Bar Prep Flashcards

Rules/Topics Missed on MEE Practice

You may prefer our related Brainscape-certified flashcards:
1
Q

Standard for JMOL/RJMOL

A

Standard for granting the motion is that reasonable people could not disagree on the result. Evidence is viewed in the light most favorable to the non-moving party. (Non genuine issue of fact)

RJMOL must be based on the same grounds as the JMOL.

Moved for at Trial, after the opposing party has been heard. Or after trial (up to 28 days from trial) (RJMOL).

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2
Q

Standard for Summary Judgement

A

The party moving for summary judgement must show that: there is no genuine dispute on a material fact; and she is entitled to judgement as a matter of law.

If a party supports the motion with an affidavit, the opposing party must counter, via an affidavit or other evidence, on the matter.

In reviewing the motion, the court views evidence in the light most favorable to the nonmoving party. Reviewing affidavits, declarations, depositions, and interrogatories. Generally, the court doesn’t review pleadings unless verified pleadings (rare).

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3
Q

Claim Preclusion STD

A

For claim preclusion to apply, (1) there must have been a valid, final judgement on the merits, (2) both parties must be the same (or privity with a party from the suit) (mean same configuration, not just same parties), and (3) the action must involved the same cause of action (same claim or same right to relief asserted) (must arise out of the same transaction or occurrence).

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4
Q

Issue Preclusion STD

A

For issue preclusion to apply, (1) the issues in both actions must be the same, (2) there must have been a final judgement as to that issue, (3) the party against whom collateral estoppel is asserted must have had a fair opportunity to be heard on the matter (full chance to litigate the issue), and (4) the posture of the case must be such that it would not be unfair or inequitable to apply collateral estoppel.

The issue must have been essential to the judgement of case 1, meaning the finding of the issue was the basis for the judgement.

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5
Q

PJ for a Corporation

A

Specific Juris: : Does the defendant have
such minimum contacts with the forum so jurisdiction does not offend traditional notions of fair play and substantial justice? (Contact, relatedness, and fairness)
General Juris: (1) The state in which it is incorporated; and (2) the state in which it has its principal place of business (“PPB”).

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6
Q

Citizen of a Corporation for SMJ

A

A corporation is a citizen of any state or country in which it is incorporated and of the one state or country in which it has its principal place of business (“PPB”). Although a corporation can be incorporated in more than one place, it is incredibly rare in real life and on the exam.

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7
Q

Limitations on removal

A

There are two limitations, though, to removing a case based solely on diversity of citizenship:
* The case should not be removed if any defendant is a citizen of the forum state (the “in-state defendant rule”); and
* The case should not be removed more than one year after the case was filed in state court.

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8
Q

Erie Doctrine

A

Approach an Erie question in this order:
Step 1. Ask: Is there some federal law on point that directly conflicts with state law? If so, apply the federal law, as long as it is valid. This is based on the Supremacy Clause. The FRCP are presumptively
valid and are OK if they are “arguably procedural.”
- Including Forum Selection Clauses
Step 2. If there is no federal law on point, the federal judge must apply state law if the issue to be decided is “substantive.” Issues that are always substantive: Conflict of law rules; elements of claim/defense; statute of lim, tolling statute of lim; standard for new trial based on excessive/inadequate damages.
Step 3. If there is no federal law on point and the issue is not one of the five just listed above, the federal judge must determine whether the issue is “substantive.” The law is very unclear,
consisting of some factors that no one knows how to weigh: Outcome Determinative? Balance of interests? Avoid Forum Shopping

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9
Q

Venue from Removal

A

The defendant removes to the federal district court “embracing” the state court where the case was filed. It does not matter if this venue would have been proper under the venue statutes.

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10
Q

Forum Selection Clauses

A

A forum selection clause (“FSC”) is a provision in which the parties agree that a dispute between them will be litigated in a particular place. If one party sues the other in violation of an FSC, the defendant may seek to enforce the FSC through a motion to transfer. Key points to remember are:
* In federal court, federal law governs transfer. So a federal court may enforce an FSC clause even though a state court in that forum state would not (if in state, state rules apply);
* When there is a valid FSC, only public interest factors are considered for transfer; and
* When transfer is to enforce an FSC, the transferee court will apply its own choice of law rules. The transfer does not carry the transferor court’s choice of law rules with it.

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11
Q

Transfer for Convenience (Proper Venue)

A

If the original district is a proper venue, that court can order transfer based on convenience of parties and witnesses and in the interests of justice. Because transfer overrides the plaintiff’s choice of forum and the plaintiff chose a proper venue, the burden is on the person seeking transfer (usually the defendant).
The court will consider both public and private factors showing that another court is the center of gravity for the case.
* Public: The court will consider things like what law applies, what community should be burdened with jury service, the desire to keep a local controversy in a local court.
* Private: The court considers convenience. For example, it will look to where the defendants and evidence are found.

Effect on Choice of Law When a diversity case is filed in a proper venue but the court orders transfer under statute #1, the transferee court must apply the choice of law rules of the transferor court (unless transfer is to give effect to a valid forum selection clause, as we will see below).

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12
Q

Transfer for Improper Venue

A

If the original district is an improper venue, the court may transfer in the interest of justice or dismiss. Usually, the court will transfer if possible. When the federal court transfers a diversity case because the original venue is improper, the transferee applies its own choice of law rules, that is, the choice of law rules of the state in which it sits, and not the choice of law rules of the transferor court. The plaintiff doesn’t benefit by filing in an improper forum.

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13
Q

Can you recover attorney’s fees/costs for a motion to compel discovery?

A

Yes, as long as the winning party made a good faith effort to meet & confer with the opposing party.

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14
Q

What is a necessary or indispensable party?

A

The case has been filed. Now the court might force some nonparty (“absentee”) to join in the case, usually on motion by the defendant.

There are three questions to ask:
* Is the absentee necessary (or “required”)?;
* If the absentee is necessary, can the absentee be joined?; and
* If the absentee can’t be joined, can the case proceed anyway?

What does “necessary” (or “required”) mean? It means that:
* Without the absentee, the court cannot accord complete relief among the existing parties (worried about multiple suits); or
* The absentee’s interest may be harmed if she is not joined; or
* The absentee claims an interest that subjects a party (usually the defendant) to a risk of multiple obligations.

The second is the most likely one that you’ll encounter on the exam. And note that joint tortfeasors are never necessary

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15
Q

What if you cannot join a necessary party?

A

What happens if the absentee cannot be joined (for example, there is no PJ over the absentee)? The court then must determine whether to proceed without the absentee or dismiss the entire case. How does the court make that decision? It looks at these factors:
* Is there an alternative forum available? (maybe some state court);
* What is the actual likelihood of harm to the absentee?; and
* Can the court shape relief to avoid that harm to the absentee?

So “necessary” is an odd label; don’t let that trip you up. You don’t necessarily need a necessary party’s presence to continue with the case. It’s just necessary to join him if feasible. But if the court decides to dismiss rather than proceed without the absentee, the absentee is called “indispensable.”

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16
Q

Interpleader STD

A

Rule 22 interpleader requires (1) complete diversity between the stakeholder and all adverse claimants and in excess of $75,000 in issue, or (2) a federal question claim. Normal service and venue rules apply.
Statutory interpleader requires only diversity between any two contending claimants and $500 be in issue. Service may be nationwide and venue is proper where any claimant resides.

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17
Q

Right to Jury Trial

A

The Seventh Amendment preserves the right to jury in “civil actions at law,” but not in suits at equity. The Seventh Amendment doesn’t apply in state court, only federal civil cases.
a. Mixed Suits of Law and Equity
What if a case includes both law and equity? Suppose a case includes a claim for damages (legal relief) and for an injunction (equitable relief). Facts underlying a damages claim will be tried to the jury. Facts relating wholly to an equity claim are tried to the judge. Generally, the jury issues will be tried first.
b. Same Fact Underlies Both Law and Equity Claim
But what if a fact (for example, whether the defendant trespassed on the plaintiff’s property) underlies both a claim for damages and a claim for an injunction? The jury will decide that fact.
c. Jury Demand
A party must demand the jury in writing no later than 14 days after service of the last pleading addressing a jury triable issue. If a party fails to do so, she waives the right to a jury. The last pleading addressing a jury issue is usually the answer.

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18
Q

Material Benefit Rule (Minority Rule)

A

Some courts will enforce a promise, even if no consideration, if: it is based on a material benefit that was previously conferred by the promisee on the promisor, and the promisee did not intend to confer the benefit as a gift. Second restatement, which follows this rule, also includes the limitation that the promise is unenforceable to the extent it is disproportionate to the benefit conferred.

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19
Q

Promissory Estoppel

A

If necessary to avoid injustice, a court will enforce a promise without consideration if:
- the promisor should have expected the promisee to change his position in reliance on the promise;
- the promisee did change his position; and
- the change in position was to the promisee’s detriment.

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20
Q

Restitution

A

When a contract is unenforceable or no contract between the parties exists, an action to recover restitutionary damages often is referred to as an action for an implied in law contract, an action in quasi-contract, or an action for quantum meruit.
Damages = Generally, the measure of restitution is the value of the benefit conferred

When a contract has been breached and the nonbreaching party hasn’t fully performed, they may choose to cancel the contract and sue for restitution to prevent unjust enrichment.
When No Contract Involved—Quasi-Contract Remedy
Restitution may also be available in a quasi-contract action when there is no contractual relationship between the parties if:
- The plaintiff has conferred a benefit on the defendant by rendering services or expending properties;
- The plaintiff conferred the benefit with the reasonable expectation of being compensated for its value;
- The defendant knew or had reason to know of the plaintiff’s expectation; AND
- The defendant would be unjustly enriched if they were allowed to retain the benefit without compensating the plaintiff.

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21
Q

Modification of a Contract

A

Under general contract law, a contract can’t be modified unless the modification is supported by new consideration.

The modern view, however, permits modification without consideration if: (1) the modification is due to circumstances that were unanticipated by the parties when the contract was made and (2) it is fair and equitable.

Under the UCC, consideration isn’t necessary to modify; all the parties need are
good faith promises of new and different terms.

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22
Q

Specific Intent Crimes

A

Students can always face a laugh, even for ridiculous bar facts.
Solicitation - Intent to have person solicited commit the crime
Conspiracy - Intent to have the crime committed
Attempt - Intent to complete the crime
Premeditated Murder - Premeditated Intent to kill
Assault - Intent to commit a battery
Larceny - Intent to permanently deprive from another
Embezzlement - Intent to defraud
False Pretenses - Intent to defraud
Robbery - Intent to permanently deprive from another
Burglary - Intent to commit a felony in the dwelling
Forgery - Intent to defraud

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23
Q

Additional Defenses only Available for Specific Intent Crimes

A

Voluntary Intoxication
Unreasonable Mistake of Fact

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24
Q

Defenses to Intent

A
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25
Q

Malice Intent

A

A reckless disregard of an obvious or high risk that the particular harmful result will occur.

26
Q

Model Penal Code Intent

A

Purposely - Conscious action to cause certain conduct or certain result
Knowingly - Knowingly with respect to the result of their conduct when they know that their conduct will necessarily or very likely cause a particular result.
Recklessly - Consciously disregard of a substantial and unjustifiable risk, and this disregard constitutes a gross deviation of the STD of care
Negligently - Fail to be aware of a substantial and unjustifiable risk, and such failure is a substantial deviation from the standard of care

27
Q

Accomplice Liability

A

An Accomplice is one who aids, advises, or encourages the principal in the commission of the crime

Requires Dual Intent - Intent to assist the principal & intent the principal commit the crime

When the crime requires recklessness or negligence, most jurisdictions require the accomplice to have: Intended to facilitate the commission of the crime; and acted with recklessness or negligence (respective to the crime).

28
Q

Common Law Murder

A

Murder is the unlawful killing of another with malice aforethought. Must be committed with one of the following states of mind:
- Intent to kill
- Intent to inflict great bodily injury
- Reckless indifference to an unjustifiably high risk to human life (“abandoned or malignant heart” or “depraved heart”)
- Intent to commit a felony

29
Q

Differences in Murder Degree

A

2nd = Intentional Killings that aren’t First degree or depraved heart murder
1st - Deliberate and premeditated murder & Felony Murder (Burglary, arson, rape, robbery, kidnapping)

30
Q

Manslaughter

A

Voluntary - Killing that would be murder but for the existence of adequate provocation, it isn’t.
Involuntary - Killing with criminal negligence (or recklessness under MPC) or during commission of an unlawful act (misdemeanor or felony not included within felony murder rule) (unlawful act is only in minority states)

31
Q

Larceny

A

A taking, and carrying away, of tangible property, of another, by trespass (without their consent), with intent to permanently deprive (at the time of the taking).

32
Q

Robbery

A

A taking of personal property of another from the others person, by force or threats of immediate death or physical injury, with the intent to permanently deprive.

33
Q

Burglary

A

A breaking and entry of a dwelling of another at nighttime with the intent to commit a felony in the structure. (Majority of states got rid of the dwelling and nighttime requirement) (some also extend to misdemeanor)

34
Q

Arson

A

The malicious (intentional or reckless disregard of an obvious risk) burning of the dwelling of another

Damage is required, scorching isn’t enough, charring is enough.

35
Q

Defenses

A

Insanity, Intoxication (Voluntary or Involuntary), Infancy (or diminished capacity in some states), self defenses, necessity, Mistake of fact, mistake of law, and entrapment

36
Q

Insanity Tests

A

M’Naughten rule - A disease of the mind caused a defect of reason such that the defendant lacked the ability at the time of their actions to either know the wrongfulness of their actions or understand the nature of their actions.
Irresistible Impulse Test - they were unable to control their actions or conform their conduct to the law
Durham test - Crime was a product of their mental illness
MPC - Lacked the substantial capacity to either: appreciate the criminality or conform their conduct to the requirements of law. (Basically a combo of M’Naghten/Impulse)

37
Q

STD for Motion for a new Trial

A

A party must move for a new trial within 28 days of the judgment. Some reasons a new trial may be granted are:
* The judge gave an erroneous jury instruction;
* New evidence was discovered that could not have been discovered before with due diligence;
* Misconduct was committed by a juror, party, or lawyer, etc.;
* The judgment is against weight of the evidence (serious error of judgment); and
* Damages are inadequate or excessive.

38
Q

Who is a merchant?

A

A merchant is one who regularly deals in the goods of the kind sold or who otherwise by his occupation holds himself out as having knowledge or skill peculiar to practices or good involved

39
Q

Can a firm off be supplied by the offeree?

A

Yes, if the promise to keep the offer open is on a form supplied by the offeree, it is only effective if it is signed separately by the offeror from the underlying offer.

40
Q

Requirements for creating a Joint Tenancy

A

At Common law, a conveyance to two or more persons satisfying the “four unities” of time, title, interest, and possession created a joint tenancy.

Modernly, a conveyance to two or more persons presumptively creates a tenancy in common; a joint tenancy results only when a right of survivorship is clearly expressed.

41
Q

Things that Sever a Joint Tenancy

A

1 - A voluntary conveyance by a joint tenant of their interest destroys the joint tenancy. The transferee takes as a tenant in common.
2 - Partition by agreement or judicial action (partition in kind or forced sale)
3 - Mortgages in a title theory state (a mortgage on the property requires the mortgagee to take title until paid back) (doesn’t sever in a lien jurisdiction as the mortgage is merely a lien on the property)

42
Q

Doctrine of Equitable Conversion

A

Once we have the enforceable contract in place, we move into the time between the signing of the contract and the closing (the escrow period). Under the doctrine of equitable conversion, once the contract is signed, equity regards the buyer as the owner of the real property. The contract conveys equitable title to the buyer. By contrast, at the closing, the deed conveys legal title to the buyer. The
right to possession rests with the party who holds legal title. Thus, seller is entitled to possession until closing.

What happens if one of the parties meets an unexpected end after the contract but before the closing? The interests of the departed party pass to their estate. So, because the buyer is deemed to own the property from the moment the contract is signed, a deceased buyer’s interest passes as real property to their estate. A deceased seller’s interest, the right to the purchase price, passes to their estate as personal property. The contract remains enforceable, with the deceased party’s estate taking the decedent’s place in the transaction.

43
Q

Common Law Involuntary Manslaughter

A

A killing is involuntary manslaughter if it was committed:
With criminal negligence (or by “recklessness” under the M.P.C.)
or
* In some states, during the commission of an unlawful act (misdemeanor or felony not included within felony murder rule).
Foreseeability of death also may be a requirement.

44
Q

Defamatory Speech

A

Defamatory statements can be subject to tort liability. If the defamatory statement is about a public official or public figure or involves a matter of public concern, the First Amendment requires the plaintiff to prove all the elements of defamation plus falsity and some degree
of fault in order to recover.

If the plaintiff is a public official or figure, then regardless of whether the defamation is on a matter of public or private concern, the degree of fault the plaintiff must show is actual malice (alleged defamatory statement was made with: Knowledge that it was false or Reckless disregard as to its truth or falsity

If the plaintiff is a private figure and the defamatory statement involves a matter of public concern, the plaintiff can only recover actual damages if the plaintiff only shows negligence. To recover
punitive damages or presumed damages they need to show actual malice.

Private Figure Suing on Matter of Private Concern
If the plaintiff is a private figure suing on a matter of private concern, then the First Amendment is not involved. These plaintiffs can recover for any damages that state law allows, even if they can’t show actual malice.

45
Q

Invasion of Privacy

A

Invasion of privacy includes publishing private info about a person that would be objectionable to a reasonable person.

Truth is not a defense.

If matter is of public concern, publication is privileged absent actual malice.
Especially true if published material was obtained legitimately.

46
Q

Prior Statement of Identification

A

A prior statement by a testifying witness who is subject to cross-examination is not hearsay if:
* The prior statement is one of identification of a person as someone the witness perceived earlier (even if the witness cannot remember making the identification);
* The prior statement is inconsistent with the declarant’s in-court testimony and was given under oath at a prior proceeding; or
* The prior statement is consistent with the declarant’s in-court testimony and is (1) offered to rebut a charge that the witness is lying or exaggerating because of some motive (and the statement was made before any motive to lie or exaggerate arose), or (2) offered to rehabilitate a witness whose credibility has been impeached on some other ground (other than a general attack on the witness’s character for truthfulness), such as an inconsistency or charge of faulty memory

47
Q

Extrinsic evidence - Impeachment

A

A witness may be impeached either by (1) cross-examination (eliciting facts from the witness that discredit their own testimony) or (2) extrinsic evidence (calling other witnesses or introducing documents that prove
the impeaching facts).

Extrinsic evidence can be introduced to prove a prior inconsistent statement only if, at some point:
* The witness is given an opportunity to explain or deny the statement; and
* The adverse party is given an opportunity to examine the witness about the statement

The majority rule is that before a witness can be impeached by extrinsic evidence of bias or interest, they must first be asked about the facts that show bias or interest on cross-examination

There is no foundation requirement for proving the sensory deficiency with extrinsic evidence

Contradictory Facts: If the witness sticks to their story, can use extrinsic evidence as long as its not collateral

A prior conviction is usually shown by either direct or cross-examination of the witness or by introducing a record of the judgment, although other methods of proof (such as testimony from witnesses)
may be permitted. No foundation is necessary

Extrinsic evidence of the bad acts is not permitted. In other words, this method of impeachment can be accomplished only by cross-examination of the witness. Additionally, the cross-examiner cannot refer to any consequences the witness may have suffered as a result of their bad act

48
Q

Unconstitutionally Overbroad

A

Regulation of speech will not be upheld if over broad: prohibiting substantially more speech than is necessary. If a regulation punishes a substantial amount of speech judged in relation to its legitimate sweep, it is facially invalid and cannot be enforced, even against not protected speech.

However, if a court narrows the interpretation, the regulation may survive and only be applied to the narrow interpretation.

49
Q

Unprotected Speech

A

Incitement of imminent lawless action

Fighting words - personally abusive communications that are likely to incite immediate physical retaliation.

50
Q

Republishing a Will

A

A codicil can amend/revise a will and republish it, but the previous will must have been executed to be republished.

51
Q

Requires to Incorporate by Reference in a Will/Codicil

A

Document can be incorporated by reference if: In existence when the new document is executed; sufficiently describes writing; and the new document manifests intent to incorporate by reference.

52
Q

Who is entitled to Stock Dividends/Splits?

A

Common law: specific bequest of stock includes splits but not dividends.
Most states/UPC: includes both (even if dividend is paid by additional shares)

53
Q

Can a unfunded trust be valid?

A

A unfunded trust can be valid when it is funded and intent to create the trust is remanifested. The trust is effective as of such day.

54
Q

What can a Will Pour-Over into?

A

An existing trust, trust created along with the will (testamentary trust), an unfunded trust, or an after created trust as long as it is established in the testator’s lifetime.

55
Q

Apparent Authority in Partnerships

A

The R.U.P.A. provides that a partner is an agent of the partnership,
and that a partner has apparent authority to bind the partnership to
transactions within the ordinary course of the partnership’s businessor business of the kind carried out by the partnership (unless the
third party is aware that the partner lacks actual authority to act).

Exam Tip
If a contract is outside the scope of partner-
ship business, the partnership generally will not be bound unless the
partner has actual authority.

56
Q

Challenging Discretionary Trust

A

Generally, a beneficiary cannot interfere with the exercise of the trustee’s discretion unless the trustee abuses her power. A court will not interfere unless the trustee has acted in bad faith or dishonesty.

57
Q

Unilateral termination of a trust

A

Generally, a beneficiary may only terminate a trust if all the beneficiaries consent and the modification will not interfere with the material purpose of the trust.

If the settlor joins, the material purpose is not considered.

58
Q

Priority in Accessions

A

Generally, reviewed as per the item not as the whole, item’s perfection controls.

However, for automobiles, perfection by title to the while beats out perfection as to the accession, even if acquired later.

59
Q

Corporate Exculpation Clauses

A

Corporate articles may limit or eliminate director’s personal liability for damages to shareholders or corporation for actions taken.

However, cannot exculpate when the director: received a benefit to which not entitled; intentionally harms to corp or shareholders; approved unlawful distributions; or intentionally committed a crime.

60
Q

Constitutionality of Service of Process

A

Service must be reasonably calculated to provide D with notice of action.