral recumbent position

A

prone with one knee sort of up, also called Sim’s position

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67
Q

This is when a patient is seated in a “semi-sitting” position when the head of the bed is elevated at a 45 to 60 degrees angle

A

Fowler’s position

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68
Q

position used to promote relaxation of abdominal muscles

A

Fowler’s

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69
Q

position use to promote or improve uterine drainage in post-partum women

A

Fowler’s

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70
Q

the position aids Peristalsis and swallowing by the effect of gravitational pull

A

Fowler’s

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71
Q

Subjective data is information from the

A

client’s point of view (“symptoms”)

including feelings, perceptions, and concerns obtained through interviews

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72
Q

Objective data is

A

observable and measurable data (“signs”)

obtained through observation, physical examination, and laboratory/diagnostic testing

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73
Q

General appearance and behavior represent which kind of data

A

objective data

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74
Q

In stage 3 and 4 of wounds, the nurse should ensure that the client has been given pain medication for changing the dressing at least how many minutes before

A

30 minutes

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75
Q

when it comes wound care always use non-sterile gloves to remove the

A

old dressing

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76
Q

the extrinsic factor that most greatly and most frequently hurts and interferes with our clients’ physical and emotional recovery from a disease or disorder

A

Family dynamics

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77
Q

tympany is the percussion sound heard over the

A

abdomen

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78
Q

Restraints should be released one at a time every

A

2 hours per day to allow for a range of motion exercises

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79
Q

Pain in terms of the client’s sensory description can include subjective comments such as

A

crushing and sharp

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80
Q

Each sleep cycle lasts

A

90 to 120 minutes and repeats throughout the night

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81
Q

characterized by a brief period of light sleep. This is a transition period from wakefulness to sleep and lasts about 5 to 10 mins

A

NREM Stage 1

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82
Q

During this period, both heart rate and body temperature drop. The brain produces bursts of rapid, rhythmic brain wave activity known as “sleep spindles” – most people spend about 50% of the total sleep in this stage

A

Stage 2

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83
Q

characterized by difficulty in terms of awakening (Deep Sleep). During this period, muscles relax, blood pressure, and breathing rate decrease

A

Stage 3

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84
Q

It is also referred to as delta sleep because it is characterized by deep, slow brain waves (low frequency, high amplitude) known as delta waves, what stage is this?

A

Stage 3

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85
Q

This stage represents 10 to 20 percent of the total sleep time in young to middle-aged adults but decreases with age

A

NREM Stage 3

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86
Q

the stage that follows NREM deep sleep and is characterized by vivid dreams

A

REM Sleep

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87
Q

In this sleep stage, the brain becomes more active, the body becomes relaxed and immobilized, and eyes rush

A

REM sleep

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88
Q

on an average, begins 90-minutes after falling asleep

A

REM Sleep

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89
Q

Most parasomnias such as sleepwalking (somnambulism) occur during this stage

A

Stage 3

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90
Q

When REM sleep is complete, the cycle returns to

A

stage 2 sleep

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91
Q

nonverbal communication of pain may include

A

stooped gait, facial grimacing, and gasping sounds

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92
Q

A patient who presents with nonverbal communication of a stooped gait, facial grimacing, and gasping sounds is most likely experiencing

A

pain

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93
Q

The transmission of information without the use of words is termed

A

nonverbal communication

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94
Q

what is also known as body language

A

nonverbal communication

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95
Q

Nonverbal signs associated with fluid-deficit

A

may include slowed responses and agitation

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96
Q

may include head and lips in the downwards expression, adaptive hand gestures, social withdrawal, frowning, crying, and decreased levels of eye contact and smiling

A

Nonverbal signs associated with depression

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97
Q

these are nonverbal signs that include tenseness, difficulty sleeping, and stomach problems that can be associated with

A

generalized anxiety

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98
Q

an independent nursing intervention to promote sleep, is a hot beverage, but the nurse must be aware of that

A

it doesn’t have caffeine

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99
Q

A soothing back massage and encouraging exercise/activity during the daytime hours are [. . .]

A

sleep promotion interventions that can and should be done without a doctor’s

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100
Q

Although hot beverages can promote sleep, the client’s beverage of choice should not have [. . .]

A

caffeine as it may deprive the person of sleep

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101
Q

A health assessment is a method by which nurses gather both [. . .]

A

subjective and objective data

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102
Q

A health assessment includes both a [. . .]

A

health history and physical evaluation

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103
Q

the health assessment is used to gather the data necessary to create [. . .]

A

the plan of care

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104
Q

When instructing a patient to ambulate with a cane, the nurse should apply what type of device to get the pt off the chair/bed [. . .]

A

gait belt to the patient’s waist

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105
Q

The patient should have the cane in [. . .]

A

stronger side or opposite site of injury

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106
Q

height of the cane should be measured from the patient’s [. . .]

A

wrist crease

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107
Q

The patient should have the cane on what hand [. . .]

A

unaffected/stronger side

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108
Q

when instructing a client to walk with a cane tell them to look [. . .]

A

ahead as they ambulate – not down at the ground

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109
Q

The cane should be placed on the patient’s [. . .]

A

stronger side of their body

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110
Q

the nurse should instruct the patient to advance the cane and then the [. . .]

A

weaker side forward

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111
Q

The patient should have the tip of the cane approximately how many inches from their shoe [. . .]

A

4 inches

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112
Q

The neurological complication can occur when a vest restraint is too tight around the client’s body causing [. . .]

A

numbness and tingling

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113
Q

An infant of 6 six weeks who presents with a fever must be worked up for [. . .]

A

infectious causes

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114
Q

nurse should first assess the patient’s pain to determine the cause before administering [. . .]

A

pain medication

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115
Q

Objective data is [. . .]

A

observable and measurable

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116
Q

When performing an assessment, the nurse will collect [. . .]

A

subjective and objective data

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117
Q

observable and measurable data is also called [. . .]

A

Objective data

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118
Q

Dumping syndrome is characterized by [. . .]

A

rapid peristalsis

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119
Q

Patients with Dumping Syndrome should avoid [. . .]

A

simple carbohydrates (refined sugars)

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120
Q

a common complication following gastric bypass surgery [. . .]

A

Dumping syndrome

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121
Q

Patients often present with colicky abdominal pain, diarrhea, nausea, and tachycardia [. . .]

A

Dumping syndrome

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122
Q

Signs and symptoms of dumping syndrome generally occur right after [. . .]

A

eating

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123
Q

an example of a dopamine antagonist is [. . .]

A

haloperidol

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124
Q

Spiritual distress should be treated with [. . .]

A

a referral to the clergy and psychosocial support of the client

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125
Q

drug that is also used to treat psychotic disorders such as schizophrenia and bipolar disease [. . .]

A

dopamine antagonist

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126
Q

antipsychotic drug that is also used to treat psychotic disorders [. . .]

A

dopamine antagonist like haloperidol

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127
Q

which kind of drug is haloperidol [. . .]

A

dopamine antagonist

128
Q

Benzodiazepines (BZDs) are indicated if [. . .]

A

dopamine antagonist fails

129
Q

haloperidol does not have much sedative effect, if sedation is needed, what other drugs do we give [. . .]

A

chlorpromazine and midazolam

130
Q

The correct method to abbreviate subcutaneous administration route is [. . .]

A

Sub-Q, subQ, or subcutaneous

131
Q

Decreased bone density (osteoporosis), atelectasis, and hypercalcemia are all expected due to [. . .]

A

prolonged immobility

132
Q

when a patient is ordered complete bed rest it does not contraindicate this independant nursing intervention [. . .]

A

a soothing foot massage

133
Q

An early manifestation of shock is [. . .]

A

tachycardia

134
Q

the patient’s 10:30 AM vital signs show signs of shock. Considering this patient is in the immediate post-operative period, the nurse should assess the surgical wound for signs of [. . .]

A

hemorrhage

135
Q

the best place to find sequential recordings that show a pattern or trend of post-op patient vital signs is the [. . .]

A

graphic record

136
Q

quitting smoking will help the patient which activity of daily living [. . .]

A

sleep

137
Q

heart rate and rhythm irregular, Abdomen tympanic, Lungs clear are examples of [. . .]

A

auscultation

138
Q

a restrictive arm board to secure an intravenous line, although conditional, is not considered [. . .]

A

a restraint

139
Q

the ‘FACES scale’ is most commonly used with [. . .]

A

children

140
Q

the ‘Payen Behavioral Pain Scale’ is commonly used for which patients [. . .]

A

unconscious patients

141
Q

a common scale for assessing pain in patients with dementia is the [. . .]

A

Pain Assessment in Advanced Dementia Scale (PAINAD)

142
Q

the pictorial pain assessment scale is called [. . .]

A

Wong-Baker FACES

143
Q

what kind of sounds do dense organs such as the liver and the spleen produce upon percussion [. . .]

A

“dull” tones

144
Q

stomach and intestines would produce what kind of percusion sounds [. . .]

A

tympany in a healthy adult

145
Q

these two foods contain a high content of sodium and should be avoided in cases of hypertension [. . .]

A

bacon and smoked salmon

146
Q

patients with hypertension should be educated to avoid foods that are [. . .]

A

processed, cured, or canned

147
Q

a facial droop may be associated with a [. . .]

A

stroke

148
Q

in terms of intensity of pain what is the order from least to most

A
  • Ache is the least intense
  • Hurt is the next level of intensity
  • Pain is the most intense
149
Q

anthropometric data is what [. . .]

A

measurements of human body size and shape

150
Q

a method of nutritional assessment which includes: anthropometric data, biochemical data, clinical data, and dietary data is called [. . .]

A

ABCD

151
Q

a complete nutritional assessment of this resident would include anthropometric data such as [. . .]

A

the mid-arm circumference, the client’s height, weight, body mass index (BMI), ideal body weight, triceps skinfold measurements, and mid-arm muscle area

152
Q

this phase is characterized by the nurse and the client becoming familiar with each other [. . .]

A

orientation phase

153
Q

establishing goals that are reasonable and important to the client is a classic component of the [. . .]

A

orientation phase

154
Q

the [. . .] is characterized by problem-solving and maintaining the therapeutic rapport with the client

A

working phase

155
Q

the [. . .] hallmarks the end of the nurse-client relationship that reflects the progress made on the goals

A

termination phase

156
Q

the best and most effective way to evaluate your adult client’s response to non-pharmacological comfort interventions is to compare pre and post-intervention data using a [. . .]

A

numerical pain rating scale 0-10

157
Q

is a nonpharmacological, alternative, complementary pain management intervention for the spirit or spiritual, domain of pain [. . .]

A

Reiki

158
Q

involves stimulating the skin in an area opposite to the painful site [. . .]

A

Contralateral stimulation

159
Q

a valid and reliable pain assessment tool for the assessment of pain/pain intensity among clients who range in age from 2 years old to 10 years old [. . .]

A

FLACC Pain Scale

160
Q

pain Scale only valid and reliable for infants and neonates [. . .]

A

Neonatal Infant Pain Scale (NIPS)

161
Q

the symptoms include redness, warmth, and swelling of the area proximal to the (IV) catheter [. . .]

A

phlebitis

162
Q

What is the Snellen chart is used to assess

A

far vision

163
Q

What is the Jaeger test is used to assess

A

near vision

164
Q

in this hearing test, the tuning fork is placed on the mastoid bone behind the ear until the client can no longer feel the vibration

A

Rinne test

165
Q

the tuning fork is placed on the bridge of the forehead, nose, or teeth, what is this test called

A

Weber test

166
Q

Anomic aphasia leads to the inability to identify

A

written words

167
Q

Damage to the Broca area causes problems with speaking or finding words, called

A

expressive aphasia

168
Q

When walking with a cane, a client should hold the cane in the hand

A

opposite the side that needs support

169
Q

Ostomy pouches should be emptied once they are

A

half full to prevent leakage

170
Q

the nurse is assessing a client for proper use of a prosthetic leg what does the client do to demonstrate good care [. . .]

A

client applies a stump sock over the residual limb

171
Q

What are two reasons for putting a client in a specific position during or after a procedure, surgery or injury?

A

Prevent a complication

Promote something good ex: prevent bleeding by placing a client with a liver biopsy on the right sideex: promote good breathing/oxygen exchange by placing a client in semi- or high-fowler’s position

172
Q

What are contractures and what causes them?

A

Contractures are joint and muscle rigidity from staying in the same position for too long.

173
Q

What are pressure ulcers and what causes them?

A

injuries of the skin and tissue due to prolonged pressure on the skin.

174
Q

Why do we change the client’s position by turning them at least every 2 hours?

A

Prevent pressure ulcers (decubitus ulcers/bed sores) Prevent pneumonia by breaking up mucus secretions in lungs to prevent contractures

175
Q

What is the most common position to place a client in?

A

Fowler’s position

176
Q

Which information should nurse include when teaching about benztropine [. . .]

A

the importance of not discontinuing benztropine abruptly. Rather, the drug should be tapered slowly over a 1-week period

177
Q

what is appropiate nurse teaching for taking alendronate and what pathology do you take it for [. . .]

A

take with a full glass of water and remain upright 30 min (why - because it can cause severe esophageal irritation) and osteoporosis

178
Q

what is the best indicator of adequate perfusion in hypovolemic shock [. . .]

A

increase urine output

179
Q

Milk production begins in pregnant women when [. . .]

A

one to three days postpartum

180
Q

The [. . .] brace, also known as a cervico-thoracolumbosacral orthosis or CTLSO, is a back brace used in the treatment of spinal curvatures such as scoliosis or kyphosis in children.

A

Milwaukee

181
Q

when dealing with pressure injuries what device will allow for constant motion of the client and prevent further breakdown [. . .]

A

pressure redistribution bed

182
Q

[. . .] reduces pressure on skin surfaces and may be used for patients with such conditions as immobility, malnutrition, incontinence, contractures, fractures, or amputation. Some models come with special features, such as rotational or percussion options.

A

A low-air-loss therapy bed

183
Q

The simplest method to ensure drainage of the catheter is to [. . .] in the tubing that would affect drainage.

A

check the tubing for kinks

184
Q

Feedings are usually given in the upright position to prevent formula from coming through the nose in these clients [. . .]

A

cleft lip or palate

185
Q

Electrolyte imbalances associated with [. . .] include hypoglycemia, hyponatremia, and hyperkalemia

A

Addison’s disease

186
Q

what liquid drink is helpful in acidifying the urine and lessening the incidence of cystitis [. . .]

A

Cranberry juice

187
Q

in clients with Addisson’s disease the nutritional goals is to replenish their hypoglycemia and hyponatremia via foods that provide [. . .]

A

sugar and salt

188
Q

Increasing fluid intake will provide an internal irrigation and dilute the urine. This will lessen the probability of [. . .] forming

A

renal calculi or renal stones

189
Q

Applying a [. . .] to the nares helps alleviate sore nares when an NG tube is in place.

A

water-soluble lubricant

190
Q

Antiembolism [. . .] are slippery and a client should always wear nonskid socks or slippers when ambulating.

A

stockings

191
Q

[. . .] are associated with decreased esophageal sphincter tone, which increases gastroesophageal reflux

A

Fats

192
Q

[. . .] offered frequently allow the client to ingest food with the best chance of avoiding nausea

A

Small quantities of food

193
Q

Wet-to-damp dressings keep the wound bed moist, which helps promote the growth of [. . .] .

A

granulation tissue

194
Q

is a disorder of purine metabolism [. . .]

A

Gouty arthritis

195
Q

A priority goal for the client with COPD is to manage the signs and symptoms of the disease process so as to maintain the client’s [. . .]

A

functional ability

196
Q

The most important intervention for maintaining skin integrity is frequent [. . .] , which relieve pressure on the skin and underlying tissues.

A

position changes

197
Q

is effective for protecting the skin around a colostomy to keep the skin healthy and prevent skin irritation from stoma drainage [. . .]

A

adhesive skin barrier

198
Q

[. . .] are used for health issues to immobilize the area and support the body part in a functional position

A

Contoured splints

199
Q

Cold compresses, which reduce [. . .] and cause vasoconstriction

A

edema

200
Q

Warm compresses increase [. . .] and promote fluid absorption in the infiltrated area.

A

circulation

201
Q

[. . .] can help relieve joint stiffness and allow the client to more comfortably perform activities of daily living in client with Rheumatoid Arthritis (RA)

A

Warm showers, baths, or hand soaks

202
Q

Cold compresses are most effective for relieving [. . .] , whereas moist heat is useful for decreasing pain and stiffness.

A

joint pain

203
Q

A [. . .] diet prevents stimulation of the pancreas while providing adequate nutrition

A

low-fat, bland

204
Q

The [. . .] is typically done 30 minutes after a parenteral analgesic and an hour after an oral analgesic

A

pain reassessment

205
Q

In impetigo, [. . .] lesions develop once the pustules rupture.

A

honey-colored, crusted

206
Q

This position, [. . .] , shifts the enlarged uterus away from the vena cava and aorta, enhancing cardiac output, kidney perfusion, and kidney function

A

left lateral

207
Q

A pain rating of [. . .] out of 10 indicates significant pain

A

7

208
Q

What is the primary cause of constipation during pregnancy [. . .]

A

reduced intestinal motility

209
Q

An [. . .] is effective for protecting the skin around a colostomy to keep the skin healthy and prevent skin irritation from stoma drainage

A

adhesive skin barrier

210
Q

The [. . .] diet is commonly used to combat diarrhea and limits intake to bananas, rice, applesauce, and toast

A

BRAT

211
Q

To begin the patient’s transition to eating a regular diet post surgery, the nurse will first choose a [. . .]

A

clear-liquid diet

212
Q

At 32 weeks’ gestation, a neonate has limited ability to coordinate [. . .]

A

sucking, swallowing, and breathing

213
Q

The sucking reflex is present at [. . .] weeks’ gestation, but the neonate cannot coordinate the reflex with swallowing and breathing

A

32

214
Q

After a cesarean birth, most mothers have the greatest comfort when the neonate is positioned in the [. . .]

A

football hold

215
Q

is no longer recommended for lactation suppression [. . .]

A

Bromocriptine

216
Q

When applying elastic compression stockings, the nurse should apply the stockings before the client [. . .]

A

puts their feet in a dependent position (such as walking or sitting up with their feet dangling)

217
Q

To prevent foot drop, the nurse should apply a [. . .] on the affected foot aligning the ankle.

A

protective boot

218
Q

When placing the client in the supine position, the nurse should place a [. . .] under the client’s femur extending to the popliteal place.

A

trochanter roll, a folded blanket,

219
Q

The client with gout should be instructed to avoid foods that are high in [. . .] , which includes organ meats, seafood, fructose, and all alcohol.

A

purine

220
Q

To promote wound healing, the nurse should instruct the client to choose foods that are high in [. . .] and low in fat.

A

protein, carbohydrates, and vitamin C

221
Q

with [. . .] the client will choose a number of servings of foods from the list for each meal and snack

A

meal planning exchange lists

222
Q

The nurse is assisting a client who has hypothyroidism with meal planning. Which food should the nurse recommend the client choose [. . .]

A

foods that are high in fiber

223
Q

The client with hypothyroidism is at high risk for [. . .]

A

constipation

224
Q

The healthcare provider should be notified when urinary output is less than 30 ml/hr. However, the nurse must first perform [. . .] before informing the provider of the findings.

A

additional assessments

225
Q

chronic alcohol has a toxic effect on the intestinal mucosa which can lead to [. . .]

A

malnutrition

226
Q

A [. . .] can evaluate the client’s ability to swallow and recommend an appropriate food consistency to promote nutrition and prevent aspiration

A

speech-language pathologist

227
Q

Positioning the client in a [. . .] prevents aspiration of food into the lungs

A

high-Fowler’s position

228
Q

How many times per week do binge-eating episodes occur?

A

1 to 14 times per week

229
Q

Significantly low body weight for gender, age, developmental level, and physical health is describing which eating disorder? [. . .]

A

anorexia nervosa

230
Q

a surgery performed by an otolaryngologist to repair a hole in the eardrum

A

Myringoplasty

231
Q

What is the Valsalva maneuver?

A

The Valsalva maneuver is performed by a forceful attempt of exhalation against a closed airway, usually done by closing one’s mouth and pinching one’s nose shut while expelling air out as if blowing up a balloon.

232
Q

What color do you urinate when client is on Amitriptyline?

A

green-blue

233
Q

Cold reduces [. . .]

A

fever

234
Q

This medication will not treat infection but will help relieve bladder discomfort.

A

phenazo—pyridine

235
Q

Age-related loss of the eye’s ability to focus on close objects due to decreased elasticity of the lens [. . .]

A

Presbyopia

236
Q

What drinking accessory increases the client’s risk for aspiration?

A

using a straw

237
Q

What is the position for clients with a DVT

A

Position the client in bed with the leg elevated

238
Q

What is the early indication of thrombosis?

A

Unilateral calf circumference increase

239
Q

How many times per week do binge eating episodes occur?

A

1 to 14 times per week

240
Q

What meals are giving for clients with Dysphagia?

A

Pureed food and thickened liquids

241
Q

What is suggested to eat after diarrhea stops?

A

Yogurt

to restablish an intestinal balance of beneficial bacteria

242
Q

A BMI of 25 is the upper boundary of healthy weight (25 to 25.9 is considered [. . .] for an adult; 30 or greater is considered obese

A

overweight

243
Q

What should clients avoid placing under the knees or lower extremities?

A

Pillows

244
Q

what can decrease peristalsis and can lead to constipation [. . .]

A

depression

245
Q

What are the manifestations of pulmonary embolism?

A

Shortness of breath, chest pain, hemoptysis (coughing up blood), decreased blood pressure, and rapid pulse

246
Q

What causes metabolic acidosis from excessive loss of bicarbonate?

A

complications of diarrhea

247
Q

What should you do if you have antiembolic stockings?

A

Remove the stockings every 8 hr to assess for redness, warmth, or tenderness

248
Q

What is Naturopathic medicine?

A

Diet, exercise, environment, and herbal remedies to promote natural healing

249
Q

What is thrombophlebitis and deep vein thrombosis?

A

Inflammation of a vein (usually in the lower extremities) that result in clot formation.

250
Q

What don’t you give newborns or infants during the 1st year of life?

A

No cow’s milk or honey

251
Q

What is therapeutic communication?

A

Allows clients to verbalize and become aware of emotions and fears in a safe, nonjudgmental environment

252
Q

What is the body’s greatest energy source?

A

Carbohydrates

253
Q

these meds decrease the sense of urgency and help alleviate pain from a neurogenic or overactive bladder [. . .]

A

oxybutynin and dicyclomine

254
Q

To promote mobility in reference to respiratory a good nursing intervention is to

A

Instruct clients to yawn every hr while awake

255
Q

The Snellen method has clients stand [. . .] away

A

20 ft

256
Q

Who gets bowel control at 2 to 3 years old [. . .]

A

toddlers

257
Q

What should be given before stool softeners, stimulants, or suppositorie?

A

Bulk‑forming products

258
Q

What herbal agent inhibits platelet aggregation?

A

Garlic

259
Q

nursing action for clients with pulmonary embolism what is the position [. . .]

A

high Fowler’s position

260
Q

What S/S are associated with the Valsalva maneuver?

A

Bradycardia, hypotension, syncope

261
Q

What is another key component of reducing the complications of immobility?

A

Promoting venous return

262
Q

Immobility can lead to decreased urinary elimination of [. . .] resulting in hypercalcemia

A

calcium

263
Q

Look for [. . .] in fair skinned clients, and purple or blue discoloration in dark skinned clients.

A

pallor or redness

264
Q

How many kcal/kg of weight do infants (newborns) need for the first 6 months?

A

108

265
Q

How much fluid is required from fluid and food sources?

A

2,000 to 3,000 mL/day

266
Q

What should you do if there is absence of a peripheral pulse in the lower extremities?

A

Contact the provider immediately.

267
Q

What is the daily dietary cholesterol intake?

A

300 mg/day

268
Q

Opacity of the lens, which blocks the entry of light rays into the eye [. . .]

A

cataracts

269
Q

Heat increases [. . .]

A

blood flow

270
Q

Noninflammatory changes in the eye’s blood vessels leading to blindness in diabetics [. . .]

A

diabetic retinopathy

271
Q

What is the angle of elbow flexion when supporting body weight at the hand grips?

A

30 degrees

272
Q

What is binge eating followed by purging?

A

Bulimia

273
Q

How much fluid should clients consume per day?

A

at least 2,000 mL

274
Q

name two of the pressure ulcer risk scales

A

Norton or Brade

275
Q

What should not be used for clients who have cold intolerance, vascular insufficiency, open wounds, and disorders aggravated by cold, such as Raynaud’s phenomenon?

A

Cold applications

276
Q

What can lead to pressure ulcers?

A

Decreased circulation to tissue causing ischemia

277
Q

Significantly low body weight for gender, age, developmental level, and physical health is describing which eating disorder? [. . .]

A

anorexia nervosa

278
Q

Structural damage within the eye resulting from elevated pressure within the eye leading to blindness [. . .]

A

glaucoma

279
Q

Weber test [. . .] to unaffected ear

A

lateralizing

280
Q

Another name for fecal occult blood test is

A

guaiac testing

281
Q

How much fiber do you need as far as grams per day?

A

25 to 30 grams/day

282
Q

What is soft/low residue?

A

Foods that are low in fiber and easy to digest → residue = fiber

283
Q

What is mydriasis?

A

dilation of the pupil

284
Q

What should you do to assess for deep vein thrombosis?

A

Observe the calves for redness and palpate for warmth and tenderness

285
Q

Loss of central vision from deterioration of the center of the retina [. . .]

A

macular degeneration

286
Q

What should not be used during the first 24hr after a traumatic injury?

A

Heat applications

287
Q

What should you do with client after meals?

A

Keep them in semi‑Fowler’s position for at least 1 hr after meals

288
Q

What should immobile clients do in terms of fluid intake and position?

A

increase their fluid intake, and change positions frequently.

289
Q

What should clients do to increase activity tolerance?

A

Perform isometric exercises

290
Q

What is Biofeedback?

A

Using technology to increase awareness of various neurological body responses to minimize extremes

291
Q

What is the formula for calculating BMI?

A

weight (kg) ÷ height (m 2 )

292
Q

What are appropriate for a low residue diet?

A

Dairy products and eggs → foods that are low in fiber and easy to digest

293
Q

What are two types of treatment that prevent thrombosis formation in cardiovascular clients to prevent immobility?

A

Administer low dose heparin orenoxaparin subcutaneously prophylactically

294
Q

When do children achieve full bladder control?

A

4 to 5 years of age

295
Q

What decreases pain by decreasing the velocity of nerve conduction ?

A

cold // so applying cold reduces pain

296
Q

What do older adults and younger adults need equally?

A

The same amount of most vitamins and minerals

297
Q

What is a last resort for stimulating defecation?

A

Enema

298
Q

What herbal agent promotes sleep, reduces anxiety

A

Valerian

299
Q

What are signs of dysphagia?

A

coughing, choking, gagging, and drooling of food

300
Q

What is a pulmonary embolism?

A

A potentially life threatening occlusion of blood flow to one or more of the pulmonary arteries by a clot

301
Q

What is the best way to avoid tissue damage?

A

Avoid long applications of either heat or cold because this can result in tissue damage, burns, and reflex vasodilation (with cold therapy

302
Q

Teach clients who can move independently to turn at least every [. . .]

A

15min

303
Q

What are antiembolic exercises (ROM)?

A

Ankle pumps, foot circles, and knee flexion

304
Q

When a client has prescribed graduated compression stockings, the nurse would remove the stockings and inspect the skin at least every [. . .]

A

8 hours

305
Q

If the client has discoloration, markings, or blisters on the heel, after wearing compression stockings what would the nurse do [. . .]

A

discontinue the stockings and notify the healthcare provider

because sequential compression devices may be used instead to prevent deep vein thrombosis

306
Q

[. . .] have high levels of phenylalanine and include meats and dairy products.

A

High-protein foods

307
Q

Lying on the left side allows the enema solution to flow [. . .] into the rectum and sigmoid colon

A

downward by gravity

308
Q

[. . .] is a potential complication of enteral feedings

A

Hyperglycemia

309
Q

[. . .] suggest an intolerance to the ordered enteral feeding solution

A

diaphoresis, vomiting, and diarrhea

310
Q

Electrolyte disturbances, constipation, dehydration, and hypercapnia are [. . .] of enteral feedings

A

complications

311
Q

Snacks are included in the diabetic diet to offset periods of [. . .]

A

peak insulin action

312
Q

terbutaline can cause [. . .]

A

tachycardia

313
Q

Assessing the [. . .] level is the initial step in any teaching plan to promote the maximum amount of learning

A

learner’s knowledge

314
Q

Height and weight are measured and recorded; a history of weight gain or loss is also assessed are what type of measurements [. . .]

A

Anthropometric measurements

315
Q

Avoid giving [. . .] during first year (deficient in essential fatty acids, iron, zinc, vitamin E, and vitamin C)

A

cow’s milk