All MEE Subjects Flashcards

Terms/Rules from Smart Bar Prep Sheets (Only non-MBE subjects)

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1
Q

Creation of Agency Relationship

A

An agent is a person or entity that acts on behalf of another – the principal. Agency is a fiduciary relationship,
and exists if there is: (1) assent (a formal or informal
agreement between the principal and the agent); (2) benefit
(the agent’s conduct on behalf of the principal primarily
benefits the principal); AND (3) control (the principal has
the right to control the agent by being able to supervise the
agent’s performance – the degree of control does not need
to be significant).

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2
Q

Types of Agency Relationships

A

A universal
agent has broad authority to act on behalf of the principal,
and is authorized to perform ALL acts the principal is
allowed to perform. A general agent normally has authority
to conduct a series of transactions over a period of time for
a particular purpose, business, or operation (i.e. a manager
of a restaurant). A special agent has limited authority to
conduct: (a) a specific act/transaction; OR (b) certain
actions over a specified period of time.

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3
Q

Termination of Agency Relationship

A

An agency relationship terminates and the agent no longer has
authority to act if: (a) the principal or the agent manifests to
the other that the relationship is terminated; (b) a specified
term of the agent’s authority expired; (c) upon operation of
law by the death of the principal or agent; OR (d) upon
operation of law by the incapacity of the principal or agent
(except where a durable power of attorney exists).

Apparent authority continues until the principal communicates
the termination to third parties

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4
Q

When does an Agent have Actual Authority?

A

Actual authority
may be express or implied. Express authority occurs when
the principal has explicitly told the agent (either orally
or in writing) that he is entitled to act. Implied authority
occurs when either: (a) the agent believes he is entitled to
act because the action is necessary to carry out his express
authorized duties; (b) the agent has acted similarly in prior
dealings between the principal and agent; OR (c) it is
customary for agents in that position to act in that way.

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5
Q

When does an agent have Apparent Authority?

A

Apparent
authority exists when: (1) a third-party reasonably believes
that the person/entity has authority to act on behalf of the
principal; AND (2) that belief is traceable to the principal’s
manifestations (the principal holds the agent out as having
authority).
Apparent authority is NOT APPLICABLE
if the third-party has actual knowledge that the agent did
not have authority.

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6
Q

Unidentified/Partially Disclosed Principal

A

Apparent authority
MAY exist when the principal is partially disclosed or
unidentified (when the third-party knows the agent is acting
on behalf of a principal but does not know the identity of the
principal).

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7
Q

Undisclosed Principal:

A

Apparent authority CANNOT exist
when there is an undisclosed principal (when the third-party
does not know an agent is acting on behalf of a principal).

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8
Q

Ratification of Agent’s Contracts

A

A principal’s ratification of an agent’s conduct will make the
principal liable for those contracts entered into by an agent
without authority. Ratification occurs when the principal: (1)
has knowledge of all material facts or contract terms; AND
(2) thereafter manifests assent (approves) of the same
through words or conduct.

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9
Q

Agent’s Contractual Liability

A

Generally, an agent has NO contractual liability to a thirdparty
for a contracts entered into with that party if he: (1)
fully discloses the principal he is acting on behalf of (he
provides the name of the principal to the third-party); AND
(2) acts within the scope of his authority. Conversely,
an agent will be liable on the contract if his conduct was
unauthorized.

An authorized agent will be liable to the third-party on
a contract when the principal is undisclosed (when the
third-party does not know the agent is acting on behalf of a
principal).

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10
Q

Employee vs. Independent Contractor

A

An employee is an agent whom the employer controls
(or has the right to control) the manner and means of
the agent’s performance of work.
o An independent contractor is a person who contracts
with another to do something for him, but who is not
controlled nor subject to the other’s right to control
with respect to his performance. The contractor may
or may not be an agent.

The determination of whether a person is an employee or an
independent contractor centers on whether the principal had
the right to control the manner and method in which the job
is performed.

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11
Q

Respondeat Superior

A

Under the doctrine of respondeat superior, an employer is
vicariously liable for an employee’s negligent acts if the
employee was acting within the scope of employment.
* An employee acts within the scope of employment
when: (a) performing work assigned by the employer; OR
(b) engaging in a course of conduct subject to the employer’s
control.

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12
Q

Frolic vs Detour

A

Look at magnitude of detour

An employee’s act is NOT within the scope of employment
when: (1) it occurs within an independent course of
conduct; AND (2) it is not intended by the employee to serve
any purpose of the employer.

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13
Q

Employer’s Liability for Intentional Torts

A

An employee’s intentional torts are generally NOT
within the scope of employment UNLESS the act: (a) was
specifically authorized by the employer; (b) was driven
by a desire to serve the employer; OR (c) was the result of
naturally occurring friction from the type of employment

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14
Q

Employer Liability for its Employees (Outside Respondeat Superior)

A

In certain situations, an employer may still be liable even if
the doctrine of respondeat superior (an employer/employee
relationship and conduct within the scope of employment)
is inapplicable. Such situations include when: (a) the
employer intended the conduct or consequences; (b) the
employer was negligent or reckless in selecting, training,
retaining, supervising, or controlling the employee; (c) the
conduct involved an employer’s non-delegable duty to an
injured person that it had a special relationship with; OR
(d) when (i) the employee had apparent authority, (ii)
the agent’s appearance of authority enables the agent
to commit the tort, and (iii) the third-party relied on that
authority.

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15
Q

Vicarious Liability for Acts of Independent Contractors

A

Generally, a principal is NOT vicariously liable for the torts
of an independent contractor.
* However, several exceptions exist, and a principal will be
liable for torts committed by an independent contractor
if: (a) the independent contractor is engaged in an inherently
hazardous activity; (b) the duty owed by the principal is nondelegable
(i.e. the duty of care owed to an invitee); OR (c)
through the doctrine of estoppel when (i) the principal holds
the independent contractor out as his agent to a third-party,
(ii) the third-party reasonably relied on the care and skill of
the agent, and (iii) the third-party suffered harm as a result of
the agent’s lack of care or skill.

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16
Q

Fiduciary Duties Owed by the Agent to the Principal

A

An agent owes the principal the following fiduciary duties
concerning matters within the scope of agency: (1) Duty of
Care – to use reasonable care when performing the agent’s
duties; (2) Duty of Loyalty – to act solely and loyally for
the principal’s benefit; AND (3) Duty of Obedience – to
obey all reasonable directions given by the principal and to
act in accordance with the express or implied terms of the
relationship.

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17
Q

Creation of a General Partnership

A

A General Partnership is created when (1) two or more
persons, (2) as co-owners, (3) carry on a business for
profit. No written agreement or formalities are required. A
person’s intent to form a partnership or be partners is NOT
required.

A person who receives a share of the profits of the partnership
business is presumed to be a partner of the business
UNLESS the profits were received in payment: (a) of
a debt; (b) for wages as an employee or independent
contractor; (c) of rent; (d) of an annuity or other retirement
benefit; (e) of interest/loan charges; OR (f) for the sale of
the goodwill of a business.

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18
Q

Formation of a Limited Partnership (LP)

A

A Limited Partnership is a partnership composed of
general and limited partners, and MUST have at least
one general partner. It is formed upon the filing of a
Certificate of Limited Partnership with the Secretary of
State that includes: (1) the name of the partnership; (2) the
address of the partnership; (3) name and address of each
partner; (4) whether the partnership is a Limited Liability
Partnership; AND (5) it must be signed by a general partner.

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19
Q

Formation of a Limited Liability Partnership (LLP)

A

A Limited Liability Partnership (LLP) is one in which all
partners have limited personal liability. Any partnership may
become an LLP upon: (1) approval by the same vote that is
necessary to amend the partnership agreement; AND (2)
by filing a Statement of Qualification with the Secretary of
State. Unless otherwise agreed, a unanimous vote is required
to amend a partnership agreement.

The filing of a Statement of Qualification DOES NOT
create a new partnership

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20
Q

Authority to Bind the Partnership

A

Each partner is an agent of the partnership, and generally
has authority to bind the partnership for the purpose of its
business

A partner has express actual authority to bind the
partnership upon receiving said authority from the
partners. Acts within the ordinary course of the partnership
business need only be approved by a majority of the
partners. Acts outside the ordinary course of business must
be approved unanimously.

A partner has implied actual authority (also known as
incidental authority) to take actions that are reasonably
incidental or necessary to achieve the partner’s authorized
duties.

A partner has apparent authority to bind the partnership
for all acts apparently conducted within the ordinary course
of the partnership business OR the kind carried on by the
partnership.

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21
Q

Authority to Bind a Partnership After Dissolution

A

After dissolution, a partner’s actual authority to bind the
partnership is limited only to those acts appropriate for
winding up the partnership business. However, a partner
has apparent authority to bind the partnership even after
dissolution if: (1) the partner’s acts would have normally
bound the partnership; AND (2) the third-party did not have
notice of the dissolution.

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22
Q

Personal Liability of General Partners & Judgment Enforcement

A

Personal Liability: General Partners are personally liable
for ALL obligations of the partnership UNLESS otherwise
agreed by the claimant or provided by law.
o Under the Uniform Partnership Act (1997), general
partners are jointly and severally liable for partnership
obligations

Incoming partners admitted into an
existing partnership are NOT liable for obligations incurred
prior to their admission, even if the incoming partner has
notice of a claim.

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23
Q

Personal Liability of Limited Partners

A

Generally, limited partners are NOT personally liable for
obligations of the Limited Partnership (LP).
a limited partner MAY become personally liable if
that partner participates in the management or control of
the business.

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24
Q

Personal Liability of Limited Liability Partners

A

An obligation incurred by a Limited Liability Partnership
(LLP) is solely the obligation of the LLP. Under RUPA,
a partner in an LLP is NOT liable for partnership
obligations

However, certain exceptions to this rule exist. First, partners
are ALWAYS liable for their own misconduct or when
they sign a personal guarantee for the obligation. Second,
even if a partner is not personally liable for the debts of the
partnership, he is at risk of losing any capital contributions
he made to it. Third, obligations incurred before a
partnership becomes an LLP are treated as obligations of the
prior partnership entity

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25
Q

Rights of Partners Among Themselves

A

Sharing of Profits and Losses
* Unless otherwise agreed, profits are shared equally between
partners, and losses will be shared in the same ratio as
profits.
Right to Management & Control
* Unless otherwise agreed, each partner has equal rights in
the management and control of the partnership business
Transfer of Ownership Interest in a Partnership
* A partner can only transfer: (1) his interest in the share
of the profits and losses; AND (2) his right to receive
distributions.
Right to Partnership Property
* A partnership is a distinct legal entity from its partners. All
property acquired by a partnership OR with partnership
assets is owned by the partnership
Remuneration (Payment for Partner’s Services)
* A partner is NOT entitled to remuneration (payment) for
services performed for the partnership UNLESS: (a) there is
an agreement to the contrary; OR (b) it is for the reasonable
compensation of services rendered in winding up the
business of the partnership

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26
Q

Special Rules of Limited Partnerships

A

Management & Control in a Limited Partnership
* A Limited Partnership (LP) is composed of general and
limited partners. General partners of a LP have full
management rights and control the partnership business to
the exclusion of the limited partners. Limited partners have
NO say or control as to how the partnership is run, and they
DO NOT have the right to manage or control the day-to-day
business of the partnership.

Limited Partner’s Right to Inspect Records
* Under RULPA, a limited partner has the right during normal
business hours to inspect and copy any information that
the Limited Partnership (LP) is legally required to keep

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27
Q

Duties Owed by Partners

A

Duty of Care
* A partner owes the fiduciary duty of care to the partnership
and the other partners, but this duty is limited. Under the
RUPA, a partner is only in breach of the duty of care when
he engages in: (a) grossly negligent or reckless conduct; (b)
intentional misconduct; OR (c) a knowing violation
of law.

Duty of Loyalty
* Partners owe the fiduciary duty of loyalty to the partnership
and the other partners, which requires partners to act in the
best interests of the partnership.

Duty to Provide Full Information
* Under the Uniform Partnership Act (UPA), partners
shall render, on demand by any partner, the true and full
information of all things affecting the partnership.

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28
Q

Dissociation (Withdraw of a Partner)

A

A partner becomes dissociated from the partnership upon:
(1) notice of the partner’s express will to withdraw; (2)
occurrence of an agreed upon event in the partnership
agreement; (3) expulsion pursuant to the partnership
agreement; (4) expulsion by the unanimous vote of the
other partners if it’s (a) unlawful to carry on the partnership
business with that partner, or (b) there has been a transfer
of all or substantially all of that partner’s transferable
interest in the partnership (other than a transfer for security
purposes); (5) judicial expulsion; (6) bankruptcy; (7)
incapacity or death; (8) appointment of a personal
representative or receiver; OR (9) termination of an entity
partner

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29
Q

Dissolution of a General Partnership

A

Unless there is an agreement to the contrary, dissolution
occurs upon: (a) notice of the partner’s express will to
withdraw; (b) an event agreed to in the partnership
agreement; (c) an event that makes it unlawful for all or
substantially all of the business to continue; (d) judicial
dissolution on application of a partner that (i) the economic
purpose of the partnership is likely to be unreasonably
frustrated, (ii) another partner has engaged in conduct making
it not reasonably practicable to carry on the business with that
partner, or (iii) it is not reasonably practicable to carry on the
business in conformity with the partnership agreement; OR
(e) judicial dissolution on application of a transferee

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30
Q

Dissolution of a Limited Partnership

A

A non-judicial dissolution of a Limited Partnership (LP)
occurs upon: (a) the happening of an event specified in
the partnership agreement; (b) the consent of all general
partners and of limited partners owning a majority of the
rights to receive distributions; (c) after the dissociation of a
general partner either (i) upon consent of partners owning
a majority of the rights to receive distributions as partners
(if the LP has at least one remaining general partner), or (ii)
the passage of 90 days after the dissociation if the LP does
not have a remaining general partner (unless the LP admits
at least one general partner); (d) 90 days after dissociation
of the last limited partner, unless the LP admits at least
one limited partner; OR (e) the filing of a declaration
of administrative dissolution by the Secretary of State
for the partnership’s failure to pay fees or abide by filing
requirements.

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31
Q

Winding Up & Termination of the Partnership

A

During the winding up process, partnership assets
are converted to cash and then distributed in the
following order: (1) creditors; (2) partners’ capital
contributions; and (3) profits to be distributed among the
partners.

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32
Q

Formation of a Corporation (Articles of Incorporation)

A

Under the RMBCA, a corporation’s existence begins on the
date the Articles of Incorporation are filed with the Secretary
of State, UNLESS a delayed effective date is specified. The
RMBCA DOES NOT allow for an earlier effective date to
be specified because a corporation CANNOT exist until the
Articles of Incorporation are properly filed.
* The Articles of Incorporation MUST contain: (1) the
corporate name; (2) the number of shares the corporation
is authorized to issue; (3) the address of the corporation’s
initial registered office and the name of its initial registered
agent at that office; AND (4) the name and address of each
incorporator.

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33
Q

Corporate Bylaws (Formation)

A

The Bylaws are the rules and regulations adopted by the
Board of Directors that govern the internal operations and
management of a corporation, including the roles and duties
of directors and officers. Under the RMBCA, the Bylaws
may contain any provision that is NOT inconsistent
with: (a) the Articles of Incorporation; OR (b) the law of the
jurisdiction.
* When there is a conflict between the Articles of
Incorporation and the Bylaws, the Articles of Incorporation
control.

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34
Q

Amending the Bylaws

A

The Bylaws may be amended or repealed by
shareholders. In addition, the Board of Directors may
also amend or repeal the bylaws UNLESS: (a) the Articles
of Incorporation exclusively reserves the power to the
shareholders; OR (b) the shareholders, in amending/
adopting/repealing a bylaw, expressly provide that the Board
of Directors cannot amend/repeal/reinstate that bylaw.

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35
Q

Powers of a Corporation

A

Under the RMBCA (and most states), a corporation has
the power to do all things necessary or convenient to
carry out its business and affairs

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36
Q

Formation of an LLC

A

Generally, a Limited Liability Company (LLC) is formed
when: (1) the Articles of Organization (a.k.a. Certificate of
Formation) is properly filed with the Secretary of State; AND
(2) the company has at least one member.

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37
Q

Liability of Promoter for Pre-Incorporation Contracts

A

A promoter is a person who acts on behalf of a corporation
that has not yet been formed. Under the RMBCA, a person is
personally liable for any liabilities arising from their conduct
when (1) he purports to act as or on behalf of a corporation,
(2) knowing that no corporation was formed (actual
knowledge is required). If multiple promoters are liable, then
each will be jointly and severally liable. A promoter remains
personally liable for pre-incorporation contracts even if
the corporation subsequently adopts the contract. In such a
situation, both the corporation and the promoter are liable.
* However, a promoter will NOT be liable if: (a) there is a
subsequent novation (an agreement by all parties to substitute
the corporation for the promoter and to relieve the promoter
of the contractual obligation); OR (b) the contract explicitly
provides that the promoter has no personal liability on the
contract.

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38
Q

Liability of Corporation for Pre-Incorporation Contracts

A

A corporation is NOT liable on pre-incorporation contracts
entered into by a promoter UNLESS the corporation expressly
or impliedly adopts the contract post-incorporation. A
corporation may expressly adopt a pre-incorporation
contract (i.e. by Board of Director action or by reference in
the corporation’s formation documents). Implied adoption
occurs when the corporation: (1) has reason to know or
knows the material terms of the contract; AND (2) accepts
some benefit from the contract.

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39
Q

Defective Incorporation & Owner Liability

A

If corporate formation is defective, then the owners may
be subject to personal liability for contracts or obligations
under general partnership principles (since the owners are
personally liable for ALL obligations of the partnership). If
there is only one owner, similar personal liability would arise
under sole-proprietorship principles.

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40
Q

De Facto Corp

A

Under the De Facto Corporation doctrine, a
defective corporation enjoys the same benefits
and powers of a properly formed corporation –
including limited liability. A de facto corporation
exists where the entity: (1) made a good faith
attempt to incorporate; (2) is otherwise eligible to
incorporate; AND (3) took some action indicating
that it considered itself a corporation. HOWEVER,
only a person who was unaware that the corporation
was not properly formed may assert the de facto
corporation doctrine.

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41
Q

Incorporation by Estoppel

A

any person or entity that treated a business as a
corporation may be estopped from denying that the
business is corporation, even if a valid corporation
was NOT formed. The doctrine of incorporation
by estoppel applies to BOTH: (a) third-parties that
treated the business as a corporation; and (b) an entity
that held itself out as a corporation and benefited from
that claim. HOWEVER, the incorporation by estoppel
doctrine DOES NOT apply to tort actions.

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42
Q

Personal Liability & Piercing the Veil

A

Generally, shareholders, directors, and officers are NOT
personally liable for the liabilities and obligations of the
corporation. However, courts may disregard the corporate
form and hold individual corporate shareholders, directors,
and officers personally liable for actions taken on behalf of
the corporate entity.

A court will pierce the corporate veil
and hold the shareholders personally liable in the following
situations: (1) the corporation is acting as the alter ego of the shareholders – where there is little or no separation between
the shareholder and the corporation (i.e. where an individual
utilizes the corporate form for personal reasons); (2) where
the shareholders failed to follow corporate formalities; (3)
the corporation was inadequately capitalized at its inception
to cover debts and prospective liabilities; OR (4) to prevent
fraud.

Courts will generally apply the same factors above to
pierce the veil of a Limited Liability Company and hold
members or managers personally liable, BUT the failure to
follow formalities is not a ground for piercing the LLC veil.

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43
Q

Corporate Finance (Common/Preferred Shares)

A

All shares within a class or series
must have the same rights, privileges, restrictions, and
responsibilities.

Common Shares provide shareholders with
voting rights, although they are the last in priority to be
entitled to a distribution of company assets.

Preferred Shares are generally entitled to be paid out from company assets upon dissolution before shareholders
with common shares. However, Preferred Shares usually do
not carry voting rights.

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44
Q

Corporate Finance (Authorized, Outstanding, & Reacquired Shares)

A

Authorized shares are the maximum number of shares
a corporation may issue, as set forth in the Articles of
Incorporation
Outstanding shares are the total number of shares issued
by the corporation and held by the shareholders
Reacquired shares by the corporation (also called treasury
shares) are considered authorized shares, but are not
outstanding shares of the corporation. These reacquired
shares are NOT allowed to be voted at a shareholders
meeting.

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45
Q

Corporate Finance (Dividends/Distributions)

A

Decisions to declare dividends or make distributions to
shareholders are within the discretion of the Board of
Directors, and are normally protected under the business
judgment rule. Only the Board of Directors have the power
to issue dividends (an Officer cannot). Once a distribution
is declared, the shareholder affected has a legal right to that
distribution.

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46
Q

Shareholder Meetings: Proxy Voting & Revocation of a Proxy

A

Under the RMBCA, a shareholder may vote her shares at
a shareholders meeting without physically attending the
meeting through the use of a proxy. A valid proxy must be
signed on: (a) an appointment form; OR (b) an electronic
transmission. An oral proxy appointment is invalid. A proxy
MUST be accepted if on its face there are no reasonable
grounds to deny its genuineness and authenticity.
Proxy agreements are freely revocable by the shareholder,
even if the proxy states that it is irrevocable (any
action inconsistent with the grant of the proxy acts as a
revocation). One exception to this rule is a proxy coupled
with an interest or legal right, which is irrevocable if the
proxy expressly states as such.

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46
Q

Shareholder Meetings: Right to Vote & Record Date

A

Only shareholders that are registered shareholders on record
date are entitled to vote at a shareholders meeting. Thus, the
owner of shares on the record date is entitled to vote those
shares at the upcoming shareholders meeting even if he sells
the shares before the meeting occurs (the transferee is not
entitled to vote).

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47
Q

Shareholder Meetings: Annual Meetings, Special
Meetings, & Notice

A

Annual Meetings: A corporation shall hold an annual
meeting of the shareholders at a date/time stated in the
bylaws.
Special Meetings: A special meeting is one held separate
from the annual meeting, and may be called by: (a) the Board
of Directors; (b) persons authorized under the Articles of
Incorporation or Bylaws; OR (c) by the holders of at least
10% of all votes entitled to be cast at the meeting.
special meeting requires proper notice to the
shareholders who are entitled to vote. Notice
MUST: (1) be given at least 10 days in advance of
the meeting (but not more than 60 days); (2) include a
full description of the purpose of the meeting; AND
(3) include the date, time, and place
shareholder may waive notice by: (a) delivering a signed
writing to the corporation; OR (b) attending the meeting
and not objecting at the beginning of the meeting

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48
Q

Shareholder Meetings: Quorum & Voting

A

quorum MUST be present in order for the shareholders to
take action at a meeting. Unless the Articles of Incorporation
provide a greater number, a quorum exists when a majority
of the shares entitled to vote are present.
action on a matter (other than the election
of directors) is approved if a majority of votes are cast in
favor of the action UNLESS the articles of incorporation
require a greater number of votes. Each outstanding share is
entitled to one vote

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49
Q

Shareholder Meetings: Election of Directors

A

Under the RMBCA (and most states), the candidates who
receive the most votes (a plurality vote) will be elected
as Directors at a shareholders meeting where a quorum is
present, even if the Director(s) do not receive a majority of the
votes.

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50
Q

Shareholder’s Right to Inspect Books and Records

A

Right to inspect: if: (1) the inspection is made during regular business hours
at the corporation’s principal office; (2) he provides 5-days
written notice; (3) the demand is made in good faith and
for a proper purpose; (4) he describes the purpose with
particularity; AND (5) the records are directly connected
with the purpose.

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51
Q

Board of Directors Meeting: Quorum

A

Under the RMBCA, the Board of Directors can only act if a
quorum is present. A majority of the Board of Directors is
necessary to make a quorum, UNLESS there are provisions
in the Articles of Incorporation stating that a higher or lower
number is required. However, the Articles of Incorporation
MUST require that at least one-third of the directors be
present to make a quorum.

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52
Q

Board of Directors Meeting: Voting & Objection to Actions

A

If a quorum of the Board of Directors is present when a vote
is taken at a meeting, an act is approved by the affirmative
vote of a majority of directors present UNLESS the Articles
of Incorporation or bylaws require a greater number.

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53
Q

Board of Directors Meeting: Notice & Waiver

A

Unless the Articles of Incorporation
provide otherwise, regular meetings may be held without
notice, whereas special meetings require at least two days’
notice.

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54
Q

Board Action by Written Consent

A

Generally, the Board of Directors can only take action at a
meeting. However (unless the Articles of Incorporation or
bylaws provide otherwise), action may be taken without a
meeting by the Board of Directors if: (1) each director signs a consent describing the action to be taken; AND (2) delivers
it to the corporation

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55
Q

Removal of Directors

A

Under the RMBCA (and most states), shareholders may
remove Directors with or without cause UNLESS the
Articles of Incorporation only allow removal for cause. At
common law, Directors could only be removed for
cause.

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56
Q

Authority of Officers

A

The Board of Directors may elect individuals as Officers
(i.e. President, Vice-President, Secretary) to manage the dayto-
day business of the corporation. (General Authority Rules Apply)

The President of a corporation generally has implied
authority to bind the corporation for matters within its
ordinary course of business, BUT DOES NOT have authority
to bind the corporation for extraordinary acts.

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57
Q

Removal of Officers

A

An Officer may be removed at any time with or without
cause by: (a) the Board of Directors; (b) the Officer who
appointed such Officer, unless the Bylaws or the Board of
Directors provide otherwise; OR (c) any other Officer, if
authorized by the Bylaws or the Board of Directors.

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58
Q

Management of an LLC

A

Under RULLCA, an LLC is presumed to be membermanaged
UNLESS the Operating Agreement provides
otherwise.
A manager-managed LLC is run by an elected group of
managers, who manage the business similarly to a board
of directors.

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59
Q

Authority of Members and Managers of an LLC

A

Under RULLCA and general agency principles, each
member or manager of an LLC generally has authority
to bind the LLC for the purpose of its business (including
entering into contracts).

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60
Q

Preemptive Rights (Close Corps)

A

A preemptive right is the right of an existing shareholder
to maintain her percentage of ownership in the corporation
by being offered the opportunity to purchase shares of the
corporation issued for cash before outsiders are permitted to
purchase them.

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61
Q

Restrictions on Share Transfers

A

Under the RMBCA, the Articles of Incorporation, bylaws,
and shareholder agreements may impose restrictions on
the transfer of shares of the corporation for: (a) any
reasonable purpose; (b) to preserve exemptions under
federal or state securities law; OR (c) to maintain the
corporation’s status when it is dependent on the number or
identity of its shareholders. An absolute restraint on the
transfer of shares is invalid. A restriction DOES NOT affect
shares issued before the restriction was adopted UNLESS the
holders of the shares are parties to the restriction agreement or
voted in favor of it.

Under the RMBCA, the following restrictions are expressly
allowed: (1) a right of first refusal (the shareholder must
first offer the corporation or other shareholders an opportunity
to buy the shares); (2) the obligation of the corporation
or other persons to acquire the shares; (3) to require the
corporation or certain shareholders/persons to approve the
transfer of shares, if not manifestly unreasonable; and (4)
to prohibit the transfer to designated persons or classes of
persons, if not manifestly unreasonable.

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62
Q

Business Judgment Rule

A

Directors must
discharge their duties: (1) in good faith; (2) in a manner the
Director reasonably believes to be in the best interests of
the corporation; AND (3) with the care that a person in a
like position would reasonably believe appropriate under
similar circumstances.

However, the Business Judgment Rule DOES NOT
apply or protect Directors: (i) financially interested in a
transaction (a conflict of interest); (ii) not acting in good
faith; OR (iii) who engaged in fraud or illegality.

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63
Q

Fiduciary Duties of Shareholders

A

Generally, shareholders DO NOT owe fiduciary duties to
fellow shareholders, and they can act in their own selfinterest.
However, courts have found that controlling
shareholders in close-corporations owe a fiduciary duty
of loyalty and good faith and fair dealing to minority
shareholders

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64
Q

Restricting/Eliminating Fiduciary Duties in a Corporation

A

Under the RMBCA, the Articles of Incorporation may
eliminate or limit the personal liability of a director for any
action taken or not taken EXCEPT for: (a) financial benefits
improperly received; (b) intentional infliction of harm on
the corporation or its shareholders; (c) unlawful corporate
distributions; or (d) an intentional violation of criminal law

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65
Q

Direct Action by Shareholder

A

shareholder may
bring a direct action against a director or officer, but MUST
prove an actual injury that is NOT solely the result of an
injury suffered by the corporation (i.e. an action to compel
divided). Similarly, a member of an LLC may bring a
direct action against another member, a manager, or the
LLC, and MUST prove an actual/threatened injury that is
not solely the result of an injury suffered by the LLC.

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66
Q

Derivative Action by Shareholder

A

derivative action, a shareholder is suing to enforce the
corporation’s claim, not his own personal claim. The suit
must be one in which the corporation could have brought
itself, and has harmed the corporation in some way

To commence or maintain a derivative suit under the
RMBCA, the plaintiff-shareholder must meet the
following requirements: (1) be a shareholder at the time of
the act or omission or became a shareholder by operation of
law from such a shareholder; (2) be a shareholder through
entry of judgment; (3) he must fairly and adequately
represent the interests of the corporation; AND (4) he must
make a written demand upon the corporation to take suitable
action.
o A derivative suit CANNOT be commenced until
90 days after a written demand

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67
Q

Derivative Actions: Dismissal by the Board of Directors

A

a derivative proceeding MUST be
dismissed by the court on motion by the corporation if (1) a
majority of the board’s qualified directors (directors who do
not have a material interest in the derivative action), (2) have
determined in good faith, (3) after conducting a reasonable
inquiry, (4) that the derivative proceeding is not in the best
interests of the corporation.

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68
Q

Derivative Action by LLC

A

the
elements are the same (as those above) for a corporation
EXCEPT: (1) the action may be brought within a
reasonable time after the demand; and (2) the demand
requirement may be waived if the demand is deemed
futile.

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69
Q

Federal Securities Law – Rule 10b-5

A

Rule 10b-5 prohibits the use of any means or
instrumentality of interstate commerce in any scheme to
defraud, make material misrepresentations or omissions,
or in any other way to use fraud in the purchase or sale of
securities.
In order for a plaintiff to prevail under a Rule 10b-5 claim, he
must show that: (1) the defendant engaged in a fraudulent
scheme or device; (2) which was relied upon; (3) in
connection with the purchase or sale of a security; (4)
acted with scienter (actual knowledge or recklessness); (5)
used some means of interstate commerce; AND (6) caused
damages.

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70
Q

Amending the Articles of Incorporation

A

Articles of Incorporation may
be amended at any time, BUT ONLY IF the following
procedures are followed: (1) adoption by the Board of
Directors; (2) notice to each shareholder (whether or not
entitled to vote) of a meeting to vote on the amendment –
the notice must (a) state that a purpose of the meeting is
to consider the amendment, and (b) provide a copy of the
proposed amendment; (3) adoption by the shareholders by
a majority vote

However, there are two exceptions to the above rule:
o First, the Board of Directors have the authority to
make general minor amendments to the Articles
without shareholder approval.
o Second, the Board of Directors (or its incorporators
if it has no board of directors) may adopt any
amendment to the Articles of Incorporation without
shareholder approval if a corporation has not yet
issued shares.

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71
Q

Mergers and Share Exchanges

A

the approval of a merger requires:
(1) approval by the Board of Directors of both
corporations; AND (2) shareholder approval of both
corporations by a majority vote (unless a greater number is
required by state law or the Articles of Incorporation).
* Shareholder approval by the surviving corporation is
NOT required for a merger if: (1) the corporation’s Articles
of Incorporation will not be changed; (2) the shareholders’
number of outstanding shares will not change; AND (3) the
voting power of any shares issued as a result of the merger is
20% or less of the voting power of the surviving corporation

short form merger occurs when a parent corporation
merges with its own subsidiary corporation. If the parent
corporation owns at least 90 percent of a subsidiary’s
outstanding (voting) shares, then only the Board of
Directors of the parent corporation has to approve the
merger

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72
Q

Sale of All or Substantially All of Corporate Assets

A

sale of all or substantially all of the corporation’s assets is
deemed a fundamental change if the sale is NOT in the usual
and regular course of business.

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73
Q

Dissenter’s Appraisal Rights for Fundamental Changes

A

A dissenting shareholder is entitled to appraisal rights, and to
obtain payment of the fair market value of his shares, for the
following fundamental changes: (1) when the shareholder
has the right to vote on the merger plan; (2) when he is a
shareholder of the subsidiary in a short form merger; (3)
when he is a shareholder of a corporation whose shares
are being acquired in a share exchange; (4) when the
shareholder has the right to vote on the distribution of all or
substantially all of the corporate assets; and (5) when an
amendment to the Articles of Incorporation materially and
adversely affects the shareholder’s rights.
o Appraisal rights are NOT available to shareholders
of publicly traded companies.

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74
Q

Judicial Dissolution of a Corporation

A

Under the RMBCA, a shareholder may petition the court
to dissolve the corporation if he can show: (a) a deadlock
of the Directors in the management of corporate affairs and
irreparable injury to the corporation; (b) the Directors
have acted in a manner that is illegal, oppressive, or
fraudulent; (c) the shareholders are deadlocked in voting
power and have failed to elect Directors for at least two
consecutive annual meetings; OR (d) the corporate assets
have been wasted or misapplied.

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75
Q

Voluntary Dissolution of a Corporation

A

Under the RMBCA, a corporation’s Board of Directors
may propose dissolution to the shareholders. The following
procedure MUST be followed by the corporation for the
proposal to be adopted: (1) adoption by the Board of
Directors; (2) notice to each shareholder (whether or not
entitled to vote) of a meeting to vote on the proposal – the
notice must state the purpose of the meeting; AND (3)
adoption by the shareholders by a majority vote (unless a
greater amount is required in the Articles of Incorporation or
state law).

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76
Q

Dissociation of a Member from an LLC

A

Under RULLCA, a person has the power to dissociate as a
member of the LLC at any time (rightfully or wrongfully).
* A member becomes dissociated from the LLC upon: (1)
notice of the member’s express will to withdraw; (2)
occurrence of an agreed upon event in the Operating
Agreement; (3) expulsion pursuant to the Operating
Agreement; (4) expulsion by the unanimous vote of the
other members; (5)
by judicial order for misconduct; (6) bankruptcy; (7)
incapacity or death; (8) appointment of a personal
representative or receiver; OR (9) termination of the
entity member

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77
Q

Dissolution & Winding Up of an LLC

A

Under RULLCA, an LLC is dissolved upon: (a) the
occurrence of an event in the Operating Agreement causing
dissolution; (b) the consent of all members; (c) the passage
of 90 consecutive days during which the LLC has no
members; or (d) judicial dissolution of the LLC.
* A court may grant judicial dissolution of an LLC upon an
application by a member

If proper
dissolution and winding up procedures are NOT followed,
then a creditor’s claim may be enforced against: (1) the
dissolved LLC; and (2) the members personally if the assets

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78
Q

Choice of Law Theories: Traditional Vested Rights Approach

A

Under the traditional vested rights approach, the law of
the state in which the transaction or event occurred is
applied (i.e. the place of the wrong or injury, where the
contract was formed or is to be performed, or where the
real property is located).

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79
Q

Choice of Law Theories: Most Significant Relationship Approach

A

Under the Restatement (Second) of Conflict of Laws, the
laws of the state having the most significant relationship
to the transaction and the parties will govern the
action. Under this approach, courts consider various
factors dependent on the type of action (i.e. torts)
to determine the state that has the most significant
relationship to the action.

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80
Q

Choice of Law Theories: Interest Analysis Approach

A

Under the governmental interest analysis approach,
the court weighs the interests of the states
involved. Specifically, the court (i) examines the
connections that each state has to the parties and the events of the litigation, (ii) analyzes the difference
between the state laws, (iii) pinpoints the underlying
policies behind those state laws, and (iv) then applies the
facts to the law to determine which state has a greater
interest in having its law applied.

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81
Q

Choice of Law Rules: Torts

A

Use three Main theories, depending on question. Traditional vested rights, most significant relationship, or government interest analysis approach.

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82
Q

Contractual Choice of Law Provision

A

Parties to a contract are free to choose a particular
state’s law to be applied for matters of contract
construction.
o For matters of contract validity, the parties may
only choose which state’s law applies if: (1) the
state has some connection with the contract; (2)
the contract has not been entered into under
fraud, duress, or mistake; AND (3) the choice of
law isn’t contrary to a substantial policy interest
of another state that has more of a significant
interest in the matter.

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83
Q

No Valid Choice of Law Provision

A

If a valid choice of
law provision is NOT applicable to a contract action,
then the choice of law must be analyzed under one of the
choice of law theories.

Traditional Vested includes both where it was formed/performed

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84
Q

Choice of Law Rules: Contractual Forum-Selection Clause

A

Generally, a court will enforce a contractual forumselection
clause to transfer venue UNLESS special
factors are present (i.e. significant/unusual hardships
or inequality of bargaining power). Additionally, the
Supreme Court has held that a forum-selection clause
is an important factor favoring a change of venue, even
if the forum-selection clause is unenforceable under the
applicable state law.

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85
Q

Choice of Law Rules: Premarital Agreements

A

In determining the enforceability of a premarital
agreement, states apply the law of either: (a) the state
where the agreement was executed; OR (b) the state
having the most significant relationship to the transaction
and the parties.
* Most states apply the Most Significant Relationship
Approach, where the laws of the state having the most
significant relationship to the transaction and parties
will govern.

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86
Q

Choice of Law Rules: Real Property Cases

A

In cases involving the title to real property or a contract
for the sale of real property, the laws of the state where
the real property is located will generally govern (known
as the situs rule), as states have a strong interest in actions
that affect real property located within their state.

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87
Q

Choice of Law Rules: Inheritance of Real & Personal Property

A

Inheritance of Real Property: Under the Restatement
(Second) of Conflict of Laws, the law of the state
where the real property is located (the situs) governs
its disposition under intestacy or under a last will and
testament.
o In a will, a decedent may designate a particular
state’s law to be applied for matters of
construction, BUT the validity and effect of a
will is always determined by the law of the situs
state.
* Inheritance of Personal Property: The law of the
decedent’s domicile state at the time of death governs
the disposition of decedent’s personal property. Domicile
is determined by a person’s: (1) residence (physical
presence in the state); AND (2) subjective intent to make
the state their permanent home.

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88
Q

Erie doctrine

A

Under the Erie
doctrine, a federal court sitting in diversity will apply
its own federal procedural laws, but must apply state
substantive law.

Since choice of law rules are considered substantive
law, a federal court sitting in diversity MUST apply
the forum state’s choice of law rules to determine the
applicable substantive law in the action

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89
Q

Law Applied by State Courts: Substance vs. Procedure

A

A state court will apply the law of the forum state to
procedural issues
For substantive issues, the choice of law rules of the
forum state determine which state’s substantive law is
applied.

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90
Q

Full Faith and Credit

A

A judgment is entitled to full faith and credit when: (1)
the rendering court had jurisdiction (both personal and
subject matter jurisdiction); (2) the case was decided on
the merits; AND (3) the judgment was final.
o Under the doctrine of comity, courts may, but
are not required, to give full faith and credit to
judgments from foreign countries

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91
Q

Full Faith and Credit: Ceremonial & Common Law Marriage

A

The validity of a marriage will be determined by the law
of the state that has the most significant relationship to
the spouses. A marriage that is valid where formed
is valid everywhere, UNLESS it (1) violates the strong
public policy of another state that (2) has the most
significant relationship to the spouses and the marriage.
* Most states will honor a valid common law marriage
established in another state

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92
Q

Full Faith and Credit: Family Law Judgments

A

A divorce (whether ex parte or bilateral) validly
granted in another state is entitled to full faith and
credit in all other states. An ex parte divorce (a divorce
action where only one of the spouses is before the court)
may be maintained without personal jurisdiction over the
absentee spouse when the plaintiff-spouse is a domiciliary
of the rendering state.

In a matrimonial action involving economic or child
custody/support issues (alimony, property distribution,
child support and custody) the court MUST have personal
jurisdiction over the defendant-spouse for the judgment
to be entitled to full faith and credit in other states

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93
Q

Marriage Requirements (State of Mind & Procedural)

A

A valid marriage requires: (1) consent from both parties; (2)
a marriage license; AND (3) that the marriage is solemnized
in a ceremony by a judicial officer or church.
* Courts interpret the consent requirement differently. Some
courts find consent if the parties participate in a marriage
ceremony and sought some benefits of marriage. While
other courts find consent only if the parties consented to the
obligations of marriage.

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94
Q

Common Law Marriage

A

common
law marriage generally requires that the spouses: (1) live
together for a specified amount of time; (2) be legally
able to marry; (3) have a present agreement that the two
parties are married; AND (4) hold themselves out as being
married. Once formed, a common law marriage can only be
dissolved through divorce or annulment.

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95
Q

Bigamous Marriage

A

A person CANNOT be married to more than one person
at the same time

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96
Q

Premarital Agreements: Enforceability

A

Generally,
such agreements are enforceable UNLESS procured by fraud,
duress, or coercion.
* Under the Uniform Premarital Agreement Act (UPAA), a
premarital agreement MUST be: (1) in writing; AND (2)
signed by both parties.
a premarital agreement is
NOT ENFORCEABLE if the spouse against
whom enforcement is sought proves that: (a) the
agreement was made involuntarily; OR (b) it was
unconscionable when executed and before execution
the spouse was (i) not provided fair disclosure of
the property and financial obligations of the other
spouse; (ii) did not waive disclosure in writing; and
(iii) did not have (or reasonably could

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97
Q

Premarital Agreements: Child Custody & Support

A

Provisions in a marital agreement regarding child support
or child custody are NOT binding on a court, and any
provision that adversely affects a child’s right to support is
unenforceable.

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98
Q

Premarital Agreements: Spousal Support

A

Under the Uniform Premarital Agreement Act (UPAA),
modification or elimination of spousal support by a premarital
agreement is permitted, BUT such provisions will
NOT be enforced if doing so would make the spouse eligible
for public support

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99
Q

Premarital Agreements: Eliminating Fundamental Marital
Duties & Allocating Financial Responsibilities

A

Spouses may agree to any matter (including their personal
rights and obligations) that is NOT in violation of (a) public
policy, or (b) criminal law.

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100
Q

Rights & Responsibilities of Spouses: Married Women’s
Property Acts

A

Under the common law, a woman would lose all of her
property rights upon marriage. However, ALL states have
abolished such laws. Under the Married Women’s Property
Act, a woman retains full rights to her property after
marriage.

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101
Q

Rights & Responsibilities of Spouses: Payment for Necessities

A

In most states, spouses are liable to a creditor who has
provided necessities to the other spouse

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102
Q

Jurisdiction: Marital/Divorce & Support Actions

A

State courts have subject matter jurisdiction over marital
actions (divorce, annulment, child custody and support,
spousal support).
An ex parte divorce (a divorce action where only one of
the spouses is before the court) may be maintained without
personal jurisdiction over the absentee spouse, if the plaintiffspouse
is a domiciliary of the rendering state.

In a matrimonial action involving economic or child
custody/support issues (i.e. alimony, property distribution,
child support and custody) the court MUST have personal
jurisdiction over the defendant-spouse, in order for the
judgment to be entitled to full faith and credit.

A divisible divorce allows one party to terminate the
marriage in one proceeding and reserve other issues
(i.e. property division and spousal support) for a later
proceeding.

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103
Q

Jurisdiction: Child Custody & Adoption Matters

A

In a matrimonial action involving child custody issues, the
court MUST have personal jurisdiction over the defendantspouse
in order for the judgment to be entitled to full faith and
credit.

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104
Q

Parental Kidnapping Prevention Act (PKPA)

A

a court may decide custody only if it exercises one of the
following:
o Home State Jurisdiction: When it is the child’s home
state or where the child lived with a parent for at
least 6 months immediately before the custody action
was filed.
o Significant Connection Jurisdiction: When (1) there
is no home state; AND (2) the child and at least
one parent have a significant connection with the
state. Substantial evidence in the state must exist
concerning the child’s care, protection, training, and
personal relationships.
o Emergency Jurisdiction: When the child (1) is
physically present in the state; AND (2) has been
abandoned or it’s necessary in an emergency to
protect the child.
o More Appropriate Forum Jurisdiction: When no
other state has home state, significant connection,
continuing, or emergency jurisdiction.

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105
Q

Uniform Child Custody Jurisdiction and Enforcement
Act (UCCJEA)

A

UCCJEA provides that a court has jurisdiction
when: (a) there is no home state; OR (b) the home state has
declined to exercise jurisdiction because the current state is
the more appropriate forum.

All else, same as PKPA

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106
Q

Annulment

A

An annulment invalidates a marriage, which treats
the marriage as if it did not happen. For a court to
grant an annulment, a spouse must establish one of the
following grounds: (a) lack of capacity (fraud, duress,
mental incapacity); (b) bigamy (one spouse is already
married); (c) consanguinity (marriage between close family
members); OR (d) a spouse who is underage at the time of
marriage (the marriage is voidable by the underage spouse).

An annulment by wrongfully obtaining consent to marry by
fraud exists when (1) a spouse made misrepresentations
prior to the marriage concerning an essential and vital part
of the marriage, AND (2) had the other spouse been made
aware of this, the marriage would not have been consented
to.

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107
Q

Divorce Grounds

A

In most states, there are five grounds for divorce: (1) cruel
and inhuman treatment; (2) adultery; (3) abandonment
for a set amount of time (set by statute); (4) habitual drug
addiction or drunkenness; and (5) a “no-fault” divorce
(irretrievable breakdown).

To procure a “no-fault” divorce, a party MUST show that (1)
the relationship between the spouses has irretrievably broken
down, (2) for set amount of time depending on the state’s
statute (i.e. at least 6 months).

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108
Q

Setting Aside Separation & Divorce Settlement Agreements

A

A separation agreement is invalid if it: (a) is
unconscionable; OR (b) was the result of fraud.
* A divorce settlement agreement may be set aside if it is: (1)
substantially unfair; AND (2) the result of fraud by the
spouse or mediator misconduct.
* A settlement agreement may be set aside for mediator
misconduct, including the mediator’s failure to: (a) be
impartial; (b) disclose conflicts; OR (c) fully inform the
participants about the law and their rights.

109
Q

Separate property

A

includes (a) property and assets acquired
by each individual spouse before marriage, (b) gifts and
bequests to each spouse as an individual during marriage, (c)
property which the spouses agree will be separate property,
and (d) passive appreciation of assets in any of the above
categories. Passive appreciation is appreciation in value due
merely to the passage of time, and not to the efforts of either
spouse.

110
Q

Marital property

A

includes all other property acquired during
the marriage, regardless of whose name is on the title of the
property. In most states, marital property also includes the
active appreciation of separate property. Active appreciation
includes appreciation caused by the effort of one or both
spouses. Future expectancies (even contingent expectancies)
created during the marriage are still deemed to be marital
property, even if payment will not be received until after the
marriage ends.

111
Q

Division of Property: Professional License or Degree

A

In most states professional degrees or licenses are
NOT deemed marital property subject to equitable
division.

A minority of states consider professional degrees or licenses
to be marital property subject to division at divorce

112
Q

Division of Property: Marital & Economic Fault

A

In most states, the marital fault of either party (i.e. adultery)
is irrelevant to distributions of marital property. However,
most courts will consider the economic misconduct
(i.e. dissipation of assets) of a spouse when dividing property,
even in a “no fault” jurisdiction. Dissipation of assets occurs
when, during the breakdown of the marriage, a spouse uses
marital property for the sole benefit of himself for a purpose
unrelated to the marriage.

113
Q

Division of Property: No Termination Upon Death

A

court ordered award for division of property DOES
NOT terminate upon the death of the obligor spouse. Such
obligations may be enforced against the deceased spouse’s
estate.

114
Q

Modification of a Property Division Award

A

A property division award CANNOT be modified, unless
exceptional circumstances exist

115
Q

Spousal Support: When Support May be Awarded,
Amount, & Termination

A

Upon divorce, one spouse may be court ordered to provide
spousal support (also referred to as maintenance or alimony)
to maintain the former spouse’s standard of living and limit
any unfair economic effects of a divorce.

116
Q

Spousal Support (Uniform Marriage and Divorce Act (UMDA))

A

the court may order maintenance (spousal support) for
either spouse only if it finds that the spouse seeking
maintenance: (1) lacks sufficient property to provide for her/
his reasonable needs; AND (2) is either unable to support
herself/himself through employment or is the custodian of
a child whose condition or circumstances make it so that the
custodian cannot seek employment.

117
Q

Spousal Support: Reinstatement of Prior Award

A

Most courts will NOT reinstate prior alimony awards
that were terminated by an annulled marriage under
the “no-revival” approach, especially if the person
seeking reinstatement was the one who obtained the
annulment.

118
Q

Child Support Guidelines

A

biological parent is legally
responsible for a child whether or not the child was
intended or wanted by the parent. Federal law requires that
states provide child support guidelines that: (1) take into
consideration all earnings and income of the non-custodial
parent; AND (2) are based on specific descriptive and
numeric criteria to compute the support obligation

119
Q

College or Educational Expenses

A

Some states require
support for continuing education. In such states, a child may
lose the right to payments if the child DOES NOT follow the
obligor parent’s reasonable instructions

120
Q

Modification & Enforcement of Child/Spousal Support Orders

A

In most states, a child or spousal support order CAN
ONLY be modified when there is a substantial change in
circumstances of either the payor or payee spouse making the
prior order unreasonable

Uniform Marriage and Divorce Act (UMDA),
modification of child/spousal support orders is more
stringent, and is allowed only upon a showing of changed
circumstances so substantial and continuing as to make the
terms unconscionable.

Uniform Interstate Family Support Act (UIFSA),
states must give full faith and credit to child/spousal support
orders of other states.

121
Q

Child Custody: Best Interests of the Child Standard

A

Courts determine child custody under the Best Interests
of the Child Standard. This is a broad standard that gives
great discretion to the court.

122
Q

Child Custody: Parent vs. Third-Party Custody

A

When determining child custody between a parent and a
third-party, it is presumed that custody with the parent is
in the best interests of the child. Some states permit this
presumption to be rebutted by showing that custody with
the parent would be detrimental to the child. Since parental
rights are constitutionally protected, courts MUST give great
weight to a parent’s determination of what is best for the
child.

123
Q

Child Custody: Joint Custody

A

Joint custody is usually an option only for parents who can
cooperate, since it could be harmful to the child if the parents
are hostile.

124
Q

Child Custody: Presumption of Parental Fitness

A

Parents (biological or legal) are presumed that they are fit
to care for their children. However, this presumption may
be rebutted by clear and convincing evidence of conduct
endangering the child

125
Q

Visitation: Parental Visitation Rights

A

parent not granted custody of the child is ENTITLED to
reasonable visitation rights. The court cannot prevent or
reduce visitation UNLESS the court finds (after a hearing)
that visitation would seriously endanger the child’s physical,
mental, moral, or emotional health

126
Q

Visitation: Third-Party Visitation Rights

A

Parental rights are constitutionally protected. Thus, courts
MUST give great weight to a parent’s determination of what
is best for the child.

some states permit third-party visitation
with those who have a substantial relationship with the child
(i.e. a de facto parent) when it’s in the best interests of the
child. HOWEVER, a third-party must: (1) overcome the
presumption that the parent is acting in the best interests of the
child; AND (2) show that denial of visitation poses a risk of
harm to the child.

127
Q

Child Custody: Relocation of the Custodial Parent & Child

A

court will permit a custodial parent to relocate with the child
if the relocation is: (1) made in good faith; AND (2) is in the
best interests of the child.

128
Q

Modification of a Child Custody Order

A

A child custody determination may be modified only if there
is a substantial change in circumstances. Some states
prevent modification within a certain time of the initial
determination. In other states, a non-marital cohabitant is a
change sufficient for a modification. It is important to note that
custody determinations CANNOT be retroactively modified

129
Q

Division of Property of Unmarried Cohabitants

A

The party who has title to the property retains sole ownership
of the property UNLESS the other party claims ownership
under a contract theory or equitable remedy theory (resulting
trust, constructive trust, quantum meruit).

A resulting trust is available if property is titled in one party’s
name, but another party gave money to acquire the property
with the intent to have ownership of it. A constructive trust
is available if one party obtained title to property through
wrongful conduct. Quantum meruit is available if one
party was unjustly enriched by the services provided by
another.

130
Q

Agreements Between Unmarried Cohabitants

A

An agreement for the division of property between
unmarried cohabitants may be express or implied. An
express agreement (oral or written) between unmarried
cohabitants is enforceable as long as it was not based on
sexual relations. An implied agreement is also enforceable,
but is generally more difficult to prove. A court may find an
implied-in-fact contract regarding the division of property if
the parties comingled funds during the relationship

131
Q

Putative Spouse Doctrine

A

protects the financial and property interests of a person who
(1) entered into a void or voidable marriage, (2) believing in
good faith that the marriage was valid

the putative spouse is entitled to the
same marital property rights as a legal spouse

132
Q

Establishing Paternity, Presumption of Legitimacy, & Paternity
by Estoppel

A

In most jurisdictions, there is a presumption that a child born
during marriage is considered a marital child and is the
child of the husband. This presumption can be rebutted by
proof of the husband’s infertility or his lack of access to his
wife.

133
Q

Doctrine of Paternity by Estoppel

A

if a
man who is not the biological father has (1) held himself out
as the father, and (2) paid support, then he will be estopped
from denying paternity.

134
Q

Unmarried Biological Father’s Rights

A

An unmarried biological father’s right to a relationship with
his child is protected under the Due Process Clause only if
the father: (1) has assumed parental responsibilities; AND
(2) has established a substantial parental-child relationship
(the stronger the relationship, the stronger the constitutional
protections).

135
Q

Right to Control the Child’s Upbringing

A

A parent’s right to control their child’s upbringing and
education is a fundamental right and courts will NOT
interfere with the exercise of this right (especially if both
parents live together), UNLESS the well-being of the child is
endangered.

136
Q

Intra-Family Lawsuits & Immunities

A

today most
states have abolished intra-family immunity, and permit
lawsuits between spouses and between a parent and child.

137
Q

Loss of Consortium Claims

A

A claim for loss of consortium is generally only available to
married couples, and is intended to compensate a spouse for
loss of the other spouse’s companionship, sexual relations,
and affection.

138
Q

Adoption & Parental Consent

A

In most states, biological
parents lose the right to visit their child after adoption. Some
states do not terminate a child’s inheritance rights if the child
was adopted by a blood relative.

Generally, the consent of BOTH parents is required to place
a child up for adoption. However, where the child is nonmarital,
consent of the biological father is only required
when he has assumed parental responsibility.

139
Q

Adoption: Visitation for Biological Parents

A

Most states will NOT allow visitation for biological parents
because it would interfere with the adoptive parents’ rights
and conflict with the purpose of adoption

140
Q

Artificial Insemination & In Vitro Fertilization

A

Artificial Insemination is the introduction of sperm into a
female’s uterus for the purpose of achieving a pregnancy by
means other than sexual intercourse. In Vitro Fertilization is
the process of fertilization by combining an egg and sperm in
a laboratory, and transferring it to the female’s uterus.

141
Q

Surrogacy Arrangements

A

Surrogacy is when a woman agrees to carry a pregnancy
for another person or couple, who will become the newborn
child’s parent(s) after birth.
* In the states that allow surrogacy agreements, a court will
only enforce the agreement under certain conditions, such
as prior approval by the court. In some states, surrogacy
contracts are not permitted, as against public policy.

142
Q

What governs Secured Transactions?

A

Article 9 of the Uniform Commercial Code (UCC) governs
any transaction regardless of its form that creates a
security interest, including security interests in personal
property, consignments, a sale of accounts, chattel paper, and
promissory notes.

143
Q

Scope of Article 9 of the UCC: Substance Over Form Controls

A

Article 9 of the Uniform Commercial Code (UCC) governs
any transaction regardless of its form that creates a security
interest. Substance over form controls, and how the parties
classify the transaction is immaterial

Lease vs. Security Interest: A transaction labeled as a
“lease” may be deemed a security interest. Courts will
consider the economic realities of the transaction, NOT the
intent of the parties.

144
Q

Types of Collateral: Accounts

A

An “account” is a right to payment of a monetary obligation
(whether or not earned by performance) for any of the
following: (1) property that has been or is to be sold,
leased, or otherwise disposed of; (2) services rendered; (3)
a policy of insurance issued; (4) a secondary obligation
incurred; (5) energy provided; (6) the use or hire of a vessel
under a charter or other contract; (7) a debt arising out of the
use of a credit card; OR (8) winnings in a lottery or other
game of chance sponsored by a State

145
Q

Types of Collateral: Deposit Accounts

A

A “deposit account” is a demand, time, savings, or similar
account maintained with a bank. This DOES NOT
include investment property or accounts evidenced by an
instrument. A deposit account can only be perfected by
control.

146
Q

Types of Collateral: Inventory

A

“Inventory” means goods that: (a) are leased by a person
as lessor; (b) are held by a person for sale/lease or to
be given under a contract of service; (c) are given by a
person under a contract of service; OR (d) consist of raw
materials, work in process, or materials used or consumed in
a business. Inventory DOES NOT include farm products or
goods that are only being held for repair.

147
Q

Types of Collateral: Equipment

A

“Equipment” consists of goods other than inventory, farm
products, or consumer goods. “Goods” means all things that
are movable when a security interest attaches, including
fixtures, timber, the unborn young of animals, crops, and
manufactured homes.

148
Q

Types of Collateral: Consumer Goods

A

“Consumer goods” are those used or purchased primarily for
personal, family, or household purposes

149
Q

Types of Collateral: Proceeds

A

“Proceeds” refer to the following property: (1) anything
acquired upon the sale, lease, or other disposition of
collateral; (2) anything collected/distributed on account
of collateral; (3) rights arising out of collateral; (4) claims
arising out of the loss, nonconformity, defect, or interference
with the use of collateral (but only to the extent of the value
of collateral); OR (5) insurance payable by reason of the
loss/nonconformity, defects, or damage to the collateral (but
only to the extent of the value of collateral and to the extent
payable to the debtor or the secured party).

150
Q

Types of Collateral: Chattel Paper

A

Chattel paper is a record (or records) that evidences
both: (1) a monetary obligation; AND (2) either (a) a
security interest in specific goods, (b) a lease of specific
goods, or (c) a security interest in specific goods with
software or a software license used in the goods.
* A monetary obligation is an obligation to pay money that
is (a) secured by the goods, or (b) owed under a lease of
the goods

151
Q

Attachment and Perfection

A

Under Article 9 of the UCC, a creditor may properly obtain a
security interest in collateral as a means to secure a loan given
to a debtor. To obtain a valid security interest in collateral,
the creditor MUST: (1) attach the collateral; AND (2)
perfect its interest. Attachment secures the creditor’s rights
in the debtor’s collateral, while perfection gives notice of the
creditor’s rights in the collateral to other parties who may
have claims to the same. A security interest CANNOT be
perfected, unless it has first attached.

152
Q

Attachment requires

A

(1) that the creditor extend value to
the debtor; (2) the debtor must have rights in the collateral;
AND (3) one of the following:
o (a) an authenticated record/security agreement
memorializing the security interest;
 The record/security agreement must (i)
be authenticated by the debtor and (ii)
reasonably identify the collateral. A supergeneric
description of the collateral (i.e.
“all the debtor’s assets” or “all the debtor’s
personal property”) is not sufficient.
o (b) the collateral is in the secured party’s possession
pursuant to a security agreement;
o (c) the collateral is a certificated security in registered
form and the security certificate has been delivered
to the secured party pursuant to a security agreement;
OR
o (d) the secured party has control of certain types of
collateral (deposit accounts, electronic chattel paper,
investment property, or letter-of-credit rights) pursuant
to a security agreement.

153
Q

Perfection is obtained

A

by the creditor filing a
financing statement with the Secretary of State that identifies
the collateral and his security interest in it. Perfection may
also be obtained by taking possession or control of the
collateral that is providing the security interest. Consumer
“purchase money security interests” are automatically
perfected (filing a financing statement is not required).

154
Q

Financing Statements

A

An effective financing statement must: (1) provide the name
of the debtor and secured party; (2) indicate the collateral
covered by the financing statement; AND (3) be filed by a
person authorized by the debtor in an authenticated record,
security agreement, or upon acquisition of the collateral

155
Q

No Interest Retained in a Payment Right Sold & Rights/Title
with Respect to Creditors and Purchasers

A

A debtor that has sold an account, chattel paper, payment
intangible, or promissory note DOES NOT retain an interest
in the collateral sold. HOWEVER, when determining the
rights of creditors or purchasers of an account or chattel
paper sold by a debtor, the debtor is deemed to have rights
in such collateral while the buyer’s security interest is
unperfected.

156
Q

Purchase Money Security Interests (PMSI’s)

A

When a creditor extends value to the debtor for the purpose
of enabling the debtor to acquire rights in the collateral, a
purchase money security interest (PMSI) arises.
* PMSI’s in consumer goods enjoy automatic perfection
under Article 9 of the UCC, and the creditor need not file a
financing statement to perfect his PMSI with respect to the
debtor. The UCC gives special protection to PMSI holders in
an effort to encourage lending to consumers.

157
Q

Automatic Perfection for Certain Assignment of Accounts

A

Under Article 9 of the UCC, a security interest is
automatically perfected upon attachment of an assignment
of accounts if it does not transfer a significant part of the
outstanding accounts of the assignor

158
Q

Security Interest in the Sale of Collateral & Identifiable Proceeds

A

Generally, a security interest will continue despite any sale,
lease, or other disposition of the collateral, UNLESS the
secured party authorizes the disposition free of the security
interest.
* A perfected security interest will attach to any identifiable
proceeds from the disposition of collateral.

159
Q

Consignment

A

Under UCC Article 9, a consignment is a transaction in
which: (1) a person delivers goods to a merchant for the
purpose of sale; (2) the merchant deals in goods of that
kind, is not an auctioneer, and is generally not known by his
creditors to be substantially engaged in selling the goods
of others; (3) the aggregate value of the goods is $1,000
or more at the time of each delivery; (4) the goods are not
consumer goods immediately before delivery; AND (5) the
transaction does not create a security interest.

160
Q

Control of a Deposit Account

A

deposit account can only be perfected by control. A
secured party has “control” of a deposit account if: (a)
the secured party is the bank where the deposit account is
maintained; (b) the debtor, secured party, and bank have
agreed in an authenticated record that the bank will comply
with the secured party’s instructions for deposits without
further consent by the debtor; OR (c) the secured party
becomes the bank’s customer with respect to the deposit
account.

161
Q

Future Advances

A

A security agreement may provide that the collateral secures
future advances (or that accounts are sold in connection
with), whether or not the advances are mandatory.

162
Q

Transfers of Collateral & The Shelter Principle

A

A buyer receives ALL of the rights the seller had upon
transfer of the goods, including all ownership or enforcement
rights (except that a purchaser of a limited interest acquires
rights only to the extent of the interest purchased).
* Thus, a seller who did not have title to goods, cannot transfer
title to the buyer (unless an exception applies, such as a buyer
in the ordinary course of business).
* Under the Shelter Principle, if a buyer acquires property free
of a security interest, then any subsequent transfer by the
buyer to someone else is also free of the security interest.

163
Q

Buyers in the Ordinary Course of Business

A

Buyers in the ordinary course of business take free of a
security interest created by the seller

buyer in ordinary course of business is a person that: (1)
buys goods in good faith; (2) without knowledge that the
sale violates the rights of another person in the goods; AND
(3) in the ordinary course from a merchant (a person in the
business of selling goods of that kind).

164
Q

Consumer-to-Consumer Rule

A

buyers of consumer
goods take free of a security interest if the goods are
bought: (1) without knowledge of the security interest; (2)
for value; (3) from a consumer who purchased the goods
primarily for personal, family, or household purposes; AND
(4) before the filing of a financing statement covering the
goods.

165
Q

Priority for Perfected Interests & Unperfected Inter

A

security interest has priority over a conflicting unperfected
security interest in the same collateral.
* Unperfected Interest vs. Unperfected Interest: When there
are two competing unperfected security interests, the first to
attach will prevail.
* Perfected Interest vs. Perfected Interest: The rule of “first
in time, first in right” controls, which means that the first
creditor to perfect by filing has priority. Under Article 9 of
the UCC, a creditor generally achieves priority by perfecting
his security interest before another party. Perfection
involves: (1) giving value; AND (2) recording or putting
other creditors on notice of the security interest by
filing. Therefore, filing is a key element to perfecting the
security interest.
* PMSI vs. Perfected/Unperfected Interest: A purchase money
security interest (PMSI) in consumer goods enjoys automatic
perfection under Article 9 of the UCC (the creditor doesn’t
need to file a financing statement to perfect the interest).
As such, a PMSI in consumer goods takes priority over
another perfected or unperfected interest.

166
Q

Priority of Liens Arising by Law

A

possessory lien on goods has priority over a security
interest in the goods UNLESS the lien is created by a statute
that expressly provides otherwise. A possessory lien is
an interest (other than a security interest) that: (1) secures
payment or performance of an obligation for services or
materials furnished by a person in the ordinary course of the
person’s business; (2) is created by statute or rule of law in
favor of the person; AND (3) whose effectiveness depends on
the person’s possession of the goods.

167
Q

Priority of Judgment Lien Creditors

A

Judgment lien creditors have priority over conflicting security
interests if the person became a lien creditor before the
conflicting security interest was perfected

168
Q

Fixtures

A

An ownership interest in real property has priority over
conflicting security interests in fixtures.
Exception # 1: A perfected purchase money security
interest
Exception # 2: A fixture filing

169
Q

Accessions & Commingling

A

Accessions are goods that are physically united with
other goods, but continue to retain their separate
identity. Generally, the security interest in the separate goods
continues in the accession collateral.

Commingling: When an accession is the result of two goods
that are subject to different security interests, the general
rules of priority determine which interest will continue in
the accession. An exception applies for security interests
perfected by compliance with the requirements of a
certificate-of-title statute

170
Q

Secured Party’s Right to Take Possession of Collateral

A

After default, a secured party may: (1) take possession of
the collateral; AND (2) without removal, render equipment
unusable and dispose of collateral on a debtor’s premises.
* The secured party may proceed either pursuant to: (a)
judicial process; OR (b) without judicial process (if it
proceeds without a breach of the peace). To determine
whether repossession was peaceful courts examine: (i)
where the repossession took place; (ii) who was present; and
(iii) whether any protests were made.

171
Q

Secured Party’s Right to Dispose of Collateral

A

After default, a secured party may sell, lease, license, or
otherwise dispose of any or all of the collateral in its present
condition or in any commercially reasonable manner. A
debtor is liable to the extent that the proceeds from the
disposition are not sufficient to satisfy the debt owed.
* Notice: A secured party that disposes of collateral MUST
send an authenticated notification of the disposition to
the debtor and any secondary obligor.
Disposition at Foreclosure Sale: The disposition of collateral
at a foreclosure sale: (1) transfers all of the debtor’s rights
in the collateral to a transferee for value; (2) discharges
the security interest; AND (3) discharges any subordinate
security interests
Commercially Reasonable Sale: Every aspect of a disposition
of collateral, including the method, manner, time, place, and
other terms MUST be commercially reasonable
Secured Party’s Purchase of Collateral: Unless agreed
otherwise, a secured party may purchase the collateral at: (a)
a public sale; OR (b) a private sale only if the collateral is
(i) of a kind that is customarily sold on a recognized market,
or (ii) the subject of widely distributed standard price
quotations.

172
Q

Right to Collect Directly from an Account Debtor

A

A secured party has the right to collect a debt directly from
an account debtor (which is a person obligated on an account,
chattel paper, or general intangible).

173
Q

Damages Available to a Debtor for a Secured Party’s Failure
to Comply with Applicable Rules

A

A secured party is liable for the debtor’s actual damages
for the amount of any loss caused by their failure to comply
with applicable rules concerning secured transactions.
In addition, irrespective of actual damages, a debtor may
recover $500 in statutory damages
civil penalty is applied if the collateral is consumer goods

174
Q

Debtor’s Right of Redemption

A

debtor has the right to repay obligations and reclaim
property held by the secured party (known as redemption). To
redeem collateral, a debtor must: (1) fulfill all obligations
secured by the collateral; AND (2) pay reasonable expenses
and attorney’s fees.

175
Q

Deficiency Judgments

A

Under Article 9 of the UCC, the impact of non-compliance
with Article 9 on recovery of a deficiency in a consumer
goods transaction is left to the court to determine

For non-consumer transactions, Article 9 of the UCC
provides that (1) if a debtor places a secured party’s
compliance in issue, AND (2) a secured party fails to
prove that the disposition was proper, then the amount
recoverable in deficiency is limited to an amount by which
the total debt exceeds the greater of: (a) the proceeds of
the disposition; OR (b) the amount that would have been
realized if the secured party complied with the applicable
provisions. The amount of proceeds that would have been
realized is equal

176
Q

Trust Formation Elements

A

valid express trust requires: (1) a definitive beneficiary
(the beneficiary can be ascertained now or in the future); (2)
a settlor with capacity; (3) an intent to create a trust; (4)
a trustee; (5) a valid trust purpose; (6) trust property
(the res); AND (7) compliance with any State formalities
(i.e. signed in front of notary).

177
Q

Precatory Language & Promises to Create a Trust

A

Precatory language are words in a will or trust (such as
“hope” or “request”) that merely express a settlor’s desire
regarding the disposition of his property. Such words DO
NOT create a legal obligation to act in accordance with that
desire, and will not create a valid trust.

178
Q

Revocable & Irrevocable Trusts

A

The trust instrument may state whether the trust is irrevocable
or revocable by the settlor. If no designation is set forth,
then state law will govern whether the trust is revocable or
irrevocable by default.
* The majority view is that trusts are irrevocable by default
UNLESS expressly stated otherwise.
minority view and the Uniform Trust Code (UTC)
provides that a trust is revocable by default

179
Q

Testamentary Trusts

A

Testamentary Trust may be created through the provisions
of a settlor’s will, and the trust does not take effect until the
settlor’s death.

180
Q

Pour-over Provision in a Will

A

pour-over provision in a will gifts property to a previously
established trust. The property is distributed according
to the terms of the trust. A pour-over will provision is
distinguished from a testamentary trust because it does not
create a trust. Instead, the pour-over will transfers property
to a trust already in existence. As such, a pour-over will must
be connected to an inter vivos trust

181
Q

Charitable Trusts

A

A Charitable Trust is one created by a settlor to confer
a substantial benefit to society. The beneficiary may be
indefinite or contain a class of persons described by the
trust.

182
Q

Illusory Trusts

A

When the settlor retains significant control over the trust
property indicating a lack of intent to create a trust (i.e. when
a settlor retains a right of withdrawal or names himself as sole
trustee), the trust will be deemed illusory and invalid.

183
Q

Resulting Trusts

A

If a trust fails for lack of a beneficiary, a Resulting Trust is
implied by law, and all trust property returns to the settlor or
the settlor’s estate

184
Q

Discretionary Trusts

A

A Discretionary Trust occurs when a trustee has absolute
discretion and power to determine when and how much of
the trust property is distributed to the beneficiaries of the
trust. The trustee’s exercise of discretion MUST be in good
faith

185
Q

Support Trusts

A

support trust is a trust that contains a provision directing the
trustee to pay the beneficiary as much income and principal as
is necessary for the beneficiary’s support. Support trusts may
be pure (when the trustee has no discretion) or discretionary.
* If a discretionary support trust provision contains an
ascertainable standard, a beneficiary may compel a trustee
to make payments in accordance with that standard.

186
Q

How Trust Assets Pass

A

Trust assets pass according to the terms of the trust. When
a testamentary trust or distribution fails, the trust property
passes: (a) under the residuary clause in a will; OR (b) to
the settlor’s heirs by intestacy

187
Q

Cy Pres Doctrine

A

Cy pres is an equitable doctrine that applies to charitable
bequests and charitable trusts. Courts will apply cy pres
to modify a charitable trust to be consistent with and “as
near as possible” with the settlor’s or testator’s intent,
if the purpose of the trust or bequest is frustrated (the
trust becomes unlawful, impracticable, impossible, or
wasteful). The cy pres doctrine only applies if the testator
had a general charitable intent.

188
Q

Spendthrift Trusts

A

spendthrift provision in a trust (one preventing the transfer
of a beneficiary’s interest) is valid only if it restrains both
voluntary AND involuntary transfers.
* A spendthrift interest means that the interest CANNOT
be sold or assigned by the income beneficiary, nor may any
creditors reach it (but the creditor may attempt to collect
directly from the beneficiary after a payment is made from the
trust).

189
Q

Rights of Creditors

A

If a beneficiary’s interest is not subject to a spendthrift
provision, then the court may authorize a creditor to reach
the beneficiary’s interest by attachment of present or future
distributions to the beneficiary. If a beneficiary’s interest
is subject to a spendthrift provision, a creditor is generally
prohibited from attaching that interest, and may only attempt to collect directly from the beneficiary after a payment is
made. If the debtor is a remainder beneficiary, the creditor
will need to wait until the trust terminates to receive the trust
property.
Discretionary Trusts: Whether or not a trust contains a
spendthrift provision, a creditor cannot compel a distribution
to a beneficiary that is subject to the trustee’s discretion, even
if: (a) the discretion is expressed in the form of a standard of
distribution; OR (b) the trustee has abused their discretion.
* Discretionary Trusts & Spousal and Child Support: If a
judgment or order exists against the beneficiary for unpaid
spousal or child support, the court may order a distribution
to satisfy the judgment and direct the trustee to pay the
child, spouse, or former spouse an equitable amount of the
judgment/order.

190
Q

Powers of Invasion

A

Invasion of Trust Principal: If a beneficiary will eventually
receive trust principal, a court may permit invasion
UNLESS the invasion would: (a) be contrary to the settlor’s
intent; OR (b) adversely affect other beneficiaries.
* Express and Implied Powers of Invasion: A trustee CANNOT
use trust property to pay income beneficiaries when trust
income is insufficient, UNLESS there is an express or implied
(through settlor’s words or conduct) power of invasion

191
Q

Modification of a Trust

A

Under the majority view, a trust may only be modified by
a settlor: (a) who expressly reserved the power to modify
the trust; OR (b) who has the power to revoke the trust (a
power of revocation includes the power to amend). Under
the minority view, a settlor is free to amend or revoke a trust
without the express authority to do so (unless the trust states
otherwise). Amendments must be made in writing and signed
by the settlor
Under the Uniform Trust Code (UTC), a trust may be
modified in the following instances: (1) by the settlor while
alive, by a later will/codicil, or any other method manifesting
clear and convincing evidence of the settlor’s intent (unless
the trust instrument provides otherwise); (2) with the settlor
and the beneficiaries consent (even if the modification is
inconsistent with the trust purpose); (3) with the beneficiaries
consent and the court determines that the modification is not
inconsistent with the trust purpose; (4) modification will
further the purposes of the trust because of circumstances
not anticipated by the settlor; (5) the cy pres doctrine
applies; (6) the court determines that the value of the trust
property is insufficient to justify the cost of administration,
and provides notice to all beneficiaries; and (7) it is necessary
to conform to the settlor’s intent or tax objectives

192
Q

Equitable Deviation Doctrine & Modification of Administrative
and Dispositive Trust Provisions

A

If continuing a trust on its existing terms would be
impracticable or wasteful, courts may apply the Equitable
Deviation Doctrine to modify the terms of the trust. The
doctrine permits the court to modify the administrative
provisions or procedures of a trust if modification would
further the trust purpose because of circumstances not
anticipated by the settlor.
Under the common law, the equitable deviation doctrine
only applied to modification of administrative provisions
of a trust. However, under the Uniform Trust Code
(UTC), dispositive provisions in a trust may be modified
if modification will further the purposes of the trust when
circumstances arise that were not anticipated by the settlor

193
Q

Additions Clause in a Trust

A

When the settlor anticipates changing trust assets, an additions
clause should be added to the trust instrument. A trustee
retains the specific power to accept or reject additions to the
trust property from a settlor or any other person

194
Q

Termination of a Trust

A

Under the Uniform Trust Code (UTC), a trust may be
terminated in the following instances: (1) it is revoked or
expires pursuant to its terms (including the settlor revoking
a revocable trust); (2) the material purpose of the trust has
been achieved (a material purpose is a particular concern or
objective of the settlor); (3) the trust has become unlawful,
contrary to public policy, or impossible to achieve; (4) the
settlor and all beneficiaries consent (even if termination is
inconsistent with purpose of the trust); (5) all beneficiaries
consent and the court decides that continuance is not
necessary to achieve any purpose of the trust; (6) termination
will further the purpose of the trust because of circumstances
not anticipated by the settlor; (7) the court applies the cy
pres doctrine to terminate the trust; or (8) the court or trustee
determines that the value of the trust property is insufficient
to justify the cost of administration.

195
Q

Distribution Upon Termination

A

Upon the occurrence of an event terminating or partially
terminating a trust, the trustee shall proceed expeditiously to
distribute the trust property to those entitled to it. The trustee
may retain a reasonable reserve for the payment of debts,
expenses, and taxes.

196
Q

Conditions that Prohibit Marriage or Require Divorce

A

condition on a gift in a will/trust that prohibits a first
marriage or requires divorce are void as against public
policy, and will be treated as though the restriction had not
been imposed.

197
Q

Trustee Duty to Administer the Trust

A

Under the common law, the trustee owed beneficiaries the
duty to act with care, skill, and prudence.
* Under the Uniform Trust Code, a trustee MUST administer
the trust: (1) in good faith; (2) in accordance with the trust
purpose and terms; AND (3) in the interests of the trust
beneficiaries

198
Q

Trustee Duty of Care

A

Duty of Prudent Administration: A trustee must administer
the trust as a prudent person would, by considering the
purposes, terms, distributional requirements, and other
circumstances of the trust. In order to satisfy this duty, a
trustee must exercise reasonable care, skill, and caution.
* Duty to Take Control & Protect Trust Property: A trustee
must also take reasonable steps to take control of AND
protect the trust property.

199
Q

Trustee Duty of Loyalty: Conflicts of Interest

A

transaction will be presumed to be affected by a conflict
of interest if it is entered into by the trustee with: (a) the
trustee’s spouse; (b) the trustee’s descendants, siblings,
parents, or their spouses; (c) an agent or attorney of the
trustee; OR (d) a corporation or other person or enterprise in
which the trustee has an interest that might affect the trustee’s
best judgment.
* Under the No Further Inquiry Rule, a transaction involving
trust property entered into by the trustee for the trustee’s
own benefit is automatically presumed to be a conflict of
interest, and is voidable without further inquiry into the
fairness of transaction or possible intent/motivation for selfdealing.

200
Q

Trustee Duty of Loyalty: Self-Dealing

A

A trustee must administer the trust solely in the interest of
the beneficiaries and CANNOT engage in self-dealing. A
transaction involving trust property that is entered into by
the trustee for the trustee’s own benefit or that is affected
by a conflict between the trustee’s fiduciary and personal
interests is voidable by a beneficiary affected by the
transaction. Alternatively, a beneficiary can seek a damages
award for the trustee’s self-dealing.

201
Q

Trustee Duty of Loyalty: Duty to Act Impartially

A

If a trust has two or more beneficiaries, the trustee MUST act
impartially in investing, managing, and distributing the trust
property – giving due regard to the beneficiaries’ respective
interests.

202
Q

Trustee Duty of Care: Investments & Prudent Investor Rule

A

The Prudent Investor Rule requires that a trustee exercise the
degree of care, skill, and prudence of a reasonable investor
investing his own property.
o This includes diversifying trust assets, avoiding risky
investments, and the duty to monitor investments and
sell and reinvest investments as necessary to keep the
trust assets productive.

203
Q

Delegation of Trustee Duties

A

A trustee may delegate duties and powers that a prudent
trustee of comparable skills could properly delegate under
the circumstances. If the trustee delegates a duty, the trustee
MUST exercise reasonable care, skill, and caution in: (1)
selecting an agent; (2) establishing the scope and terms of
the delegation; AND (3) periodically reviewing the agent’s
actions in order to monitor the agent’s performance and
compliance with the terms of the delegation.

204
Q

Trustee Acting in Accordance with the Settlor’s Wishes

A

If a trust is revocable, a trustee owes duties only to the settlor
(during the settlor’s lifetime). Therefore, a trustee is NOT
liable for breach of the trust if the trustee acted in accordance
with the settlor’s wishes (even if to the exclusion of the other
beneficiaries).
* If a trust is irrevocable, the trustee owes duties to settlor and
the beneficiaries, and cannot be relieved from liability for
acting in accordance with the settlor’s wishes

205
Q

Principal and Income Allocations

A

Trust receipts and disbursements are allocated according to
State law either to income or principal.
* The following items MUST be allocated to income: (1)
receipt of rental payments from real or personal property;
(2) money received from an entity (i.e. cash dividends,
interest on investments); and (3) ordinary expenses and
repairs.
* The following items MUST be allocated to principal: (1)
proceeds from the sale of a principal asset; (2) all other
property received (other than money received from an entity);
and (3) extraordinary expenses and repairs – expenses/
repairs due to an unusual or unforeseen occurrence that is
beyond the usual, customary, or regular kind.

206
Q

Damages for Wrongful Invasion of Trust Assets

A

A trustee who wrongfully invades trust assets is liable to
the beneficiaries affected for the greater of: (a) the amount
required to restore the value of the trust property and
distributions (to what it would have been if the breach did
not occur); OR (b) any profit made by the trustee from the
breach.

207
Q

Remainder Beneficiary of a Trust

A

Remainder beneficiaries (also known as remaindermen) are
NOT entitled to receive trust property UNTIL the termination
of the trust.

208
Q

Future Interests: Representation of Remaindermen

A

minor, incapacitated, or unborn individual MAY be
represented by and bound by a person with a substantially
identical interest concerning a particular issue, UNLESS: (a)
the person is already represented; OR (b) a conflict of
interest exists between the representative and the person

209
Q

Future Interests: Substituted Takers

A

substitute gift is created in the deceased beneficiary’s
surviving descendants if: (1) the beneficiary of a future
interest does not survive the distribution date; AND (2) a
state’s anti-lapse law applies to trusts. However, most states’
anti-lapse statutes DO NOT apply to trusts.

210
Q

Vested Remainder Interest

A

vested remainder is an interest where there are no
contingencies or conditions on survivorship. Vested
remainders are devisable and will pass to that person’s heirs
if they die before the interest becomes possessory.

211
Q

Vested Interests: Condition on Survivorship

A

Under the common law, a condition of survivorship on future
interests in a trust is NOT implied. However, under the
Uniform Probate Code (UPC), such condition is implied.

212
Q

Acceleration of Future Interests

A

person’s future remainder interest may be accelerated
(allowing the person to take possession immediately)
if the present holder: (a) loses his legal right to the
property; OR (b) disclaims his present interest in the
property.

213
Q

Powers of Appointment: Special Power of Appointment

A

A special power of appointment is one in which the donee
(the holder of the power) may only appoint property to a
limited class of persons authorized by the donor.

214
Q

Powers of Appointment

A

When a testator/settlor (the donor) gives another person
the power to decide where and to whom the testator’s
property will go, that person (the donee) has a power of
appointment. A general power of appointment is granted
when the testator DOES NOT leave any conditions or
restrictions as to the appointment of the property. Thus, the
donee is permitted to appoint the power to anyone, including
himself. A testamentary power of appointment can only
be exercised by the donee’s will and according to the donor’s
conditions.

215
Q

Powers of Appointment: Ineffective Appointments

A

Appointments made to those NOT authorized by the donor
are ineffective. If more than one appointment is made at a
time, an appointment that is ineffective will not affect an
appointment that is valid. If the donee of a general power of
appointment makes an ineffective appointment, the property
passes to the taker-in-default designated by the donor of the
power.

216
Q

Rule Against Perpetuities

A

For an interest to be valid under the common law Rule
Against Perpetuities (RAP), it must vest within a life in being
at the time of the grant plus 21 years. This rule invalidates
any interest that will not vest during the time period AND
those that hypothetically may not vest within the time
period.

Some states have modified the common law rule, and provide
that a non-vested property interest is invalid ONLY IF it
actually does not vest within 21 years after the death of a
life in being at the time the interest was created. Rather than
invalidate interests on the possibility that they will not vest, this
approach waits to see if the interest will actually not vest.

217
Q

Class Gifts

A

Under the common law, the words of a testator/settlor were
given their legal meaning. However, modern courts are
more likely to consider the testator/settlor’s intent. The
terms “children” and “issue” are interpreted in accordance
with intestate succession rules

Class gifts generally close at the death of the testator/
settlor. Under the Rule of Convenience the class is closed
when any member of the class is entitled to possession of the
gift.

218
Q

Intestate Succession

A

Any property not passing by a valid will or by operation
of law will be governed by a state’s applicable intestacy
statute.

219
Q

Will Execution Formalities: Strict Compliance & Substantial
Compliance Doctrine

A

Under the common law, a will is invalid if it does not meet
all the requirements of the state’s law. Some states will find
a will valid if the decedent substantially complied with the
state’s requirements.
* Under the Uniform Probate Code’s harmless error rule, an
improperly executed will still be valid if the party seeking
to have it validated proves (1) by clear and convincing
evidence, (2) that the decedent intended the writing to be his
will.

220
Q

Will Execution Formalities

A

Most states require a will to be in a writing signed by the
testator and witnessed by at least two individuals. Under
the Uniform Probate Code (UPC), a will must be: (1)
in writing; (2) signed by the testator (or by some other
individual in the testator’s conscious presence and by the
testator’s direction); AND (3) either (a) signed by at least
two individuals within a reasonable time after witnessing the
signing of the will or (b) notarized.

221
Q

Doctrine of Integration

A

Under the Doctrine of Integration, a document will be
integrated into a will if the testator: (1) intended it to be part
of the will; AND (2) the document was physically present at
the will’s execution

222
Q

Interested Witnesses

A

Under the common law, the signing of the will must be
witnessed by two disinterested witnesses (individuals who are
not receiving a benefit under the will).
* However, most states provide for two exceptions in which the
will remains valid despite being witnessed by an interested
witness: (a) if the interested witness is an heir (any gift to
that witness is reduced to their intestate share); OR (b) if
another disinterested witness was present so that there were
still a total two disinterested witnesses.

223
Q

Codicils

A

A codicil is an instrument made after a will is executed that
modifies, amends, or revokes a will. A codicil MUST satisfy
the same formalities as a will to be valid. Execution of a
codicil republishes the will, meaning courts will consider
the original will to have been executed on the same date
as the codicil.

Most courts hold that a codicil CANNOT
republish an invalid will

224
Q

Holographic Wills & Codicils

A

holographic will (or a written alteration to a will) is a
handwritten will that is NOT witnessed. Not all states
recognize holographic wills. In the states that do, some
require that the writing also be signed by the testator.
* In the states that recognize holographic wills, a valid
holographic codicil revokes any earlier valid will to the
extent it conflicts with the codicil.

225
Q

Incorporation by Reference

A

bequest through an unattested document is valid if it meets
the requirements to be incorporated into a will by reference.
* In most states, a document or writing may be incorporated
into a will by reference if: (1) it was in existence at the time
the will was executed; (2) it is sufficiently described in the
will; AND (3) the testator intended to incorporate it into the
will.
* The Uniform Probate Code (UPC) permits a document or
writing bequeathing tangible personal property (other than
money) to be incorporated into the will if it: (1) was signed
by the testator; AND (2) describes with reasonable certainty
the items and the devisees.

226
Q

Acts of Independent Significance

A

court may use an act of independent significance to fill in
any gaps of a will. Acts of independent significance are those
with significance outside of the will-making process.

227
Q

Revocation by Physical Act

A

A will is revoked by physical act if: (1) the testator intended
to revoke the will; AND (2) the will is burned, torn,
destroyed, or cancelled by the testator (or someone at his
direction and in his presence).
* Under the common law, words of cancellation are valid
only if they come in physical contact with words of the will
(i.e. written over). Under the Uniform Probate Code, words
of cancellation are valid even if they did not physically
contact the words of the will.

228
Q

Revocation by Subsequent Will or Codicil

A

testator may revoke a will by executing a subsequent valid
will or codicil. Execution of a new will revokes a previous
will only to the extent that the previous will conflicts with
the new will UNLESS the new will expressly revokes the
previous will in its entirety.

229
Q

Dependent Relative Revocation Doctrine

A

The Dependent Relevant Revocation Doctrine (DRR) cancels
a previous revocation that was made under a mistaken
belief of law or fact by the testator. The doctrine applies
when the testator would not have revoked his original will but
for the mistaken belief that another will he prepared would be
valid.

230
Q

Revival of a Will

A

Under the common law, an earlier will was automatically
revived if a subsequent will was revoked.
* Under the modern view, most states permit revival of revoked
wills only under certain circumstances: (a) a will revoked by
physical act will be revived if a testator shows intent for its
revival; OR (b) a will revoked by subsequent instrument can
be revived if the testator republishes the will by a subsequent
will or codicil that complies with the will execution
formalities.
* Under the Uniform Probate Code, if a will was only partially
revoked by a subsequent instrument, the revoked provisions
will automatically be revived UNLESS the testator did not
intend their revival.

231
Q

Contractual Wills

A

In most states, contracts to execute mutual wills are
enforceable. To be enforceable, the agreement MUST
expressly state that the parties intend their wills to be a
binding contract between them. There must be a specific
reference to the contract upon which the joint wills are based
and there must be specific, express intent that the parties
desire the contract.

232
Q

Per Capita at Each Generation Distribution

A

When assets are distributed by Per Capita at Each Generation,
the estate is divided into as many equal shares as (1) surviving
descendants in the generation nearest to the decedent, and
(2) deceased descendants in that same generation who left
surviving descendants (if any). Each surviving descendant in
the nearest generation is allocated one share. The remaining
shares, if any, are combined, and then divided in the same
manner among the surviving descendants of the deceased
descendants.

233
Q

Modern Per Stirpes (Per Capita by Representation) Distribution

A

Under Modern Per Stirpes (also known as per capita by
representation), the estate is divided into as many equal
shares as there are (1) surviving descendants in the generation
nearest to the decedent, and (2) deceased descendants in
that same generation who left surviving descendants (if
any). Each surviving descendant in the nearest generation is
allocated one share. The remaining shares, if any, drop down
and are divided in the same manner among the then living
issue of the deceased descendants.

234
Q

Per Stirpes Distribution

A

Per stirpes means that each branch of the family is to receive
an equal share of an estate. Under a per stirpes distribution,
the assets should be divided at the first generation of which
there are living takers. Each living and non-living person in
that generation is entitled to one share. Those shares going to
non-living persons drop down directly to their issue

235
Q

Wills - Distribution Timing

A

The terms of a will determine how the testator’s assets are
distributed. A will takes effect at the time of testator’s
death, and the estate is comprised of the property owned by
the testator at the time of death. For distribution purposes,
a will is treated as if it was executed immediately before the
testator’s death. A beneficiary listed in a person’s will DOES
NOT have any interest in the estate property prior to that
person’s death.

236
Q

Construction Problems - Generally Described Property

A

Generically described property gifted in a will applies to
property owned at the time of the decedent’s death matching
the description in the will (i.e. a gift of “my boat”).

237
Q

Advancements/Satisfaction

A

At common law, gifts to heirs during a testator’s lifetime were
considered advancements on the heir’s intestate share of the
estate, and would be deducted from the heir’s share of the
estate.
* Under the modern view and Uniform Probate Code, gifts
to heirs during a testator’s lifetime are NOT deemed
advancements UNLESS: (a) the will provides for deduction
of the gift; OR (b) it was indicated in writing that the
property was in satisfaction of a devise or that its value will
be deducted from the value of the devise.

238
Q

Simultaneous Death

A

The Revised Uniform Simultaneous Death Act (RUSDA)
provides that if there is no proof by clear and convincing
evidence that one person survived the other by 120 hours
(5 days), then the property is distributed as if that person
predeceased the other person.

239
Q

Residue of a Residue Approach

A

At common law, there was no residue of a residue rule. Any
residuary shares of a decedent’s estate that were invalid,
passed to the testator’s heirs via intestate distribution. Under
the modern view, if the residue is devised to two or more
persons, any residuary beneficiary’s share that fails will pass
to the other residuary beneficiaries

240
Q

Conditions that Prohibit Marriage or Require Divorce

A

A condition on a gift in a will/trust that prohibits a first
marriage or requires divorce are void as against public
policy, and will be treated as though the restriction had not
been imposed.

241
Q

Wills Provisions Governing when the Testator Dies With
or Without Issue

A

When a testator/grantor includes a provision to govern his
property in the event he dies without issue, but fails to include
a provision regarding his death in the event he dies with issue,
some courts infer a gift to issue. However, other courts hold
that the gift fails and passes to the testator/grantor’s estate.

242
Q

Lapsed Gifts & Anti-Lapse Statutes

A

Under the common law rule of lapse, all gifts in a will were
conditioned on the beneficiary surviving the testator. Any
gifts to beneficiaries who did not survive the testator failed
and passed to the residuary estate or under intestacy.
* However, a gift to a deceased beneficiary will NOT lapse if
an anti-lapse statute applies. The anti-lapse statute provides
that, where a beneficiary under a will predeceases the
testator, the gift will vest in the issue of that predeceased
beneficiary if: (1) the predeceased beneficiary is a specified
descendant of the testator (specified by statute); AND (2) the
beneficiary leaves issue who survive the testator

243
Q

Ademption

A

Under the common law identity theory, a specific gift is
adeemed by extinction if it cannot be identified at the time
of the testator’s death or the testator does not own it at the
time of death. This can occur when the testator makes a
specific gift, but the property is later destroyed or sold before
their death. The testator’s intent is not relevant. In most
jurisdictions today, a specific gift will adeem only if the
testator intended the gift to fail.

If the testator DID NOT intend for a specific gift to fail, the
beneficiary is entitled to: (a) any real property or tangible
personal property (owned by the testator at death) which the
testator acquired as a replacement for the specific gift; OR
(b) a monetary devise equal to the value of the specific
gift.

244
Q

Stock Splits and Dividends

A

A person who was gifted securities (shares of stock) in a will
is entitled to additional shares owned by the testator that
were acquired as the result of stock splits or stock dividends.

245
Q

Exoneration

A

Under the common law, a specific devise of real property
DID NOT pass subject to any mortgage, and the mortgage
was paid from the estate. Under the modern view, a specific
devisee of real property assumes the mortgage (unless
explicitly stated otherwise), regardless of a general directive
in the will to pay debts.

246
Q

Abatement

A

If there are more creditor’s claims against an estate than
there are assets to cover all of the gifts made under the will,
the gifts under the will abate (be reduced). Abatement is
not giving effect to bequests in the will so that creditors’
claims against the estate can be satisfied. Creditors of the
estate always have priority to assets of the estate over
beneficiaries.

Absent provisions in the will, the order in
which a testator’s property abates is as follows: (1) property
passing by intestacy; (2) residuary gifts; (3) general
gifts; (4) specific gifts.

247
Q

Slayer Statutes

A

An individual who feloniously and intentionally kills
the decedent forfeits all benefits and entitlements to the
decedent’s estate. If the decedent dies intestate, the estate
passes as if the killer disclaimed her intestate share. A
conviction (after all appeals are exhausted) is conclusive of a
felonious and intentional killing. Otherwise, it may be based
on a preponderance of the evidence proved during a probate
or related court proceeding.

248
Q

Disclaimers

A

A disclaimer is when a person renounces their legal right to
inheritance. An effective disclaimer must: (1) be declared in
writing; (2) describe the interest or power disclaimed; (3)
be signed by the person making the disclaimer; AND (4) be
delivered or filed.
* Under common law, a disclaimer must be made within a
reasonable time. Some states require a disclaimer to be made
within 9 months of (a) the death of the decedent, or (b) the
vesting of a future interest.

249
Q

Divorce Revokes Testamentary Provisions to a Former Spouse

A

In all states, a final divorce decree revokes any disposition or
appointment of property made to the former spouse in a prior
made will. In some states, a bequest is revoked if divorce
proceedings are pending. All provisions that are revoked are
treated as if the former spouse had predeceased the testator

250
Q

Prenuptial Agreement Does Not Apply to Voluntary Gifts or
Bequests

A

prenuptial agreement between spouses waiving rights
to each other’s assets upon divorce DOES NOT apply to
voluntary gifts or bequests.

251
Q

Specific, General, and Demonstrative Gifts

A

A specific gift is one that is specifically identified (i.e. real
property or personal property).
* A general gift is nonspecific and can be satisfied from any
of the funds remaining in a testator’s estate. If it’s unclear
whether the gift is general or specific, the court must consider
the intent of the testator.
* A demonstrative gift is a hybrid and occurs when the testator
makes a general gift, but also identifies a specific source
that the gift should come from. Money from a specified bank
account is an example of a demonstrative gift.
* A gift of stock shares may be general or specific, depending
on the language of the will and the intent of the testator

252
Q

Inheritance Rights of Children & Disinheritance

A

Generally, a child has NO rights to his or her parent’s estate
if the parent chooses to leave him or her out of the will. The
only time a child will have rights when omitted from a will, is
if the child is a pretermitted child (which is a child born after
the will was made).
* A child that is intentionally omitted from a will is NOT
entitled to a share of the decedent’s estate. However, if a
portion of the will fails, then a child will be entitled to his
intestate share UNLESS the will intentionally disinherits
the child.

252
Q

Legal Definition of Children

A

At common law, only biological, full blooded, children born
into wedlock were entitled to inherit.
* Under the modern view, gifts to children include any
child that is included in the legal definition of “children”,
including biological children (marital and non-marital),
half-bloods, and adopted children. An adopted child inherits
the same as a natural child when the adopted child is not the
relative of the adopting parent.

253
Q

Inheritance by Equitable Adoption

A

In some states, a child may be informally adopted through
a person’s words or conduct. When a person takes in a child
and assumes parental responsibilities (some states also
require the decedent to have promised or agreed to adopt the
child), equity holds the person as having formally adopted the
child.

254
Q

Spouse’s Elective Share

A

Many states have enacted statutes that give a surviving
spouse the right to take a statutory share of the deceased
spouse’s estate (instead of taking under that deceased spouse’s
will). The amount of the elective share varies by state, and
is typically one-third of the net probate estate (which is the
gross-probate estate less creditor claims). The elective share
is in addition to any statutory family exemptions (family
residence, exempt personal property, and a family allowance).

In some states, testamentary substitutes (i.e. lifetime
transfers or certain non-probate assets) are brought back into
the estate to calculate the net estate. Once the net estate is
calculated, the surviving spouse is entitled to the statutory
percentage (usually one-third), reduced by the value of
the assets that would pass absolutely to the spouse under
the decedent’s will.

255
Q

Pretermitted Children

A

pretermitted child is one who was unintentionally left
out of a will. If the child was born or adopted after the
execution of a will, the child is entitled to an intestate share
of the decedent’s estate UNLESS the child was intentionally
omitted from the will.

If the child was living at the time of execution, the child is
NOT entitled to a share of the decedent’s estate UNLESS
the child was omitted from the will because the testator did
not know of the child’s existence or believed the child to be
dead.

256
Q

Testamentary Capacity

A

To have the capacity to execute a will, a testator must be
capable of knowing and understanding: (1) the nature and
extent of his property; (2) the natural objects of his bounty
(i.e. relatives and friends); AND (3) the disposition that he
is making of that property. Appointment of a conservator or
guardian, alone, does not automatically establish a lack of
capacity.

257
Q

Will Contest - Undue Influence

A

A will is invalid to the extent it was executed under undue
influence, and may be invalidated in full or in part. Undue
influence occurs when a person exerts influence that
overcomes a testator’s free will and judgment.
* A prima facie case of undue influence is established if: (1)
the testator had a weakness (physical, mental, or financial)
that made him susceptible to influence; (2) the wrongdoer
had access to the testator and an opportunity to exert
influence; (3) the wrongdoer actively participated in drafting
the will; AND (4) there is an unnatural (unexpected) result.
* A common law presumption of undue influence is established
if: (1) a confidential relationship existed between the testator
and the wrongdoer; (2) the wrongdoer actively participated
in the drafting of the will; AND (3) an unnatural result
occurred.

258
Q

Will Contest - Fraud

A

will may be contested on the grounds of fraud when: (1)
an individual knowingly makes a material misrepresentation
of fact; (2) with the intent to induce reliance by the
testator; AND (3) the misrepresentation actually induces
reliance to the testator’s detriment.
* Fraud may occur in the inducement or execution of a
will. Under both, a will is invalid to the extent it was affected
by fraud, and may be invalidated in full or in part.
o Fraud in the inducement occurs when a person
deceives a testator regarding facts related to the
instrument (i.e. property or beneficiaries).
o Fraud in the execution occurs when a person deceives
a testator regarding the nature of the document being
signed.

259
Q

Standing to Challenge a Will

A

A person has standing to challenge a will if the person: (a) is
a beneficiary of the will; (b) should be a beneficiary of the
will; OR (c) would be financially benefited if the decedent
died without a will

260
Q

No-Contest Clauses

A

In most states, a provision (known as a no-contest clause) in a
will purporting to penalize an interested person for contesting
the will or instituting other proceedings relating to the estate
is valid.
* However, most courts will NOT enforce a no-contest clause
if probable cause exists for instituting proceedings to
challenge a will.

In addition, no-contest clauses generally DO NOT apply
when: (a) the contestant is alleging fraud or that the will
was revoked by another will, and there is a good basis
for the claim; (b) the contest is on behalf of a minor or
incompetent; (c) the contestant is alleging that the court does
not have jurisdiction; OR (d) the contestant is merely asking
the court to interpret/construe the will’s terms.

261
Q

Modification of a Will Due to Mistake

A

Most courts will permit modification of a will to conform to
the testator’s intent if there is clear and convincing evidence
of a mistake. Under the UPC (adopted by some states),
a court may modify a will if there is clear and convincing
evidence even if it’s an unambiguous provision

262
Q

Joint Bank Accounts & Convenience Account Exception

A

Joint tenants of a bank account have the right of survivorship,
and will be entitled to the remaining funds upon the death of
the other joint tenant. However, a contestant may overcome
the presumption of the right of survivorship by showing that
the account was set up merely for the convenience of the
parties.

262
Q

Totten Trusts

A

Totten Trust is created when the depositor opens up a bank
account for himself as trustee for another. If a beneficiary
to a Totten Trust survives the depositor, the trust shall
terminate and title to the funds vest in the beneficiary free
and clear of the trust. Totten trusts are revocable both by
will and during the lifetime of the creator. In order to
effectively revoke a totten trust during the creator’s lifetime,
the creator must either: (a) withdraw all funds; OR (b)
deliver a signed, written, and acknowledged revocation to
the bank which names the financial institution and the new
beneficiary.

263
Q

Life Insurance Beneficiary

A

A life insurance policyholder has the power to change
beneficiaries during his lifetime. However, such a change
is generally not permitted through a will, and must be
changed on the policy directly.

264
Q

Inter Vivos Gifts

A

An inter vivos gift is one made during the donor’s
lifetime. Transfers of property made during the donor’s
lifetime are NOT subject to intestacy rules or probate. A valid
inter vivos gift occurs when (1) a donor with intent to make a
gift, (2) delivers the gift, and (3) the donee accepts the gift.
* Delivery of a gift may be constructive when the donor
transfers a means of controlling or taking ownership of the
property rather than the property itself (as through a letter or
a token that represents the gift). Delivery of real property
requires delivery of the deed.

265
Q

Invasion of Non-Probate Assets to Pay Creditors

A

If a decedent’s estate is inadequate to pay creditors, those
who receive non-probate transfers may be liable to pay the
decedent’s creditors up to the value of the transfer. Two or
more transferees are severally liable. Generally, a creditor is
NOT allowed to attach gifts given by a decedent prior to their
death (an inter vivos gift).

266
Q

Powers & Duties of Personal Representatives

A

Personal representatives (i.e. an executor) must handle
all the matters associated with probate, including filing
necessary paperwork, gathering the decedent’s property, and
notifying creditors, heirs, or devisees.
* If a decedent DOES NOT name a personal representative in
his will, typically the court will appoint one

267
Q

advance directive

A

(also known as a living will)
specifies the patient’s preferences for treatment or
non-treatment should he become incapacitated.

268
Q

durable health-care power of attorney

A

gives
a designated agent the power to make healthcare
decisions for the principal in the event of the
principal’s incapacity.