Ballast - PPD Personal Cards Flashcards
(191 cards)
1
Q
What is positive drainage?
A
Positive drainage is a slope that goes away from the building, parking area, and walkways.
2
Q
Name the two systems of drainage systems and key elements of each.
A
Aboveground: pervious paving, sheet flow, gutters built into roadways and parking areas, ground swales as part of the landscaping, and channels to manage runoff and direct it appropriately.
Underground: use perforated drains and enclosed storm sewers to carry the runoff from the site, either to a municipal storm sewer system or to a natural drainage outlet such as a river.
3
Q
What is sheet flow?
A
Water that drains across a sloping surface, whether that surface is paved, grassy, or otherwise landscaped.
Sheet flow is directed to gutters or channels.
4
Q
What is the minimum slope needed for drainage?
A
1.5% is needed to account for paving roughness and variations in installation tolerances.
Although a slope as little as 0.5% may be sufficient for some drainage, this is only true fro very smooth, carefully constructed surfaces.
5
Q
What is a catch basin and name a key element of it and why.
A
A catch basin is an underground reservoir.
It has a sump built into it which allows debris to settle into the sump instead of flowing down the sewer and potentially clogging the pipe.
6
Q
What is a sump?
A
A sump is a low space that collects water and debris.
7
Q
Define the runoff coefficient.
A
The fraction of water NOT absorbed.
8
Q
What is a holding pond?
A
If the site development creates a volume of runoff in excess of the capacity of the existing municipal storm sewer or natural drainage course, a holding pond may be constructed on the site.
The holding pond collects the site runoff and releases it into the sewer system at a controlled rate.
9
Q
What is the building sewer?
A
The portion of the horizontal piping of the sanitary sewer system outside the building.
10
Q
What is the minimum slope of the building sewer?
A
0.5% - 2.0% depending on the size of the pipe.
A greater slope is required for smaller pipes.
11
Q
The location of main electric lines may dictate what?
A
The location of transformers and service entry to the building.
12
Q
How should roads in parking areas be laid out?
A
- So a driver can go directly to the parking area, to a drop-off area, or to the loading area without intersecting the roads to the other areas.
- Forcing traffic through the parking area to reach the loading area or a drop-off point should be avoided.
- A road should NOT be laid out perpendicular to a slop unless the slope is very gentle. The road should slightly cross the slope, to minimize the grade.
- A road should be limited to a maximum slope of 15% for short distances, although 10% or less is preferred.
- A road should have a gradual cross slope for drainage from the center of the roadway, called the crown, to the sides.
- If a road has a gutter it should be 6”.
13
Q
When are handrails required for ramps?
A
If the rise is greater than 6”.
Handrails must extend 12” past the top and bottom of the ramp.
14
Q
When are handrails required for stairs?
A
If over 4 risers or where icy conditions exist.
Handrails must extend 12” past the top, and 12” + one tread at the bottom.
15
Q
What is the width of accessible parking stalls and its associated access aisle?
A
Standard: 8’ stall width + 5’ access aisle (13’ total)
Van Option 1: 8’ stall width + 8’ access aisle (16’ total)
Van Option 2: 11’ stall width + 5’ access aisle (16’ total)
16
Q
What are some benefits to landscaping, in addition to its pure aesthetic qualities?
A
- Can improve energy conservation;
- Moderate noise;
- Frame desirable views;
- block undesirable views;
- create privacy;
- fashion outdoor spaces;
- provide shade;
- retard erosion;
- visually connect a building to its site
17
Q
What is a drip line, in regards to trees?
A
The edge of its canopy.
Contours of the land cannot be changed within the drip line of an existing tree.
18
Q
What is the difference between a direct gain and indirect gain system (in reference to passive solar design)?
A
Direct gain systems collects heat through south facing glass and then stores the heat in high mass materials.
Indirect gain systems heat the mass by room air temperature and reflected sunlight.
A direct gain system will capture about 4 times as much energy as an indirect system with the same mass.
19
Q
What is a roof pond?
A
A roof pond stores heat in large water-filled bags on the roof of a building.
Winter: During the day the bags heat up, at night the insulation is moved over the roof pond, and the bags release heat downward into the building.
Summer: During the day the bags are covered with insulation so that they absorb heat only from the building. At night, the insulation is removed and the absorbed heat is transferred upward and away from the building.
20
Q
What are the three components that make up a typical active solar system?
A
- A collector: either a flat-plate collector or a focusing collector
- A storage device: water for water systems and rock beds for air systems, phase change materials can also be used, but they are more expensive
- A distribution system: same as for standard HVAC systems; ducts for air, pipes for water, and associated fans, pumps, registers, and control devices
21
Q
What is the difference between an open-loop system and a closed-loop system?
A
An open-loop system, the water is heated directly in the solar collector.
In a closed-loop system, antifreeze or some other transfer medium is heated in the collector and circulated to a heat exchanger, where the domestic water is heated by the transfer medium.
22
Q
For maximum energy generation, what should the tilt angle be for a PV system?
A
For most of the year, about the same as the latitude of the building.
During the winter, the tilt angle should be 10-15 degrees greater than the latitude.
23
Q
Where is the best place for the entrance for the following climates:
- Cold
- Temperate
- Hot
A
- Cold: leeward side to avoid winter winds
- Temperate: south side to make them more inviting and to capitalize on the natural snow-melting effects of the sun.
- Hot: the long side of the building to catch cooling breezes.
24
Q
Which has less surface area if the volume is the same: a square/cube or a rectangle?
A
A square/cube
25
A building with a _____ total surface area will generally use less energy.
smaller
26
What is the difference between an external-load dominated building and an internal-load dominated building?
An external-load dominated building (also called a skin-load dominated building) uses energy based mainly on the amount of heat loss or gain through its exterior envelope. (Examples: houses, apartments, condos, warehouses)
An internal-load dominated building uses energy driven by high heat gain from occupants, lighting and equipment. (Examples: offices, hospitals, retail stores, schools, and labs)
27
What is the best shape of building for:
- Cool zones
- Temperate zones
- Hot-arid zones
- Hot-humid zones
- Cool zones: square or cube
- Temperate zones: elongated in the east/west direction (1.5-2:1)
- Hot-arid zones: squarer shapes with courtyard
- Hot-humid zones: elongated in the east/west direction (3-4:1)
28
South-facing facades should have _____ louvers, while east- and west-facing facades should have _____ louvers.
South: horizontal
| East/West: Vertical
29
What is superinsulation?
A technique of providing higher levels of insulation than normally used.
I.E: tightly sealing all joints and cracks, and preventing any thermal bridges between the outside and inside, such as through studs. All portions of the building are carefully detailed so that every piece is insulated.
30
What is infiltration and exfiltration as it relates to air?
Infiltration is when air comes IN to a space.
Exfiltration is when are LEAVES a space.
I.E. in a cold climate, air will be warmer in the upper part of the building and cooler in the lower part, which causes exfiltration at the top and consequently infiltration near the ground to replay the lost air.
31
What is the stack effect (or chimney effect)?
It is the difference in pressure between the top and bottom of a building due to a temperature differential.
The effect is most pronounced in high-rise buildings.
32
What helps control/mitigate infiltration and exfiltration?
Air barriers
33
What are the three types of earth-sheltered design?
- Built above grade, and fill earth is bermed against the walls on one or more sides.
- Built into the excavated side of a hill. Ideally, the north side of the building is built into the hill and the south side is exposed for solar heating, views, and daylight. The east and west sides may be partially or completely buried.
- Built completely buried below grade with a courtyard in the middle to allow for access, daylight, and outdoor living area, and ventilation.
34
What are some practical considerations in regards to earth-sheltered designs?
- Ideally, there should be a natural slope to the land so that earthmoving can be minimized.
- The soil should be granular. Gravel, sand, and sandy loam are all appropriate soils. Clay soils are not appropriate for earth-sheltered designs because they do not drain well and can expand with moisture.
- The site should be tested for radon concentrations.
- The groundwater level must be below the building, and positive drainage away from the building should be maintained.
- Extra care must be taken to waterproof the underground portions adequately.
35
What are some advantages of a green roof?
- Conserving energy by reducing cooling and heating loads.
- Reducing storm runoff
- Absorbing carbon dioxide
- Reducing ambient air temperatures
- Filtering the air and binding dust particles
- Reducing the heat island effect normally caused by exposed roofing membranes
- Protecting roofing membranes from UV light degradation, temperature extremes, wind, and hail
- Adding acoustical insulation
- Adding aesthetic appeal to the roof
36
What are the two types of green roofs?
Extensive: uses soil less than 6" deep, which is capable of supporting meadow grasses, sedums, herbs, and perennials.
Intensive: uses deeper soil (usually 12" or more) and supports complex landscapes, including shrubs and small trees.
37
What is the general range of weight for a green roof?
12 psf to 300 psf
38
What are the layers involved in a green roof over a concrete deck (starting from the bottom)?
1) A waterproof membrane is placed over the structural deck.
2) If necessary, a root barrier is placed over the waterproofing.
3) Rigid insulation is placed over the root barrier.
4) A drainage layer is installed over the insulation to allow water that is not absorbed by the plants and growing media to flow to drains or scuppers. A slope of at least 1.5% is necessary for proper drainage.
5) A filter fabric above the drainage layer prevents the find particles of the soil or growing medium from entering and clogging the drainage layer.
6) The growth medium (i.e. engineered soil mixture) is placed in thicknesses from 2" to 12" or more.
39
What are the layers involved in a green roof over a metal deck (starting from the bottom)?
1) A thermal barrier is placed over the metal deck to protect the insulation from heat transfer.
2) Rigid insulation is placed over the thermal barrier in a thickness appropriate for the climate and as required by the local code.
3) A waterproofing membrane is placed over the insulation. If necessary, a separation layer is placed between the waterproofing membrane and the insulation.
4) If necessary for the type of waterproofing membrane selected, a root barrier is placed over the membrane.
5) A drainage layer is placed over the membrane (or root barrier, if used).
6) The growth medium (i.e. engineered soil mixture) is placed in thicknesses from 2" to 12" or more.
40
What does a flood test, test? And how do you test it?
It is a test to verify watertightness.
The area is flooded with 2" of water for 48 hours, and the interior of the building is inspected for leaks.
41
What is a cool roof?
Also known as a reflective roof, it is a roof covered with a light-colored material that reflects more of the sun's heat than it absorbs.
42
What is the minimum reflectivity of a cool roof?
0.65 when new, and a three-year aged value of at least 0.5
43
What are some concerns regarding cool roofs?
Glare into adjacent buildings and aesthetic aspects.
44
Define solar heat gain coefficient (SHGC)?
The amount of solar radiation that is transmitted through the entire window assembly, expressed as a fraction of the total amount that strikes it.
The SHGC is a decimal fraction between 0 and 1; a value of 1 would indicate a window assembly lets all solar radiation pass through.
45
What is the shading coefficient (SC)?
The ratio of the amount of solar radiation that passes through a piece of glass to the amount that would pass through a similar piece of unshaded, clear, double-strength glass 1/8" thick.
46
What is insulated glass?
Two or more panes of glass where the sealed air space between the panes acts as the insulation.
47
What are two important variables to consider when designing windows for daylighting?
Height of the window head above the floor, and the effective aperture.
48
What is the daylight zone?
How much daylight gets into a space from a window.
With a standard window, with no overhang protection or light shelf, the effective daylight zone extends about 1.5x the window head height into the room.
When a light shelf is used, the effective daylight zone is from 2.0 to 2.5 x the window head hight.
49
What is the effective aperture (EA)?
It is the product of two variables: visible light transmittance and window-to-wall ratio.
VLT x WWR = EA
Generally an EA between 0.20 and 0.30 provides good daylighting.
Example: If the glazing has a low VLT, the size of the window should be increased.
50
Define visible light transmittance (VLT).
The percentage of visible light that passes through a glazing material.
51
Define window-to-wall ratio (WWR).
The NET glazing area in a room or space divided by the GROSS exterior wall area.
It does not include window frames or mullions.
Small, punched windows have low WWRs, while large, continuous windows have high WWRs.
52
What is effective height (as it relates to site acoustics)?
The distance from the top of the barrier to the point where the acoustical line of sight intersects the barrier.
The critical factor in reducing noise from a source is NOT the actual hight of the barrier by the effective height.
53
Name some basic principles for designing outdoor sound barriers.
- Solid barriers are generally better at blocking high-frequency sounds than they are at blocking low-frequency sounds.
- The barrier is best placed as close as possible to either the source of the noise or the receiver.
- If the barrier is placed close to the noise source, it should be at least 4 times as high as the distance from the source to the barrier.
- The greater the effective height, the greater the attenuation.
- For blocking noise from a point source, a shorter barrier should be at least 4 times as long as the distance from the barrier to the source, or the distance from the barrier to the receiver, whichever is shorter.
- A barrier should have a density of at least 5 lbm/sqft and be solid. However, densities greater than this do not improve sound attenuation significantly.
54
Name some ways of controlling site noise.
- Maximize the distance between the source of the noise and the receiver.
- Avoid hard surfaces near the source of noise.
- Avoid parallel hard surfaces.
- Plant evergreen trees and shrubs densely between the noise source and the receiver.
- Control sources of noise that are in or near the building.
- Make use of masking sounds.
- Design building features to block noise.
55
Design for site security can be accomplished by viewing the site at four different levels; what are they?
- Perimeter protection: first line of defense on a site.
- Access and parking
- On-site security
- Building envelope protection
56
What are the four ways water can be classified?
- Potable: water that is been treated to make is suitable for drinking.
- Rainwater: natural precipitation that falls on a site.
- Graywater: wastewater from sinks, showers, bathtubs, washing machines (NOT from toilets).
- Blackwater: water from toilets/urinals.
Some jurisdictions consider water from sinks and laundry as blackwater due to the detergents and other contaminants it may contain.
57
What are the four phases to a Life-Cycle Analysis (LCA)?
1) Define the goals and scope of the study.
2) Perform an inventory analysis.
3) Perform an impact assessment.
4) Perform an improvement analysis and report the results of the study.
58
What are the four main stages of a product's life cycle?
1) Raw material acquisition;
2) Manufacturing;
3) Use in the building; and
4) Disposal or reuse.
59
Name the four main causes of poor indoor air quality.
- Chemical contaminants from indoor sources
- Chemical contaminants from outdoor sources
- Biological contaminants
- Poor ventilation
60
What are the three grouped classifications for symptoms of poor IAQ (Indoor Air Quality)?
- Sick Building Syndrome (SBS): temporary and goes away when the person leaves the building.
- Building-Related Illness (BRI): can be directly attributed to specific building contaminants. Legionnaires' Disease is an example.
- Multiple Chemical Sensitivity (MCS): condition induced by exposure to VOCs or other chemicals.
61
Name five strategies an architect and suggest to an owner for maintaining good IAQ (Indoor Air Quality).
- Eliminate or reduce the sources of pollution
- Control ventilation rates in the building
- Establish good maintenance procedures
- Control occupant activity as it affects IAQ
- Provide appropriate filtration
62
What are three basic types of filters that can be incorporated into an HVAC system?
- Particulate filters (i.e. HEPA)
- Absorption filters (i.e. activated carbon)
- Electronic filters (i.e. creates electrostatic charges)
63
What is the difference between a life-cycle cost analysis (LCCA) and an life-cycle analysis (LCA)
Life-cycle cost analysis (LCCA): is a method for determining the total cost of a building, building component, or system over a period of time.
Life-cycle analysis (LCA): analyzes the environmental impact of a product or building system.
64
What is a fire damper?
A devise installed in ducts and air transfer openings that is designed to close automatically on detection of heat, to resist the passage of flames.
65
What is a smoke damper?
A devise installed in ducts and air transfer openings that is designed to resist the passage of smoke.
They may be controlled by a smoke detection system to operate automatically, or may be operable, where required, from a fire command center.
66
What is the difference between a Fire Partition and a Fire Barrier?
A Fire Partition is a wall assembly with a 1-hour fire-resistance rating.
A Fire Barrier is a vertical or horizontal assembly that is fire-resistance rated and that is designed to restrict the spread of fire, confine it to limited areas, and/or afford safe passage for protected egress.
Fire Barriers must ALWAYS be continuous from the floor slab to the underside of the floor or roof slab above.
In general terms, a Fire Barrier offers MORE protection than a Fire Partition.
67
What is a Fire Wall?
A Fire Wall is a fire-resistance-rated wall that is used to separate a single structure into separate construction types or to provide for allowable area increases by creating what amounts to separate buildings, even though they are attached.
They MUST extend continuously from the foundation to or through the roof, and they must be designed and constructed in such a way that the structure on one side can collapse without affecting the structural stability of the adjacent building.
68
How does the IBC define a high-rise building?
A building with occupied floors more than 75' above the lowest level of fire department vehicle access.
69
When is an accessible route not required?
When the only means of access between the following is a vehicular way not providing pedestrian access:
- accessible buildings
- accessible facilities
- accessible elements
- accessible spaces
70
What is the minim clear floor space required to accommodate one stationary wheelchair?
30" x 48"
71
What is the minimum clear width for an accessible route?
36" continuously and 32" clear at passage points such as doorways
The passage point cannot be more than 24" long
72
In an accessible route, how narrow can a passage point get, and for how long?
32" and no longer than 24"
73
If an accessible route is less than 60" wide, what is the passing space width and how often must this occur?
60" and intervals of not more than 200'
74
180 degree turns in corridors or around objects:
- If the space moving around is LESS than 48" what is the minimum width of each corridor legs, and what is the minimum depth of the connecting space?
- If the space moving around is MORE than 48" what is the minimum width of each corridor legs, and what is the minimum depth of the connecting space?
Less than 48":
- Legs need to be at least 42" wide
- "landing"/connecting space at least 48" deep
More than 48":
- Legs need to be at least 36" wide
- "landing"/connecting space at least 36" deep
75
What is the reach range above the floor?
15" - 48" minimum above the floor
76
What is the maximum opening force required to push or pull open interior hinged doors?
5 lbf-ft
This may be greater if the door is a fire door and regulated by the local code jurisdiction
77
Grab bars for toilet fixtures must be mounted at what height?
33" - 36" above the floor
78
At least one ambulatory toilet stall must be provided when ... .
... when there are 6 or more toilet stalls or where the combination of urinals and water closets totals 6 or more fixture.
79
What is a met?
A met is the energy produced per unit of surface area per hour by a seated person at rest.
One met is 18.4 Btu/hr-ft^2
80
What is the difference between Latent Heat and Sensible Heat?
Latent Heat: Heat that causes a change of state of a substance (such as the heat required to change water into steam)
Sensible Heat: Heat that causes a change in temperature of a substance but not a change of state.
81
A long span is generally considered to be over ____ feet in length.
60'
82
For a given span, the tendency to spread, or the _____ of the arch, is inversely proportional to the rise, or height, of the arch.
thrust
83
As the rise of an arch _______, the ______ decreases.
increases; thrust
84
Typical depth-to-span ratio for wood arches is _____.
Typical depth-to-span ratio for steel arches is _____.
1: 40 for wood;
1: 100 for steel
85
What are 6 general considerations that affect the cost of any structure?
- Structural system;
- Material;
- Labor;
- Equipment;
- Construction time;
- Integration with other building systems.
86
In most cases, the maximum length for truck shipment is ____ feet, and ____ feet for railroad shipment.
60' for truck; 80' for railroad
87
Where do many of the failures occur in long span structures?
With the connections; NOT with the primary spanning members
88
What is candela?
Candlepower unit.
The unit of luminous intensity approximately equal to the horizontal light output from an ordinary wax candle.
89
What is illuminance?
The density of luminous flux incident on a surface. Expressed in lumens per unit area.
90
What does 1 foot-candle (fc) equate to?
The illuminance from one lumen uniformly incident on 1 sf of area
91
What is a lumen (lm)?
The unit of luminous flux.
92
What is luminance?
The luminous flux per unit of projected (apparent) area and unit solid angle leaving a surface, either reflected or transmitted.
Luminance is sometimes called brightness.
93
The basic illuminance targets are based on the assumption that the observers are between the ages of ___ and ___.
25 and 65.
94
If it is known that more than 50% of the population using the proposed lighting system is older than 65, the recommended illuminance is ______.
Doubled
95
If it is known that more than 50% of the population is younger than 25, then the recommended illuminance is _____.
Halved.
96
Many direct glare problems can be solved by using a luminaire with a _____ degree cutoff angle, or by moving the offending luminaire out of the field of view.
45 degree
97
In most situations, brightness ratios should be limited to __:__ between the task and adjacent surroundings, to __:__ between the task and more remote darker surfaces, and to __:__ between the task and more remote lighter surfaces.
3:1; 5:1; 1:10
98
What are the five primary types of light sources?
- Daylight
- Incandescent lamps
- Fluorescent lamps
- High-intensity discharge (HID) lamps
- Light-emitting diodes (LED)
99
When should fiber optic luminaires be used?
When ultraviolet radiation and heat must be kept away from the illuminated object, such as in a museum display of delicate objects, swimming pools, spas, storage areas for highly flammable materials, and other areas where electrical wiring could be a hazard.
100
A low articulation index (less than ____) is desirable for speech privacy, whereas a high articulation index (above ____) is desirable for good communication.
less than 0.15 for speech privacy; 0.6 for good communication
101
What are two important concepts in noise reduction?
- transmission loss,
| - actual noise reduction
102
An absorption coefficient below 0.2 is considered _____; an absorption coefficient above 0.2 is considered _____.
below 0.2 = reflective; above 0.2 = sound absorbing
103
What is the typical height (stories and feet) a hydraulic elevator is typically used for?
2 to 6 stories; or about 50'
104
What are the two types of electric elevators?
- Gearless traction: use a direct current motor, brake is mounted on the same shaft; Used on high-speed elevators
- Geared traction: provide a great deal of flexibility for slow-speed, high-capacity elevators
105
Name and describe the four main types of elevator operation systems?
- Single Automatic: one call at a time, must complete the entire call before a new one will happen.
- Selective Collective Operation: the elevators remembers and answers all calls in one direct, then reverses and answers all calls in the opposite direction.
- Group Automatic Operation: programmable microprocessor, responds in the most efficient manner possible, taking into account all the variables.
- Destination Floor Guidance System: Computer controlled with AI
106
If a vertical shaft enclosure connects no more than three floors, the both the enclosure and any openings through it must have at least _____ fire rating.
a 1-hour fire rating
107
If a vertical shaft enclosure connects four or more stores, then it must have at least _____ fire rating, and the doors and other openings much have at least _____ fire rating.
Shaft: 2-hour fire rating;
| Doors/Openings: 1.5-hr fire rating
108
What is the minimum opening width for an elevator?
3'-6" minimum; 4'-0" is better as it allows for two people to enter/exit at the same time.
109
What is the width size difference between escalator widths and their actual tread width?
8"
32" escalator --> 24" tread width
40" escalator --> 32" tread width
48" escalator --> 40" tread width
110
What is the minimum width of any stair?
36" minimum, or 44" when the occupant load is 50 or more.
111
What are the special requirements for clearance and tread height for spiral stairs?
Tread height are taller than standard stairs to accommodate the minimum head clearance.
- Minimum head clearance is 6'-6"
- Tread hight can not exceed 9.5"
- At 12" away from the center, the tread depth cannot be less than 7.5"
112
A _____ tread is generally safest.
wider
113
When are auger borings generally used?
In sand or clay for shallow or intermediate depths because the auger cannot penetrate hard obstructions such as bedrock or hardpan soil.
114
What are form ties?
When pouring concrete, form ties are metal wires or rods used to hold the opposite sides of the form together and prevent collapse. Think: it ties the formwork together while the concrete cures.
115
What are flying forms?
Large fabricated sections of framework that are removed once the concrete has cured and reused in forming an identical section above. Often used in buildings with highly repetitive units.
116
Special care must be taken in the _____ process so that the _____ of galvanized steel rebar is not _____.
bending; coating; cracked
Special care must be taken in the _bending_ process so that the _coating_ of galvanized steel rebar is not _cracked_.
117
What is the numeric scale used to measure pH levels? What is considered acidic and what is considered alkaline?
0-14 with 7 being neutral.
- Materials with a pH lower than 7 are considered acidic.
- Materials with a pH above 7 are considered alkaline.
118
What is one of the typical causes of segregation when pouring concrete?
Dropping concrete long distances from the conveying device to the forms. Typically 5' is the maximum distance that concrete should be dropped.
119
How deep are control joints cut into a concrete slab?
1/4 the slab thickness
120
When are isolation joints used?
Often used to separate columns from slabs and slabs from foundations and other types of walls.
121
With regards to masonry units, what is a course?
A course is one continuous horizontal layer of masonry.
122
Hot rolling tends to _____ _____ in the metal, whereas cold rolling _____ the metal's _____ and _____ limit, but _____ its ductility.
eliminate flaws; increases; strength; elastic; decreases
Hot rolling tends to _eliminate_ _flaws_ in the metal, whereas cold rolling _increases_ the metal's _strength_ and _elastic_ limit but _decreases_ its ductility.
123
The strength of lumber is dependent on the _____ of the load relative to the _____ of the wood's grain.
direction; direction
124
Lumber is strongest when the load is _____ to the direction of the grain.
parallel
125
Match the following two: Coniferous and Deciduous to Softwood and Hardwood
Coniferous is softwood
| Deciduous is hardwood
126
What are the three types of Yard Lumber and what are their defining sizes?
Board: less than 2" thick; 2" or more wide
Dimensional: between 2" and 5" thick; 4" -12" or more wide
Timber: 5" or more thick; 5" or more wide
127
Beams and Stringers are defined as members at least _____ inches wide and having a depth of at least _____ inches _____ than the width.
5"; 2" greater.
Beams and Stringers are defined as members at least 5" wide and having a depth of at least 2" greater than the width.
128
Posts and Timbers are defined as members _____ x _____ and larger, with a depth not more than _____ greater than the width.
5"x5"; depth is NOT more than 2" greater than width
129
When the cell walls of wood are completely saturated but no water exists in the cell cavities, the wood is said to have reached its _____ _____ _____.
fiber saturation point
This point averages about 30% moisture content in all woods.
130
For wood to be considered "dry lumber" the moisture content cannot exceed _____%.
19%
131
For wood to be grademarked "kiln dry" the moisture content cannot exceed _____%.
15%
132
Particleboard is [more or less] dimensionally stable than plywood?
more
133
What is the difference between heartwood and sapwood?
Heartwood comes from the center of the tree and sapwood comes from the perimeter.
134
What are the three flame-spread groupings?
Class A: 0 - 25
Class B: 26 - 75
Class C: 76 - 200
135
What flame-spread grouping does wood typically fall under?
Class C: very few woods have ratings less than 75. If it is treated with a fire retardant, it can be lower.
136
Dampproofing should not be used on elements below the water table; these call for _____.
waterproofing
137
What does the "positive side" mean in regards to dampproofing?
The wet side
138
With regards to waterproofing, what do the following three mean: positive side, negative side, and blind side?
Positive side: applied to the wet side after installation (typically the exterior)
Negative side: applied to the dry side after installation (typically the interior)
Blind side: waterproofing applied before installation.
139
How far away should a tree be planted from a building?
No closer to the building than its eventual height, to prevent roots from clogging drains or interfering with the foundation wall.
140
The IRC requires a positive slope of what from the exterior wall?
1/2" per foot, for at least 6' (min 3" drop over 6' run)
141
What is permeance?
Permeance is the property of a material that prevents water vapor from diffusing through it.
142
What is the basic unit of permeance?
perm
In customary US units 1 perm = 1 grain of moisture per hour per squire foot per inch of mercury difference in vapor pressure.
1 perm = 1 gr/hr-ft^2-in Hg
143
Anything less than 1 perm is considered to be a _____ _____.
vapor retarder
144
Where should the vapor barrier be placed in a cold climate?
Should a vapor-permeable, vapor-impermeable, or no air barrier be used? If so, where should it get placed?
In cold climates, the vapor barrier should be placed on the warm inside of the insulation.
There should be a vapor-permeable air barrier placed on the opposite (cold) side of the insulation.
145
Where should the vapor barrier be placed in hot, humid climates?
Should a vapor-permeable, vapor-impermeable, or no air barrier be used? If so, where should it get placed?
In hot, humid climates, the vapor barrier should be placed on the warm outside of the insulation.
There should be a vapor-impermeable air barrier placed on the opposite (cooler/air-conditioned) side of the insulation.
146
Where should the vapor barrier be placed in mixed climatic regions?
Should a vapor-permeable, vapor-impermeable, or no air barrier be used? If so, where should it get placed?
In mixed climatic regions, a vapor-permeable air barrier should be placed outside the insulation, and no vapor retarders should be used.
This allows any vapor or condensation to pass through the wall in either direction.
147
How does the IBC define the three classes of vapor retarders (list name and numerical range).
Class I: perm rating less than or equal to 0.1; vapor impermeable (a real vapor barrier)
Class II: perm rating between 0.1 and 1.0; semi-impermeable
Class III: perm rating between 1.0 and 10; permeable
148
TRUE/FALSE: All loose-fill insulations do not require installation of a vapor retarder or vapor barrier.
FALSE. They DO require
149
When is loose-fill insulation mostly used?
In places where it is difficult to install other types of insulation. Such as in the cells of concrete block walls, plumbing chases, and attics.
150
What does LTTR stand for?
long-term thermal resistance
151
Because of its superior resistance to water absorption, _____ is the only insulation recommended for protected membrane roof systems and below-grade insulation.
XPS (extruded polystyrene)
152
When describing, estimating and ordering roofing materials, roofing area is referred to in _____. This is equal to _____ SF.
...referred to in "squares." A square = 100SF
153
Tile should be used only on roofs with slopes of _____ or _____.
4 in/ft or greater.
154
The minimum slope for metal roofs is _____.
3 in/ft
155
Although some manufacturers claim that their products are suitable for completely flat roofs, every roof should have at least a _____ slope over its entire surface with the slopes directing water to the _____.
1/4 in/ft; toward the roof drainage system
156
What is ballast on the roofing system?
the pebbles
157
Where should expansion joints be located?
- Where the wall direction changes in T-, L-, and U-shaped buildings;
- Where a low building portion abuts a higher, heavier section
158
Sealants are classified as low, intermediate and high performance, depending on the maximum amount of joint movement they can tolerate. What are they for each?
Low: +/- 5%
Medium: +/- 12%
High: 25% or more
159
The depth of the joint sealant should be _____ to the width for joints up to 1/2" wide; for joints from 1/2" to 1", the depth should be _____ the width. For wider joints, the sealant depth should not be greater than _____ the width.
equal; half; half
The depth of the joint sealant should be _equal_ to the width for joints up to 1/2" wide; for joints from 1/2" to 1", the depth should be _half_ the width. For wider joints, the sealant depth should not be greater than _half_ the width.
160
Hardware that can work on any hand of door is called _____ or _____.
reversible or nonhanded
161
The hand of the door is determined from the "outside" the door. The exterior of a building is considered the outside, as are the _____ and _____ sides of a room door.
hallway and lobby
162
In situations where the distinction is not clear, the outside is considered to be _____.
the side of the door where the hinge is not visible.
163
What is the standard thickness for a metal door?
1 3/4" (1.75")
164
When are steel frames almost exclusively required to be used?
When a fire rating of over 20 min is required.
165
What is the standard thickness for a hollow-core door?
1 3/8"
166
What is the standard thickness for a solid-core door?
1 3/4"
167
When are ball-bearing hinges required?
For fire-rated assemblies and on all doors with closures.
168
What is an astragal?
The vertical strip used between double doors to seal the opening, act as a door stop, or provide extra security when the doors are closed.
They may be fixed or removable.
169
Can electric bolts be used on exit doors?
No; there is no sure way to mechanically open the door if the bolt does not retract.
170
Fire-rated doors can have what two metal hinge options only?
steel and stainless steel hinges
171
Wire glass is considered by the IBC to have a fire rating of _____.
45 min.
172
What are two important dimensions when installing exterior glazing?
The face dimension (distance from glass to stop/frame) and the bite (depth the glass sits below the top of the face/frame)
173
If a glazing were labeled "D-H-W-90" what does that mean?
The glazing is appropriate for use in a door (D), or as a wall (W), meets the hose stream requirements (H), and has been tested for a 90-minute rating.
174
In three-coat work for lath and plaster, what are the names of the three coats?
First layer is scratch coat (~1/4" thick); followed by brown coat (~1/4" thick); then final finish coat (~1/8" thick)
175
Veneer plaster walls can be constructed to provide what hour fire-rating for the partition?
1- or 2- hour fire-rated partition
176
Explain the differences of: mosaic tile, wall tile, quarry tile, and paver tile.
- Mosaic tile: under 6 square inches
- Wall tile: 6 square inches or more
- Quarry tile: glazed or unglazed non-mosaic tile made by the extrusion method
- Paver tile: glazed or unglazed 6 square inches made by the dust-pressed method
177
Place the following in order of most water absorbing classification to least: vitreous tile, nonvitreous tile, impervious tile, semivitreous tile
- nonvitreous: 7% or more
- semivitreous: 3 % - 7%
- vitreous: 0.5% - 3%
- impervious: less than 0.5%
178
The space above the ceiling but under the floor above is called the what?
Plenum
179
When a return air plenum is used, according to the IMC what must be required for all plastic wiring?
All plastic wiring must run in metal conduit, or must be listed and labeled as plenum rated and installed accordingly.
180
The IBC requires that every structure be assigned a seismic design category, which is determined by what three factors?
- The soil conditions where the structure is located
- The risk (or occupancy) category
- The geographic location of the structure
181
What are the four risk (or occupancy) categories given in the IBC?
I: miscellaneous structures
II: standard occupancy structures
III: hazardous structures
IV: essential structures
182
What are the four basic types of wood flooring?
- Strip flooring
- Plank flooring
- Block flooring
- Solid block flooring
183
When are resilient wood floors used?
They are commonly used for theater stages, dance floors, and gymnasiums. They provide extra bounce and resiliency for these types of uses.
184
What are the two subtypes of static-free flooring?
Conductive and Static-dissipative
185
What are the three general methods of refining a project budget?
- Parameter method: i.e. instead of using one conglomerated sum for floor finishes, the cost is broken down into carpeting, vinyl tile, wood strip flooring, unfinished concrete, etc.
- Matrix costing: A matrix is drawn showing the various alternatives along one side and the individual elements that combine to produce the total cost of the alternatives on the other side.
- Unit cost method: The project is broken down into its individual building components and the labor needed to install them.
186
Overall, overhead and profit can total __ - __% of construction cost (note, this is just the % strictly for the contractors).
15% - 40%
- Overhead can range from 10-20% of construction cost.
- Profit can range from 5-20% of construction cost.
187
Life-cycle cost analysis (LCCA) takes into account what 5 elements?
- Initial cost of the item/system
- Cost of financing (paying for) the item/system
- Cost to operate the item/system
- Maintenance cost
- Cost for disposal
188
What is "residual value"?
The remaining value of the item/system at the end of the study period, which may be based on resale value, salvage value, value in place, or scrap value.
189
What is the difference between a life-cycle assessment (LCA) and life-cycle cost analysis (LCCA)?
A life-cycle assessment (LCA) analyses the environmental impact of a product or system over its entire life.
A life-cycle cost analysis (LCCA) analyses the cost to purchase, run and dispose of a product or system.
190
What are the six phases of Value Engineering, as established by the Society of American Value Engineers (SAVE)?
1) Gather information to better understand the project.
2) Perform functional analysis to understand and clarify the required functions.
3) Generate alternatives on how to accomplish the required functions.
4) Synthesize ideas and select the ones that are feasible for development into value improvements.
5) Select the best alternative for improving value.
6) Present the recommendations to the project stakeholders.
191
When is the best time to VE items?
During the schematic design and design development phases.
