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Anatomy > Basic > Flashcards

Basic Flashcards

1
Q

what is the part of the skeleton that includes the ribcage and skull called?

A

Axial

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2
Q

What is the part of the skeleton that includes the clavicle, scapula and femur called?

A

Appendicular

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3
Q

Anterior/Ventral is?

A

The front surface of the body or structure within.

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4
Q

Posterior/Dorsal is?

A

The back surface of any structure

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5
Q

If one structure is superior to another it is?

A

Closer to the head end of the body than the other.

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6
Q

If a structure is closer to the mid line of the body than another, it is?

A

Medial to it.

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7
Q

When referring to limbs if a limb is closer to the attachment of that limb to the body, it is…?

A

Proximal.

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8
Q

When referring to limbs if a limb is further to the attachment of that limb to the body, it is…?

A

Distal.

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9
Q

The four main tissues that the body is comprised of?

A

Epithelial tissue.

Nervous tissue.

Muscle tissue.

Connective tissue.

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10
Q

What is epithelial tissue?

A

The tissue that comes into contact with the external environment.

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11
Q

What cells is epithelial tissue made up of?

A

Squamous, cuboidal, columnar and transitional (depends on shapes of constituent cells.

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12
Q

Three types of muscle tissue?

A

Smooth, Cardiac, Skeletal.

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13
Q

Functions of the skeleton?

A

Surface attachment for muscles, rigid supporting framework, protects soft tissues, blood cell production.

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14
Q

What three things make up connective tissue?

A

Cells, Matrix and Fibres

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15
Q

Three types of cartilage?

A

Hyaline Cartilage.

Fibrocartilage.

Elastic Cartilage.

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16
Q

Two types of bone?

A

Lamellar and Immature (woven).

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17
Q

Three types of joint?

A

Fibrous (simple).

Cartilaginous.

Synovial.

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18
Q

What is a fibrous joint, two types?

A

Either a Suture joint between flat bones (e.g. skull),

Or a Syndesmoses (between long bones) e.g. between tibia and fibula.

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19
Q

What is a primary cartilaginous joint, example?

A

Joint that allows for little movement and is covered in hyaline cartilage. At a growth plate.

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20
Q

What is a secondary cartilaginous joint?

A

Mostly in the midline, ends covered in hyaline, and then fibrocartilage in the middle.

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21
Q

Two types of arthritis?

A

Rheumatoid arthritis, and Osteoarthritis.

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22
Q

What is the difference in rheumatoid and osteoarthritis?

A

Rheumatoid is small joints and an autoimmune condition. Osteo is in large weight bearing joints and due to destruction of articular cartilage.

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23
Q

If the body is in the supine position it is…?

A

lying on its posterior or dorsal surface.

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24
Q

If the body is in the prone position it is lying on its…?

A

Anterior/ventral surface.

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25
Q

The transverse plane is…?

A

at a right angle to the mid line of the body so across the body, dissecting into inferior/superior

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26
Q

the sagittal plane is…?

A

Down the body dissecting into medial and distal

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27
Q

The Coronal plane dissects the body into ?

A

Anterior and posterior.

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28
Q

Characteristics of a synovial joint?

A

Presence of a joint cavity containing a small volume of synovial fluid. this is enclosed by a fibrous capsule lined on its inner surface by a synovial membrane. The articulating surfaces are covered in smooth hyaline cartilage.

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29
Q

Three types of common synovial joint?

A

Hinge, Ellipsoid, and Ball and Socket.

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30
Q

The transverse plane is..?

A

Going from anterior to posterior across the body

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31
Q

The coronal plane is…?

A

The plane that dissects the body down the side so as if it were to pass lateral to medial to lateral again

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32
Q

What are the main body cavities?

A

Cranial - brain, this is continuous with the spinal cavity.

Spinal cavity - spinal card

Thoracic

Abdomino-pelvic cavity

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33
Q

The four divisions of the appendicular skeleton?

A

Pectoral girdle - scapula and clavicle
Upper limb - humerus, radius, ulna, carpals, metacarpals and phalanges.

Pelvic girdle - ilium, ischium, pubis.
Lower limb - Femur patella, tibia, fibula, tarsal bones, metatarsals and phalanges.

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34
Q

A hinge synovial joint permits movement in how many planes? what is the name for this?

A

One plane - uni-axial.

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35
Q

An ellipsoid synovial joint permits movement in how many planes? what is the name for this? what are the different movements?

A

Two planes, bi-axial.

Flexion, extension, abduction and adduction.

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36
Q

A ball and socket synovial joint permits movement in how many planes? what is the name for this?

What are the movements at this type of joint?

A

Three planes - Multi-axial

Flexion, extension, abduction, adduction, medial and lateral rotation, Circumduction also occurs when a cone shape is circumscribed.

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37
Q

Three types of less common synovial joints?

A

Plane joint - e.g. articular surfaces of vertebrae.

Pivot joint - peg inside a ring - formed between the axis and the atlas.

Saddle joint - both surfaces shaped like a saddle

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38
Q

How is circumduction different from rotation?

A

Circumduction is the combination of flexion, extension, abduction and adduction.

Rotation is a completely separate movement.

39
Q

What do the terms kyphosis and scoliosis describe?

A

Abnormal curvature of the spine.

Kyphosis is a hump and scoliosis is ‘crroked’

40
Q

What two structures occupy the vertebral arch in vertebrae?

A

The pedicles - sides of the arch

The laminae - parts of the arch posteriorly.

41
Q

What four process project on vertebrae?

A

spinous process - directly posteriorly from the laminae.

transverse processes projecting laterally

Superior and inferior articular processes - articulate with the adjacent vertebrae as synovial joints.

42
Q

What movements are permitted at the vertebral column?

A

Flexion extension, lateral flexion (right or left side) and rotation.

43
Q

Why are the upper vertebrae not palpable through the skin?

A

They are behind the ligamentum nuchae.

44
Q

The surface projection of the C7 vertebrae is know by what name?

A

vertebra prominens.

45
Q

What is the thoracic inlet?

A

communication between the neck and thoracic cavity.

Bound by the first ribs, manubrium and first thoracic vertebra.

46
Q

What is the name of the wrist joint?

A

radiocarpal joint

47
Q

What is the joint where the clavicle articulates with the scapula?

A

Acromioclavicular joint.

48
Q

Which is anterior and which posterior acromion or coracoid process?

A

The coracoid process is anterior, the acromion posterior.

49
Q

what movements can occur at the scapula?

A

protraction (pulled forwards round the chest)

retraction (pulled backwards)

elevation

depression

rotation medially and laterally

50
Q

Is the fibula medial or lateral?

A

Lateral.

51
Q

What is the meaning of the terms; Prime mover, antagonist, synergist and fixator?

A

Prime mover - major responsibility for a particular movement

Antagonist - oppose the action of the prime mover.

Synergist - aids the action of the prime mover

Fixator - immobilises one or more bones

52
Q

What type of joint is the superior radio-ulnar joint?

A

A pivot joint (synovial)

53
Q

How many vertebrae lower does the spinal nerves emerge from it’s region in the spinal cord in each part of the vertebral column?

A

1 lower in cervical to around t10 and 2 lower after that.

54
Q

What joint links the tib/fib to the talus?

A

inferior tibiofibular joint (a fibrous syndesmoses joint)

55
Q

What do the transverse processes of the thoracic vertebrae articulate with?

A

The ribs

56
Q

What is the acetebular labrum?

A

The cartilage on the inside of the acetabulum.

57
Q

What are the menisci of the knee joint?

A

two cartilaginous pads that disperse friction in the knee joint.

58
Q

What are chondroblasts?

A

Cells that produce the Extracellular matrix of cartilage.

59
Q

What cells produce the ECM in bone?

A

Osteoblasts

60
Q

What is the inorganic component of bane made up of?

A

hydroxyapatite (a form of calcium phosphate).

61
Q

What is the organic component of bone made up of?

A

Type I collagen

62
Q

The two types of adult bone? Where are they located?

The features of each?

A

Compact bone - outer shell of long bones, and irregular shaped bones. Great resistance to forces placed on it.

Cancellous bone - found at the end of long bones. Is very porous and has arrays of struts called trabeculae.

63
Q

Basic mechanics of bones and joints? (what are they said to function as)

A

Bones - levers

Joints - fulcrums.

64
Q

What is superficial and deep fascia?

A

Both CT

Superficial - subcutaneous fatty layer under skin that gives the body it’s shape.

Deep - Thin layer of dense fibrous tissue that covers all skeletal muscle.

65
Q

The 4 muscles of the abdomen (right spelling)?

A

Rectus abdominis

external oblique

internal oblique

transversus abdominis.

66
Q

What is the line alba?

A

The fibrous structure that runs down the anterior aspect of the midline of the body

67
Q

What are the intrinsic muscles and the extrinsic muscles?

A

Intrinsic muscle are small muscles located in the hand itself

Extrinsic muscles are located in the forearm.

68
Q

What is the flexor retinaculum?

A

The band of connective tissue that hold the tendons of the extrinsic muscles of the forearm in place.

69
Q

What is the iliotibial tract?

A

Fibrous band on the lateral side of the thigh that attaches distally to the tibia, the gluteus maximus attaches to it.

70
Q

What is the tibial plateau, what is it’s function?

A

It is the large superior surface of the tibia.

It helps to support the weight of the body.

71
Q

Three main fibre types of CT?

A

Collagen, elastic, reticular.

72
Q

Two main types of collagen?

A

Finrillar

Non-fibrillar

73
Q

What are reticular fibres?

A

Fibres made from collagen type III, forms a mesh-like structure.

74
Q

Can both dense and loose CT be further classified by regular or irregular?

A

Only dense can.

75
Q

What are the three different relationships between the spinous processes and the spinal cord segments?

A

In Cervical the vertebral spines are one lower in number than spinal cord segments.

In upper thoracic the vertebral spines are two lower in number than the spinal cord segments.

In the lower thoracic region the vertebral spines are three lower in number than the spinal cord segment.

76
Q

Where would a lumbar puncture be performed, to collect CSF?

A

3rd and 4th lumbar vertebrae.

77
Q

Where is the T10 dermatome located?

A

Around the belly-button.

78
Q

What nerves form each of the somatic plexuses?

A

Cervical - C1-4

Brachial - C5-8

Lumbar - L1-L4

Sacral - L4 - S4

79
Q

At what spinal segment does the aorta divide?

A

L4

80
Q

Where does the femoral nerve pass from the lumbar plexus and what muscles does it innervate?

A

anteriorly to the thigh innervating the quadriceps.

81
Q

Where does the obturator nerve pass to the thigh?

A

Medially arising from the lumbar plexus.

82
Q

What is the segmental root value of the obturator and femoral nerves?

A

L2-L4.

83
Q

Where does the sciatic nerve pass to the thigh?

A

Posterior to the thigh, arising from the sacral plexus.

84
Q

What spinal nerves have to supply the chest wall due to the brachial plexus?

A

C4 and T2

85
Q

During development in which direction does the upper limb and lower limb rotate respectively?

A

Upper limb - rotates laterally

Lower limb - rotates medially

86
Q

Which cranial nerves and which sacral nerves are parasympathetic?

A

Cranial - III, VII, IX and X

Spinal nerves - S2-S4

87
Q

What is separation of the two hemispheres called, and the white matter that binds the two together?

A

The longitudinal fissure and the corpus callosum.

88
Q

What is a gyrus (gyri) and a sulus (sulci) in the brain?

A

Gyri are the Ridges (or hills) and sulci are like the valleys.

89
Q

four lobes of the brain and their responsibilities?

A

Occipital - visual processing.

Temporal lobe - memory.

Parietal - integration of sensory information.

Frontal lobe - motor control, emotions and decision making.

90
Q

What is and what is the function of the basal ganglia?

A

A collection of subcortical nuclei associated with movement control, pathology may result in excessive or reduced movement control.

91
Q

What is hydrocephalus?

A

Extra fluid in the ventricular spaces of the brain, can be pathological due to raised intracranial pressure.

92
Q

What is ataxia?

A

loss of motor coordination due to cerebellar dysfunction.

93
Q

What are the folia of the cerebellum?

A

shallow fissures.

94
Q

What is the dentate nucleus?

A

A prominent nucleus with an irregular border in the cerebellum.

Anatomy (5 decks)

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