Bacteriology quiz 1

Question 1

It is an open fronted type of cabinet that uses an exhaust fan to allow
movement of air going through the open front
a. Class I
b. Class II
c. Class III
d. Class IV

Answer 1

a. Class I

Question 2

It is appropriate for processing chemicals, radioisotopes and
carcinogens aside from biological samples treated with toxic or
hazardous chemicals. Airflow 0% recirculated and 100% exhausted.
a. Class I
b. Class III
c. Class II, Type A2
d. Class II, Type B2

Answer 2

d. Class II, Type B2

Question 3

A pathogen that can cause human or animal disease but is unlikely to
be a serious hazard to laboratory workers, the community, livestock,
or the environment.
a. Risk Group 1
b. Risk Group 2
c. Risk Group 3
d. Risk Group 4

Answer 3

b. Risk Group 2

Question 4

This is used in a gaseous form as a sterilant primarily in the
pharmaceutical and medical device manufacturing industries.
a. Hydrogen Peroxide
b. Peracetic Acid
c. Ethylene Oxide
d. None

Answer 4

b. Peracetic Acid

Question 5

This is a diphenyl ether that disrupts the cell wall. The reaction time is intermediate, and the persistence is excellent. It has good activity
against gram-positive bacteria, gram-negative bacteria, and viruses.
a. Hexachlorophene
b. Chloroxylenol
c. Chlorhexidine gluconate
d. Triclosan

Answer 5

d. Triclosan

Question 6

This is a saturated five-carbon dialdehyde that has broad spectrum activity and rapid killing action and remains active in the presence of organic matter.
a. Glutaraldehyde
b. Formaldehyde
c. Iodophors
d. None

Answer 6

a. Glutaraldehyde

Question 7

Denature proteins; make lipids soluble
a. Halogens
b. Alcohols
c. Aldehydes
d. Phenolics

Answer 7

b. Alcohols

Question 8

Disinfects and kills milk-borne pathogens and vegetative forms
a. Boiling water
b. Autoclave
c. Pasteurization
d. All of the above

Answer 8

c. Pasteurization

Question 9

What is the pH indicator of Simmons’ citrate medium?
a. Phenol red
b. Trypticase nitrate
c. HCl
d. Bromothymol blue

Answer 9

d. Bromothymol blue

Question 10

In DNase test medium what is added to the surface of the plate to precipitate unhydrolyzed DNA?
a. 1N HCl
b. 1 ml of xylene
c. both
d. neither

Answer 10

a. 1N HCl

Question 11

Which of the following biochemical test uses p-dimethylaminobenzaldehyde (PDAB) as a reagent?
a. DNase
b. Indole
c. Citrate Utilization
d. All

Answer 11

b. Indole

Question 12

This is a broth containing glucose; peptones; two pH indicators, bromocresol purple and cresol red; and the specific amino acid at a concentration of 1%. The medium has an initial pH of 6.0.
a. Simmons’ Citrate medium
b. Moeller decarboxylate base medium
c. Both
d. Neither

Answer 12

b. Moeller decarboxylate base medium

Question 13

What is the purpose of α-naphthol in the Voges-Proskauer Test?
a. Maintains pH
b. pH indicator
c. Catalyst or color intensifier
d. All of the choices

Answer 13

c. Catalyst or color intensifier

Question 14

Glucose is metabolized by the mixed acid fermentation pathway.
a. Voges-Proskauer Test
b. Malonate Utilization Test
c. Nitrite Reduction
d. Methyl Red test

Answer 14

d. Methyl Red test

Question 15

What is the positive result in Malonate Utilization test?
a. Red
b. Yellow
c. Purple
d. Blue

Answer 15

d. Blue

Question 16

What color in the Motility indole ornithine (MIO) agar indicates Ornithine decarboxylation?
a. Red
b. Yellow
c. Purple
d. Blue

Answer 16

c. Purple

Question 17

What test uses N,N-dimethyl-α-naphthylamine and sulfanilic acid as reagents?
a. Nitrate reduction
b. Malonate utilization
c. Methyl Red Test
d. Motility Indole Ornithine

Answer 17

a. Nitrate Reduction

Question 18

What test uses tetramethyl-ρ-phenylenediamine dihydrochloride as reagent?
a. Christensen’s urea
b. Kovac’s oxidase test
c. MIO
d. None

Answer 18

b. Kovac’s oxidase test

Question 19

This test determines whether a microorganism can hydrolyze urea, releasing a sufficient amount of ammonia to produce a color change by a pH indicator.
a. Oxidase Test
b. Sulfide Indole Motility
c. Urease test
d. Nitrate Test

Answer 19

c. Urease Test

Question 20

What is the enzyme being detected in the ONPG test?
a. Tryptophanase
b. Catalase
c. Cytochrome-c oxidase
d. β-Galactosidase

Answer 20

d. β-Galactosidase

Question 21

This is for the presumptive identification of E. coli and Streptococcus anginosus group; enterohemorrhagic E. coli is negative
a. ONPG
b. PYR
c. MUG
d. LAP

Answer 21

c. MUG

Question 22

In Nucleic acid hybridization test, what is referred to as the target strand?
a. Target
b. Template
c. Probe
d. Oligonucleotide

Answer 22

b. Template

Question 23

This is used to detect RNA molecules, which are almost always transcript (messenger RNA, mRNA).
a. In solution hybridization
b. Southern Blot
c. Northern Blot
d. In situ hybridization

Answer 23

c. Northern Blot

Question 24

A technique whereby chromosomal DNA could be separated by agarose gel electrophoresis and then transferred to and immobilized on a nitrocellulose membrane.
a. In solution hybridization
b. Southern Blot
c. Northern Blot
d. In situ hybridization

Answer 24

b. Southern Blot

Question 25

In this hybridization method, DNA or RNA transcript can be detected directly in tissue with labeled probes. The technique is often performed directly in tissue that has been embedded in paraffin.
a. In solution hybridization
b. Southern Blot
c. Northern Blot
d. In situ hybridization

Answer 25

d. In situ hybridization

Question 26

The goal of this step is to hybridize, oligonucleotide primers to the denatured, single-stranded target DNA strands.
a. Primer Annealing
b. Denaturation
c. Primer Extension
d. None

Answer 26

a. Primer Annealing