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Microbiology Misc > Bacteriology: Gram-Positive Bacteria > Flashcards

Bacteriology: Gram-Positive Bacteria Flashcards

1
Q

Gram positive cocci in clusters

A

Staphylococcus

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2
Q

Gram positive cocci in chains

A

Streptococcus

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3
Q

Gram positive cocci in clusters: catalase (+), coagulase (+)

A

Staphylococcus aureus

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4
Q

Gram positive cocci in clusters: catalase (+), coagulase (-), novobiocin sensitive

A

Staphylococcus epidermidis

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5
Q

Gram positive cocci in clusters: catalase (+), coagulase (-), novobiocin resistant

A

Staphylococcus saprophyticus

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6
Q

Responsible for gold color of S. aureus

A

staphyloxanthine

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7
Q

S. aureus virulence factor: prevents complement activation

A

protein A

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8
Q

S. aureus virulence factor: builds an insoluble fibrin capsule

A

coagulase

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9
Q

S. aureus virulence factor: specific for WBCs

A

Panton-Valentin leukocidin

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10
Q

S. aureus virulence factor: detoxifies hydrogen peroxide

A

catalase

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11
Q

S. aureus virulence factor: inactivates penicillin derivatives

A

penicillinase

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12
Q

S. aureus virulence factor: causes epidermal separation leading to SSSS

A

exfoliatin

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13
Q

S. aureus virulence factor: superantigen leading to toxic shock syndrome

A

TSST-1

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14
Q

S. aureus virulence factor: causes marked necrosis of the skin and hemolysis

A

alpha toxin

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15
Q

In infective endocarditis involving S. aureus, ______ valves are affected, usually the tricuspid and among IV drug abusers.

A

native

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16
Q

Sequestered focus of osteomyelitis arising in the metaphyseal area of a long bone

A

Brodie abscess

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17
Q

In SSSS, exfoliatin cleaves ______ in desmosomes, leading to separation of the epidermis along the stratum granulosum.

A

desmoglein

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18
Q

Two usual scenarios leading to toxic shock syndrome

A

use of tampons among menstruating women + nasal packing for epistaxis

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19
Q

Drug of choice for MRSA

A

vancomycin

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20
Q

Drug of choice for VRSA

A

linezolid

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21
Q

S. epidermidis is the most common cause of prosthetic valve endocarditis as it is prone to forming a _______ for additional adhesion.

A

biofilm

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22
Q

Gram positive cocci in chains: catalase (-), α hemolytic, bile-optochin-sensitive

A

Streptococcus pneumoniae

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23
Q

Gram positive cocci in chains: catalase (-), α hemolytic, bile-optochin-resistant

A

Viridans streptococci

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24
Q

Gram positive cocci in chains: catalase (-), β hemolytic, bacitracin sensitive

A

Streptococcus pyogenes

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25
Q

Gram positive cocci in chains: catalase (-), β hemolytic, bacitracin resistant

A

Streptococcus agalactiae

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26
Q

Group A streptococci

A

Streptococcus pyogenes

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27
Q

Group B streptococci

A

Streptococcus agalactiae

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28
Q

Gram positive cocci in chains: catalase (-), γ hemolytic

A

Group D streptococci

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29
Q

Two bacteria that will result in a positive PYR test

A

Streptococcus pyogenes, Group D streptococci

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30
Q

S. pyogenes virulence factor: also known as spreading factor; degrades hyaluronic acid

A

hyaluronidase

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31
Q

S. pyogenes virulence factor: also known as fibrinolysin; activates plasminogen

A

streptokinase

32
Q

S. pyogenes virulence factor: inactivates complement C5A

A

C5A peptidase

33
Q

S. pyogenes virulence factor: produces scarlet fever

A

erythrogenic toxin

34
Q

S. pyogenes virulence factor: highly antigenic, causes Ab formation

A

streptolysin O

35
Q

S. pyogenes virulence factor: superantigen similar to TSST

A

pyogenic exotoxin A

36
Q

S. pyogenes virulence factor: protease that rapidly destroys tissue, leading to necrotizing fasciitis

A

exotoxin B

37
Q

In scarlet fever, test for susceptibility

A

Dick test

38
Q

In acute rheumatic fever, antibodies to _______ in the S. pyogenes cell wall cross-react with antigens of the joint, heart and brain tissue, leading to disease manifestations.

A

M proteins

39
Q

Drug of choice for S. pyogenes, S. agalactiae infection

A

Penicillin G

40
Q

Spectrum of disease includes UTI in pregnant women and endometritis (polymicrobial); most common cause of neonatal pneumonia, sepsis and meningitis

A

Streptococcus agalactiae

41
Q

Group D streptococci: Cause of endocarditis in patients who underwent GIT surgery

A

Enterococcus faecalis

42
Q

Group D streptococci: Cause of marantic endocarditis in patients with abdominal malignancy

A

Streptococcus bovis

43
Q

Positive Quellung reaction (capsular swelling)

A

Streptococcus pneumoniae

44
Q

Gram positive rods: spore-forming, aerobic, nonmotile, boxcar-shaped

A

Bacillus anthracis

45
Q

Gram positive rods: spore-forming, aerobic, motile, associated with reheated fried rice

A

Bacillus cereus

46
Q

Gram positive rods: spore-forming, anaerobic, tennis racket shaped

A

Clostridium tetani

47
Q

Gram positive rods: spore-forming, anaerobic, bulging cans

A

Clostridium botulinum

48
Q

Gram positive rods: spore-forming, anaerobic, lecithinase positive, gas-forming

A

Clostridium perfringens

49
Q

Gram positive rods: spore-forming, anaerobic, forms pseudomembranes

A

Clostridium difficile

50
Q

Gram positive rods: non-spore-forming, aerobic, nonmotile, curved, look like Chinese characters

A

Corynebacterium diphtheriae

51
Q

Gram positive rods: non-spore-forming, aerobic, curved, with tumbling motility

A

Listeria monocytogenes

52
Q

Congenital asplenia; need pneumococcal and meningococcal vaccines

A

Ivemark syndrome

53
Q

Drug of choice for cutaneous anthrax

A

Ciprofloxacin

54
Q

Bacillus cereus: Heat-labile _____-like enterotoxin causes ADP ribosylation, increasing cAMP.

A

cholera

55
Q

Bacillus cereus: Heat-stable _____-like enterotoxin functions as a superantigen.

A

staphylococcal

56
Q

Drug of choice for tetanus

A

Metronidazole

57
Q

Tetanus toxin is a protease that cleaves proteins involved in the release of _____ from Renshaw cells in the spinal cord.

A

glycine

58
Q

Botulinum toxin blocks ACh release, causing ______ paralysis.

A

flaccid

59
Q

C. perfringens: lecithinase that cleaves cell membranes; responsible for gas gangrene

A

alpha toxin

60
Q

Treatment for gas gangrene from C. perfringens infection

A

Penicillin G

61
Q

As antibiotics suppress growth of normal gut flora, this bacteria is able to grow as exotoxins A and B inhibit GTPases.

A

Clostridium difficile

62
Q

Cause of pseudomembranous pharyngitis

A

Corynebacterium diphtheriae

63
Q

Cause of pseudomembranous colitis

A

Clostridium difficile

64
Q

Cause of pseudomembranous esophagitis

A

Candida albicans

65
Q

Antibiotic treatment for C. difficile infection

A

Metronidazole

66
Q

Metachromatic granules in C. diphtheriae

A

Babes-Ernst granules (volutin granules)

67
Q

Detection of C. diphtheriae toxigenicity

A

Modified Elek test

68
Q

Corynebacterium diphtheriae exotoxin inhibits protein synthesis by adding ADP-ribose to this growth factor.

A

Elongation factor-2 (EF-2)

69
Q

Encoder of C. diphtheriae exotoxin

A

β-prophage

70
Q

Antibiotic treatment for C. diphtheriae infection

A

Penicillin G

71
Q

L. monocytogenes: characteristic paradoxical growth in cold temperature

A

cold enhancement

72
Q

L. monocytogenes: transmitted through ingestion of unpasteurized _____ products

A

milk

73
Q

L. monocytogenes virulence factor: interacts with E-cadherin on the cell surface

A

internalin

74
Q

L. monocytogenes virulence factor: escape from phagosomes

A

listeriolysin

75
Q

L. monocytogenes virulence factor: propels the bacteria through the membrane of one human cell and into another

A

actin rockets

76
Q

Antibiotic treatment for L. monocytogenes infection

A

Ampicillin

Microbiology Misc (3 decks)

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