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ASNT > basic asnt review 1st > Flashcards

basic asnt review 1st Flashcards

1
Q

for individuals with only a high school education, the number of training hours recommended by the SNT-TC 1A

A

May be adjusted to reflect the candidates actual education level

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2
Q

The company’s written practice according to the SNT-TC-1A should include the

A

Responsibility of the two level of certification for determining the acceptability of materials and components

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3
Q

The level III certified to SNT-TC-1A should have a general familiarity with

A

Other appropriate NDT methods

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4
Q

an education recommended by the SNT-TC-1A when a for level three certification

A

Graduated from a four year engineering or science curriculum from a college or university plus one year experience in NDT comparable to that of a NDT the level 2

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5
Q

a certification program is to meet the minimum recommendations of SNT-TC-1A to the following ASNT level II examination scores meet the minimum requirements of? General 72%, specific 78%, and practical 90%

A

Yes (must average to 80%)

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6
Q

The responsibility of compliance with SNT-TC-1A lies with

A

This is not addressed in SNT-TC-1A

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7
Q

Which statement is true regarding SNT-TC-1A trainees? Not perform tests on material, have potential for NDT level 2, report results, work with a certified individual)

A

Work with a Certified individual

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8
Q

SNT-TC-1A recommends that vision tests for near distance visual acuity for level 1 and level 2 personnel should be conducted up on a Initial certification and

A

at one year intervals thereafter

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9
Q

Companies issuing SNT-TC-1A certificates should revoke any NDT certification when the employee

A

Is terminated

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10
Q

The recommended maximum recertification interval in SNT-TC-1A for a level 3 is

A

Five years

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11
Q

an employer chooses to increase the number of questions for a specific examination over the recommended number in SNT-TC-1A, which of the following meets the recommendations of SNT-TC-1A? (should sate the number required, not allowed to a modification, free to change other sections but not specific exam, only an ASNT approved written practice from SNT -TC-1A)

A

the employers written practice should state the number of questions That are required

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12
Q

In the Certification of a companys personnel to SNT-TC-1A, the employer must assure NDT personnel have been qualified in accordance with

A

The certifying companies written practice

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13
Q

SNT-TC-1A recommends trainees should obtain work Experience by working with (ASNT level 3, SNT-TC-1A Level 3, certified individual)

A

Any of the above (level three or certified individual)

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14
Q

SNT-TC-1A recommends that an individual in the process of being qualified to liquid penetrant level one should

A

Work with NDT level 1 or level 2 PT person

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15
Q

When Certifying NDT level III personnel to SNT-TC-1A, the employer

A

May accept an ASNT level three certification to satisfy part of the qualification requirements

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16
Q

in accordance with SNT-TC-1A, certification is Defined as indicating that a person has

A

Written testimony by Verifying Qualification in the method

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17
Q

According to SNT-TC-1A an NDT level III individual should

A

Be capable of developing, qualifying , and the Approving procedures

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18
Q

which of the following items would not be needed in the qualification records of an SNT-TC-1A program? Exam scores, method of certification, training hours, copies of certification company examinations)

A

Copies of the Last Certification company examinations

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19
Q

According to SNT-TC-1A, the NDT instructor

A

Does not have to be qualified as in CP 189

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20
Q

In accordance with the SNT-TC-1A, specific examinations should include questions which cover

A

Equipment, and operating procedures and NDT techniques of that an individual may encounter during specific assignments

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21
Q

A CP 189 certification procedure shall be

A

Approved by the employer is designated level III

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22
Q

a level 2 candidate wishes to use a 40 hour NDT training course for qualification towards CP 189 certification, they must

A

Pass a final exam

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23
Q

A requirement for a CP 189 level three certification is that the candidate

A

Must possess a current valid ASNT NDT level III certificate in the applicable method

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24
Q

Which qualification is addressed and CP 189 but not SNT-TC 1A

A

NDT instructor

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25
Q

CP 189 requires experience records to

A

Be verified for initial And continuing experience

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26
Q

When a level III retires, the certification in accordance with CP 189

A

Expires

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27
Q

CP 189 states, when a candidate for certification is working in two methods of NDT

A

The candidate must meet the required minimum hours in each method and the total hours in NDT for the method requiring the most total hours

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28
Q

When an employer has more than one NDT level III In a specific method, CP 189 requires

A

That the employer designate a Principal NDT level III for that method

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29
Q

Level 3 recertification in accordance with CP 189 requires

A

A current a ASNT NDT level III certificate in the same method

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30
Q

One experience requirement of CP 189 for instructors is

A

Have 10 or more years of experience as a level two in the method they instruct

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31
Q

To make CP 189, what MT test technique must be satisfactorily demonstrated in the level one practical examination in order to qualify an individual whose job will require performing both bench and yoke examinations

A

Bench and yoke tests must each be demonstrated

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32
Q

CP 189 requires the NDT level 3, responsible for administration and grading of NDT examination must

A

Be a holder of the current ASNT level III certificate in that method

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33
Q

An ASNT level 3, looking for employment, alters his certificate and is reported to ASNT headquarters. ASNT headquarters would most likely

A

Refer the incident to the ASNT certification management council ethics subcommittee

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34
Q

Which action by an ASNT certified level 3 would be considered a violation of level 3 code of ethics

A

Certifying NDT personnel without adequate knowledge of their capabilities

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35
Q

The ASNT level 3 certificate (reissued when rehired by new employer, is revoked when employment is terminated, remains valid after termination, replaces written practice requirement)

A

Is revoked when employment is terminated

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36
Q

The inductive reactance of a test coil can be calculated using the formula

A

XL=2(pi)fl

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37
Q

With Eddy current testing, In order to decrease the effect on conductivity readings due to variations in test part thickness

A

The test frequency should be increased

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38
Q

When testing by the eddy current method, discontinuities will be most easily detected when the eddy currents are

A

Perpendicular to the major plane of the discontinuity

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39
Q

with eddy current coils, the fill factor when a 0.75 inch diameter bar is inserted in a 1 inch outside diameter core coil is

A

56% (D1sqrd/D2sqrd)

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40
Q

The term used to define the difference between actual instrument and expected output as defined by a straight line calibration curve is

A

Non linearity

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41
Q

At a fixed test frequency, in which of the following materials will the eddy current penetration be greatest

A

Lead (7% IACS conductivity)

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42
Q

A term used to define the timing relationship involved in alternating current signals is

A

Phase

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43
Q

A term to define the property of a test system which enables the separation of signals due to discontinuity in the test specimen that are located in close proximity to each other is

A

discontinuity resolution

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44
Q

Which of the following materials would have the highest resistivity value

A

Zirconium with a 3.4% IACS rating

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45
Q

A penetration of eddy currents in the conductive material is decreased when

A

Test frequency, conductivity of the specimen, or permeability of the specimen are increased

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46
Q

Which of the following types of developers are not normally use with visible dye penetrants

A

Dry

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47
Q

What mechanism is responsible for the greater sensitivity of nonaqueous developers

A

Solvent mixing with entrapped penetrant and expanding its volume

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48
Q

The differences in sensitivities of a manufacturer’s fluorescent penetrant are usually obtained by varying the

A

Dye concentrations

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49
Q

Which of the following are not functions that a good developer would have (extract penetrant from flaw entrapment, transfer penetrant from flaw to surface, prevent the spread of penetrant in developer coating, increase contrast between penetrant and background)

A

Prevent the spread of penetrant and developer coating

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50
Q

The absorption property of a developer refers to its ability to

A

Assimulate liquid penetrant into its bulk

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51
Q

But floor applying a dry develop the police if this were excess water washable penetrant have been removed, the surface must be

A

Dry

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52
Q

Before applying an aqueous type of developer to a surface where excess water-washable penetrants have been removed, the surface can be

A

wet or dry

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53
Q

The lateral diffusion or bleeding from a penetrant entrapment may cause (small flaws to become lost in the spread, indications appear too large, indication size is exaggerated when dwell time is exceeded)

A

all of the above

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54
Q

All type of developers should be applied in

A

a thin uniform thickness

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55
Q

What type if developers should be adequately agitated before application to test parts (dry, suspension, water soluble, none)

A

Suspensions

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56
Q

The current waveform in that has the deepest penetration is (AC, half wave direct current, full wave direct current, 3 phase direct current)

A

half wave direct current

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57
Q

in a head shot, the amount of current is determined by (length of part, distance between prods, the L/D ration and turns of the coil, the diameter or diagonal of the part)

A

the diameter or diagonal of the test part

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58
Q

what is the first step to determine if an indication is false (apply, penetrant, clean and demagnetize, heat treat, apply magnetic field)

A

clean and demagnetize

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59
Q

which if the following materials is very weakly magnetic (ferromagnetic, diamagetnic, paramagnetic, low carbon steel)

A

paramagnetic

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60
Q

in a residual magnetic particle examination, the magnetic particles are applied

A

after the part has been magnetized

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61
Q

when prods are used, the current is determined by

A

the prod separation

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62
Q

When reducing the magnetizing force which produced a magnetic field in a part made of ferromagnetic material has been reduced to zero, the magnetic field in the part is termed

A

residual

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63
Q

The deeper a discontinuity is from a surface

A

the more diffuse becomes the indication pattern

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64
Q

if a part is magnetized in a head shot or using a central conductor, the discontinuity which can be detected is located (transverse, circumferentially, longitudinally)

A

longitudinally

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65
Q

The strength of the magnetic field within a coil is _________ at the center of the coil compared to the field at the edge of the coil

A

Weaker

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66
Q

Which of the following conversion screens has the longest half-life (dysprosium, indium, cadmium, gadolinium)

A

Dysprosium

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67
Q

A neutron is unique as it is electrically neutral. The lack of electric charge means that its electrostatic interaction with the atoms electrons is

A

almost completely negligible

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68
Q

The rare earths are frequently used in neutron radiography. An interesting feature of this family of elements is which (nearly identical chemically, make up 1/6 of the periodic tale, large absorption cross sections for neutrons)

A

(all of the above)

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69
Q

A thin sheet of gadolinium foil, in intimate contact with photographic film during a neutron exposure, will increase film density because

A

it emits electrons that darken the film

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70
Q

For direct the neutron radiosity, precaution has to be taken to reduce the gamma ray background of most sources as this tends to obscure the neutron radio graph this may be done by

A

Using filtration of gamma rays

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71
Q

The transfer exposure technique, sometimes called the indirect technique, uses neutron converters that have reasonably long Radioactive half life . Which of the following would be a good candidate (indium, dysprosium)

A

Indium and Dysprosium

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72
Q

which of the following neutron radiometer converter foils cannot be used for transfer or indirect Radiography (dysprosium, indium, gadolinium, gold)

A

Gadolinium

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73
Q

The quality of the results from a neutron radiographic facility is best determined by (reference standards, image quality indicators, neutron flux measurement, densitometer readings)

A

Image quality indicators

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74
Q

flaws in the imaging screens can be separated from actual flaws any part being Radiographed by

A

Comparing a neutron a radiograph of the parts to a blank neutron radiograph of the same imaging screen with no parts in place

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75
Q

The best method for determining how resolution affects the ability to interpret the radiograph of parts is by

A

Radiographing parts that have known measured defects

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76
Q

The approximate radiographic equivalents of factors for a steel and copper at 220 kV are 1.0 and 1.4 respectively. If it is desirable to radiograph an 0.5 inch plate of copper, what thickness of steel would require about the same exposure characteristics

A

0.7 inches of steel

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77
Q

Which of the following radiographic technique variables is most commonly used to adjust subject contrast (source film distance, milli-amperage, kilo voltage, focal point size)

A

Kilo voltage

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78
Q

the quantitative measure of film blackening is referred to as (definition, photographic density, film contrast, radiographic contrast)

A

Photograph density

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79
Q

A curve relating density with the logarithm of exposure or of relative to exposure is called (sensitivity curve, technique curve, an H&D curve, x-ray intensity curve)

A

An H and D curve

80
Q

Radiographic subject contrast is affected by (Thickness differences in the specimen, radiation quality, scattered radiation)

A

(All of the above)

81
Q

A qualitative term often used to indicate the size of the size of the smallest detail which can be seen in a radiograph is sensitivity, definition, contrast)

A

Radiographic sensitivity

82
Q

The activity of the fixer diminishes after being used for a period of time because of the

A

Fixer solution accumulates soluble Silver Salts

83
Q

The attenuation of X-rays in low energy radiography under 300 kV commonly used for testing takes place through (Photoelectric Absorption and Compton absorption )

A

both

84
Q

Which of the following is the primary function of a film Interpreter find perfect parts, reject parts, identify discontinuities and manufacturing deviations, determine a proper technique was used)

A

Identify discontinuity And Manufacturing deviations standards

85
Q

If an exposure time of 60 seconds and a source to film distance of 4ft is necessary for a particular exposure, what exposure time would be needed for an equivalent exposure if the source to film distance is changed to 5 feet

A

94 seconds (d2sqrd x 60 (time 1)/d1sqrd) = T1/T2

86
Q

In general, shear waves are more sensitive to small discontinuities than longitudinal waves for a given frequency and in a given material because the

A

Wavelength of shear waves is shorter than the wavelength of longitudinal waves

87
Q

In general, which of the following modes of vibration would have the greatest penetrating power in a course grained material if the frequency of the waves are the same

A

longitudinal

88
Q

The testing technique in which the crystal or transducer is parallel to the test surface and ultrasonic waves and enter the material paint tested in direction perpendicular to the test surface is

A

Straight beam testing

89
Q

A device which transforms energy from one form to another form is called a

A

Transducer

90
Q

The distance from a given point on an ultrasonic Wave to the next corresponding point to is referred to as

A

Wavelength

91
Q

The transducers most commonly found in ultrasonic search units (probes) used for discontinuity testing utilize

A

Piezoelectric principles

92
Q

The formula sin A1/V1=Sin A2/V2 (angle in=angle out) is referred to as

A

Snell’s law

93
Q

the amount of energy reflected from a discontinuity will be dependent on (The size of the discontinuity, the orientation of the discontinuity, the type of discontinuity)

A

(All of the above)

94
Q

Which of the following frequencies would probably result in the greatest ultrasonic attenuation losses (1.0 megahertz, 2.25 mega hertz, 10 megahertz, 25 megahertz)

A

25 MHz

95
Q

In acoustic testing, the product of the sound velocity and the density of a material is a known as the

A

Acoustic impedance of the material

96
Q

On a blueprint, a width dimension of a part Is specified as 2.513 +.002, -.005. What is the width dimensions limits?

A

0.2508 -2.515

97
Q

A longitudinal crack in the center of the root pass of the weld was most likely caused by

A

Expansion and contraction of the joint material during and after Welding

98
Q

What is the orientation of most discontinuity spawned in groove welds (longitudinal, transverse, 45 degrees to weld axis)

A

longitudinal

99
Q

it is not apparent that a fillet weld is either convex or concave, what procedure should be followed for assuring the well test the proper size

A

Examine both Fillet weld the legs with both convex and concave gages

100
Q

In a visual examination of a weld, one would be looking for

A

Dimensional accuracy, surface discontinuity, acceptability Of Weld For appearance, unfilled craters, pockmarks, undercuts, overlap cracks and arc strikes

101
Q

Which of the following listed items that is not an AWS standard type of weld joint (edge, lap, corner, seam)

A

Seam

102
Q

An optical device that transmits light in a single straight light pipe is called

A

Bore scope

103
Q

A welding symbol with a flag at the intersection of the arrow and the reference line indicates that

A

The weld is a field weld

104
Q

The root of the weld refers to

A

The deepest point of useful penetration into a joint, where the weld fusion lines intersect

105
Q

The effective throat of the weld is defined as the distance

A

From the root of a weld to its face, less any reinforcement

106
Q

MARSE (measured area rectified signal envelope) is (useful as a measure of continuous noise, often observed to increase load in tests of damaged structures, mean acoustic ringdown signal envelope)

A

Often observed to increase with increasing load in tests of damaged structures

107
Q

The concept that all, or nearly all, materials are capable of generating acoustic emission was first set forth in the 1950 by

A

Kaiser

108
Q

The typical source mechanism of acoustic emission is

A

Crack growth, movement of dislocations, matrix cracking In fiber reinforced plastics

109
Q

The positioning of sensors for acoustic emission testing of metal pressure vessels is commonly based on

A

The measured attenuation in the structure and the need to detect an AE source with the given amplitude

110
Q

Of the following components which one is not considered to be part of a typical acoustic emission sensor (Electrodes, active element, backing material, acoustic wave guide )

A

Acoustic wave guide

111
Q

The felicity ratio is the quantitative measure best used to evaluate

A

Fiberglass vessels and storage tanks

112
Q

When performing source location, which of the following directly affects The accuracy computed location

A

Accuracy of sensor placement

113
Q

In acoustic emission testing of fiberglass reinforced pressure tanks and pressure vessels, significant activity on low frequency sensors and a very little activity on high frequency sensors normally indicates

A

Poor, high frequency Sensor location

114
Q

When selecting the best sensor frequency for a particular acoustic emission test, it is important to consider all of the following except (Characteristics of the material, Frequency spectrum and background noise, Sensor Spacing, Cable length)

A

Cable length

115
Q

After an initial proof test, the defect grows during a year in service. Acoustic emission can often detect this defect during the second proof test. Dunegans reasoning for this phenomenon is that the

A

Local stress field around the defect will be higher during the second proof test

116
Q

The type of leaks that are most likely to go undetected during a bubble leak tests are

A

Very small leaks and very large leaks, leaks occurring at welded joints, corner configuration joints (all of the above)

117
Q

The pipe to shell weld of a 51mm or 2 inch diameter flange nozzle with no reinforcing pad plate is flush with the inside of the vessel shell. The simplest way to bubble leak test this weld prior to completion of the vessel would be to

A

Blank the nozzle flange and the vacuum box bubble leak test the weld from inside the shell

118
Q

Good practice dictates that when pressurizing a component for a bubble leak test

A

two pressure gauges should be used

119
Q

Safe test practices dictate that all dial gauges use for vacuum box leak testing should be calibrated

A

When taken from storage and prior to using

120
Q

Gauges use for vacuum box bubble leak testing should preferably have dials graduated over a range of

A

The atmospheric pressure

121
Q

The weighting factor for each Dry bulb temperature sensor and each dew point temperature sensor for a pressure change leakage rate test of a very large volume system will

A

Very for each sensor depending on the portion of the total system volume represented by the individual sensor

122
Q

For a pressure change measurement test of a rigid volume system at a temperature of 40 F and 35 psig, a temperature change of 1 F could be expected to cause an approximate pressure change of

A

0.100 PSI

123
Q

Which of the following are true statements regarding the flow measurement technique of pressure change measurement testing as applicable to a large variety of test systems (measurement of system dew point gas temp is usually necessary, must be performed with a special tracer gas, calculation of measurement of system volume is unnecessary)

A

Calculation or measurement of system volume is unnecessary

124
Q

For pressure change measurement tests of evacuated systems In the absolute pressure range of .0001 to .00001 Torr, which one of the following type gauges would be the best to use

A

Ionization gauge

125
Q

For the flow measurement technique of pressure change measurement testing, the type of flow measurement usually encountered that directly represents a leakage rate is

A

Mass flow

126
Q

Which of the following can directly affect the performance of a halogen diode leak detector during a halogen diode detector probe (sniffer) test

A

Cigarette or industrial smoke

127
Q

the halogen-rich refrigeration gas as it passes through a leak, is generally referred to as

A

A tracer gas

128
Q

Which one of the following elements is detectable with a halogen diode leak detector

A

Chlorine

129
Q

When cold weather reduces the rate of vaporization from the refrigerant bottle, increasing the time required to pressurize the test system, the best course of action is to

A

Place the refrigerant bottle In a tank of very warm water

130
Q

Most leaks detected during a halogen diode detector probe (sniffer) test could have been detected, and usually can be verified, by

A

A bubble leak test

131
Q

If a pressure off a 101 kPa or one atmosphere is defined as the pressure which supports a column of mercury

A

76 cm high at 0 C at sea level or 30 inches high at 32 F

132
Q

When a liquid in a confined space no longer continues to evaporate, the partial pressure of the space will reach condition of equilibrium equal to the _________________ of the liquid

A

Vapor pressure

133
Q

The principle of operation of the vacuum diffusion pump is

A

Oil Vapors colliding with gas molecules, forcing them in one specific direction

134
Q

The spontaneous evolution of gas and vapor from materials in a vacuum as pressure is reduced is called

A

Out gassing

135
Q

For leak testing, helium is often used as a tracer gas because

A

It has a low mass and is inert

136
Q

Which technique will relate pressure pulses generated by a reciprocating machine to a shaft position

A

Order tracking

137
Q

Condition monitoring is more difficult on non reciprocating machinery than on reciprocating machinery when using vibration analysis due to its

A

variety of operating pressures

138
Q

A Centrifugal fan With Journal bearings and Fluid film lubrication it is going to handle large amounts of dirty air. What type of vibration sensor will provide the earliest and reliable indication of dust build up on the impeller

A

Proximity probe in impellor side bearing housing

139
Q

Vibration signature on all data points On a simple supported in Induced draft Fan and indicates high 1X RPM without any other peak in the frequency span. How do you distinguish the cause if this high vibration peak between imbalance and misalignment

A

Perform phase analysis to distinguish the cause of the high peak

140
Q

Vibration signature at a data point on the gearbox indicates a high peak near end of the frequency span. The peak is at gear mesh frequency. What would you do to conclude source and severity of the situation

A

Take another data with increased frequency span to 3.2 times the Gear mesh frequency

141
Q

Vibration signature at data points on a motor indicates increased vibration with high peak at rotor bar frequency with sideband peaks around it. What would you do to conclude source and severity of the situation

A

Take another data with the increase resolution to check if sidebands are line frequency related or not

142
Q

aliasing phenomenon occurs in acquired vibration data, when

A

Sampling rate is lower than frequencies present in the data

143
Q

A Bode plot in vibration analysis is the plot of

A

Amplitude vs. speed or Phase angle vs. speed

144
Q

The decision on vibration monitoring frequency on a machine depends on

A

History of repeated problems in that machine

145
Q

The vibration acceptability criteria for rotating machines are covered by this ISO standard

A

ISO 10816

146
Q

What drives the Heat energy transfer

A

Temperature difference

147
Q

The rate at which energy flows through a surface, regarding infrared thermal testing, is referred to as

A

Thermal flux density

148
Q

The voltage produced went two dissimilar metals are joined together originates from a phenomenon known as

A

Seebeck effect

149
Q

With respect to steady state heat transfer by thermal conduction in a wall

A

The heat flux is directly proportional to the temperature difference and inversely proportional to wall thickness

150
Q

To attain a level one thermal certification, ASNT recommends ____________ hours of training

A

32

151
Q

Infrared film cameras can record in the infrared region between _________________

A

0.7 to 0.9 micro meters

152
Q

Bolometer detectors, used in many infrared cameras and Non-Contact temperature measurement devices

A

Must be heated to produce a signal

153
Q

Application of temperature sensitive materials to a surface is considered to be

A

A thermal technique

154
Q

Which law describes the distribution of the spectral radiance of, the rate at which energy is emitted by a Blackbody at a given temperature, per unit as a function of wavelength

A

Planck’s law

155
Q

Aerosols attenuate the transmission of infrared radiation in the atmosphere primarily by the process of

A

Scattering

156
Q

Which of the following welding process these uses shielding provided by a flux if contained in a tubular electrode

A

FCAW - Flux cored arc welding

157
Q

which of the following test subjects a test sample to repeated stresses in order to determine the number of cycles required to cause failure

A

Fatigue testing

158
Q

EDM (electrical discharge machining), ECM (electro chemical machining), and ultrasonic machining are all classified as methods of

A

Chip less machining

159
Q

Of the following material properties, all are classified as mechanical properties except (The strength, hardness, Ductility, corrosion resistance )

A

Corrosion resistance

160
Q

Martensitic, ferritic, Austenitic all refer to what type of steel

A

Stainless steel

161
Q

All of the following are casting defects except (Porosity, hot tears, segregation, laminations )

A

Laminations

162
Q

Which of the following welding process used a Tungsten non-consumable electrode

A

GTAW (gas tungsten arc welding)

163
Q

Which of the following is a primary processing discontinuity caused by high Internal stresses during cold drawing (cupping, seams,laps,bursts)

A

cupping

164
Q

The drawback of using magnesium is its

A

Low impact strength

165
Q

Uneven heating or cooling may cause this type of secondary processing defect

A

Heat treating cracks

166
Q

Which of the process these would be used in the manufacturing of wire

A

Drawing

167
Q

The elimination of Deformed grains after plastic deformation can be accomplished by

A

Recrystallization

168
Q

The primary processing discontinuity caused by the elongation of unused surface defects during the rolling process is termed a

A

Seam

169
Q

Which of the following is classified as a light metal (aluminum,steel, copper)

A

Aluminum

170
Q

Which of the following is primarily used for decorative purposes (Anodizing, electroplating, vacuum metalizing, hot dip plating )

A

Vacuum metalizing

171
Q

Which of the following stresses occur during bending (Transverse shear, compression, tension )

A

All of these

172
Q

When precipitation Hardening Nonferrous metals, What is the sequence of steps that is required

A

Solution heat trading, quenching, aging

173
Q

Which of the following is not classified a method of Hardness testing (brinnell, file test, charpy, Moh)

A

charpy

174
Q

brasses and bronzes are alloys of

A

Copper

175
Q

Which of the following may occur as a result of welding (Melting, alloying, recrystallization )

A

All of them

176
Q

Which of the following plastic type may not be remolded (linear chain polymers, thermoplastics, thermosets, heat flow able polymers)

A

Thermosets

177
Q

In which of the following casting process is the pattern destroyed during casting (Die, investment, precision, sand )

A

Investment casting

178
Q

The forming process where metal is pushed through a die is called

A

Extrusion

179
Q

During solidification, segregation within or around the grains themselves is termed a

A

Micro segregation

180
Q

Braze welding, the brazing and soldering are classified as which type of bonding

A

Flow bonding

181
Q

Which of the following is a term used to describe a metal that has undergone plastic deformation (Strain, work, cold work)

A

All of these

182
Q

Chromate , phosphate , and chemical oxide coatings are primarily used for

A

Corrosion protection

183
Q

A shape changing process where a power driven device causes material to be removed in chip form is termed

A

Machining

184
Q

In which type of casting process is the liquid metal injected into the mold

A

Die casting

185
Q

Which of the following test uses a weighted pendulum to break the specimen under test

A

Charpy

186
Q

An absence of molten metal during the final solidification process is the cause of which of the following casting defects

A

Pipe

187
Q

Which of the following is a type to fiber to use in the manufacture of composite materials (Glass, boron, aramid )

A

All of these

188
Q

Which heat treatment process is preformed to reduce the steel to its softest condition

A

Annealing

189
Q

when dendrite growth is restricted by an adjacent dendrite, the result is the formation of a

A

grain boundary

190
Q

which welding processes utilizes copper molding shoes to confine the molten weld metal and slag

A

ESW (electric resistance welding)

191
Q

the position of a metal in the electrochemical series is a factor in determining its

A

Corrosion resistance

192
Q

When deformation occurs above the recrystallization temperature, the material is said to be

A

hot worked

193
Q

The forming process where metal is pulled through a die is called

A

Drawing

194
Q

which of the following welding defects occurs at the weld root (overlap, lamellar tearing, lack of penetration, under cut)

A

lack of penetration

195
Q

Which type of welding is performed in a vacuum

A

Electron beam welding

ASNT (4 decks)

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