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MICRO - FirstAid > Bacteriology > Flashcards

Bacteriology Flashcards

1
Q

Do not Gram stain well - which organisms?

A

“These Microbes May Lack Real Color” -Treponema (too thin need darkfield and fluorescent antibody staining) -Mycobacteria (high lipid content in cell wall detected by carbolfuchsin in acid fast stain) -Mycoplasma (no cell wall) -Legionella pneumophila (primairy intracellular - need silver stain) -Rickettsia (intracellular parasite) -Chlamydia (intracellular parasite, lacks muramic acid in cell wall)

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2
Q

Giemsa stain - which organisms?

A

“Certain Bugs Really Try my Patience” -Chlamydia -Borrelia -Rickettsiae -TRYpanosomes -Plasmodium

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3
Q

PAS (periodic acids-Schiff) stains what component of organism?

A

STAINS GLYCOGEN

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4
Q

Ziehl_Neelsen (carbol fuchsin) stains what organsims?

A

-acid-fast stain -Nocardia -Mycobacterium

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5
Q

India Ink stains what organism?

A

-Cryptococcus neoformans

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6
Q

H influenzae media is

A

chocolate agar with factors V (NAD+) and X (Hematin)

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7
Q

N gonorrhoeae and meningitidis media:

A

-thayer-martin (or VPN) media: -Vancomycin (inhibits gram+ organisms) -Polymyxin (inhi gram- organisms except neiseria -Nystain (inh fungi) “to connect to Neisseria please use your VPN client”

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8
Q

b pertussis media:

A

-bordet-engou (potato) agar -“BORDET for BORDETella”

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9
Q

C diphtheriae media

A

tellurite agar - Loffler medium

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10
Q

M tuberculosis media

A

Lowenstein-Jensen agar

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11
Q

M. pneumoniae media

A

Eaton agar requires cholesterol

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12
Q

Lactose-fermenting enterics media

A

-pink colonies on MacConkey agar (fermentation produces agar=pink colony) -E Coli grown on eosin-metylene blue (EMB) agar as colonies with green metallic sheen

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13
Q

Legionella media

A

charcoal yeast extract agar buffered with cysteine and iron

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14
Q

Fungi

A

-SABouraud agar “SABs a FUN-GUY”

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15
Q

Obligate aerobes - do what to make ATP? examples?

A

-need O2 to make ATP “Nagging Pests Must Breathe” -Nocardia -Psuedomonas aeruginosa -MycoBacterium tuberculosis

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16
Q

obigate anaerobes - do what to make ATP? Examples?

A

-do not use O2 for ATP production “Anaerobes Can’t Breathe Air” -Clostridium -Bacteroides -Actinomyces

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17
Q

What drug type is ineffective against obligate anaerobes and why?

A

-aminO2glycosides -this antibiotic requires O2 to enter into bacterial cell

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18
Q

Obligate Intracellular organisms:

A

“stay inside (cells) when it’s Really Cold” -Rickettsia -Chlamydia

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19
Q

Which organisms CANT MAKE THEIR OWN ATP?

A

-Rickettsia and Chlamydia (obligate intracellular)

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20
Q

Faculative intracellular organisms:

A

“Some Nasty Bugs May Live FaculativeLY” -Salmonella -Neisseria -Brucella -Mycobacterium

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21
Q

Encapsulated bacteria examples:

A

“SHiNE SKiS” -Strep pneumoniae -Haemophilus influenzae type B -Neisseria meningitidis -Escherichia coli -Salmonella -Klebsiella pneumoniae -group B Strep

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22
Q

Catalase + organisms

A

“you need PLACESS for your CATs” -Pseudomonas -Listeria -Aspergillus -Candida -E Coli -S aureus -Serratia -CAT=catalase degrades H202 that we produce to protect our bodies

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23
Q

NADPH oxidase deficient individuals -info

A

-cant make H202 (oxidative burst with NADPH oxidase) = gchronic granulomatous disease = recurrent infections with catalase + organisms

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24
Q

urease positive organisms:

A

“CHuck norris hates PUNKSS” -Cryptococcus -H pylori -Proteus -Ureaplasma -Nocardia -Klebsiella -S epidermidis -S Saprophyticus

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25
Q

pigment producing bacteria examples and colors

A

-“Israel has YELLOW SAND” = Actinomyces israelii - yellow sulfur granules composed of filaments of bacteria -S aureus - YELLOW pigment - “aureus means GOLD in latin” -Peudomonas AERUGinosa - blue-GREEN pigments -“AERUGula is GREEN” -Serratia MARCESCENS -RED pigment - “think RED MARASCHINO cherries”

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26
Q

Bacterial virulence factors (3) - what do they do?

A

-PROMOTE EVASION OF HOST IMMUNE RESPONSE -protein A = binds Fc region of IgG = prevents opsonization and phagocytosis - expressed by S Aureus -IgA protease = enzyme that cleaves IgA - secreted by S pneumoniae, H Influenzae type B and Neisseria (SHiN) in order to colonize respiratory mucosa -M protein = helps prevent phagocytosis - expressed by group A streptococci

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27
Q

-protein A is what? does what? and what organism(s)?

A
  • bacterial virulence factor -binds Fc region of IgG -prevents opsonization and phagocytosis - expressed by S Aureus
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28
Q

-IgA protease is what? does what? and what organism(s)?

A
  • bacterial virulence factor enzyme that cleaves IgA -secreted by S pneumoniae, H Influenzae type B and Neisseria (SHiN) in order to colonize respiratory mucosa
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29
Q

-M protein is what? does what? and what organism(s)?

A
  • bacterial virulence factor -helps prevent phagocytosis - expressed by group A streptococci
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30
Q

bacteria that inhibit protein synthesis

A

-corynebacterium diphtheriae -pseudomonas aeruginosa -shigella spp -Enterohemorrhagic E Coli (EHEC - including O157:H7 strain)

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31
Q

-corynebacterium diphtheriae 1) toxin? 2) mechanism? 3) manifestation?

A

1) diphtheria toxin (A-B toxin=B-binds and A is active and attaches to ADP-ribosyl) 2) inactivates EF-2 - elongation factor 3) pharyngitis with pseudomembranes in throat; severe lymphadenopathy (bull neck)

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32
Q

-pseudomonas aeruginosa 1) toxin? 2) mechanism? 3) manifestation?

A

1) Exotoxin A (A-B toxin=B-binds and A is active and attaches to ADP-ribosyl) 2) inactivates EF-2 - elongation factor 3) host cell death

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33
Q

-shigella spp 1) toxin? 2) mechanism? 3) manifestation?

A

1) Shiga toxin (ST) (A-B toxin=B-binds and A is active and attaches to ADP-ribosyl) 2) inactivates 60S ribosome by removing adenine from RNA 3) GI mucosal damage –> dysentery ST also enhances cytokine release = hemolytic uremic syndrome (HUS)

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34
Q

-Enterohemorrhagic E Coli (EHEC - including O157:H7 strain) 1) toxin? 2) mechanism? 3) manifestation?

A

1) Shiga-like toxin (SLT) (A-B toxin=B-binds and A is active and attaches to ADP-ribosyl) 2) inactivates 60S ribosome by removing adenine from RNA 3) SLT enhaces cytokine release = HUS unlke Shigella EHEC does not invade host cells

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35
Q

bacteria that increase fluid secretion:

A

-Enterotoxigenic E Coli (ETEC) -Bacillus anthracis -Vibrio cholerae

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36
Q

-Enterotoxigenic E Coli (ETEC) 1) toxin? 2) mechanism? 3) manifestation?

A

1a) Heat-LABILE toxin (LT) - (A-B toxin=B-binds and A is active and attaches to ADP-ribosyl) 2a) overactivates adenylate cyclase (Increase cAMP) –> increase Cl secretion in gut and H20 efflux 1b) Heat-STABLE toxin (ST) 2b) overactivates guanylate cyclase (increase cGMP) –> decrease resorption of NaCl and H20 in guy 3) watery diarrhea; “LABILE in the Air (Adenylate cyclase)” “STABLE on the Ground (Guanylate cyclase)”

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37
Q

-Bacillus anthracis 1) toxin? 2) mechanism? 3) manifestation?

A

1) Edema factor 2) mimics the adenylate cyclase enzyme (increase cAMP) 3) responsible for characteristic edematous borders of black eschar in cutaneous anthrax

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38
Q

-Vibrio cholerae 1) toxin? 2) mechanism? 3) manifestation?

A

1) Cholera toxin (A-B toxin=B-binds and A is active and attaches to ADP-ribosyl) 2) overactivates adenylate cyclase (increase cAMP) by permanently activating Gs –> increase Cl secretion in gut and H2O efflux 3) Vluminous “RICE-water” diarrhea

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39
Q

bacteria that inhibit phagocytic ability:

A

-bordetella pertussis

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40
Q

-bordetella pertussis 1) toxin? 2) mechanism? 3) manifestation?

A

1) Pertussis toxin (A-B toxin=B-binds and A is active and attaches to ADP-ribosyl) 2) overactivates adenylate cyclase (increase cAMP) by disabling Gi –> impairs phagocytosis to permit survival 3) WHOOPING COUGH - child coughs on EXPIRATION and WHOOPS on INSPIRATION Can cause 100-day cough in adults

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41
Q

bacteria that inhibit release of neurotransmitter

A

-clostridium tetani -clostridium botulinum

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42
Q

-clostridium tetani 1) toxin? 2) mechanism? 3) manifestation?

A

1) tetanospasmin 2) protease that cleaves SNARE proteins required for neurotrans release 3) spastricity, risus sardonicus and “lockjaw” toxin prevents release of INHIBITORY (GABA and glycine) neurotransmitters from renshaw cells in spinal cord

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43
Q

-clostridium botulinum 1) toxin? 2) mechanism? 3) manifestation?

A

1) botulinum toxin 2) protease that cleaves SNARE proteins required for neurotrans release 3) flaccid paralysis, floppy baby toxin prevents release of STIMULATORY (ACh) signals at neuromuscular junctions

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44
Q

bacteria that lyse cell membranes

A

-clostridium perfringens -Streptococcus pyogenes

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45
Q

-clostridium perfringens 1) toxin? 2) mechanism? 3) manifestation?

A

1) alpha toxin 2) produces alpha toxin - phospholipase (lecithinase) that degrades tissue and cell membranes 3) degredation of phospholipids –> myonecrosis (gas gangrene) and hemolysis (double zone of hemolysis on blood agar)

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46
Q

-Streptococcus pyogenes 1) toxin? 2) mechanism? 3) manifestation?

A

1) streptolysin O 2) degrades cell membrane 3) lyses RBC - contributes to beta hemolysis host antibodies against toxin (ASO) used to diagnose rheumatic fever (DO NOT CONFUSE WITH IMMUNE COMPLEXES OF POSTSTREPTOCOCCAL GLOMERULONEPHRITIS)

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47
Q

bacterial that have superantigens that cause shock

A

-staphylococcus aureus -streptococcus pyogenes

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48
Q

-staphylococcus aureus 1) toxin? 2) mechanism? 3) manifestation?

A

1) toxic shock syndrome toxin (TSST-1) 2) bring MHC II and TCR in proximity to outside of antigen binding site to cause overwhelming release of IFN-gamma (y) and IL-2 = SHOCK 3) toxic shock syndrome: fever, ras, shock-other toxin cause scalded skin syndrome (exfoliative toxin) and food poisoning (enterotoxin)

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49
Q

-streptococcus pyogenes 1) toxin? 2) mechanism? 3) manifestation?

A

1) Exotoxin 2) bring MHC II and TCR in proximity to outside of antigen binding site to cause overwhelming release of IFN-gamma (y) and IL-2 = SHOCK 3) toxic shock syndrome: fever, rash, shock

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50
Q

ENDOTOXIN is what and causes?

A

-Its a LPS found in outer membrane of gram neg bacteria (cocci and rods) -activates macrophages (IL1-fever, TNF-fever and hypotension, nitric oxide-hypotension) -activates complement (C3a-hypotension & edema; C5a-neutrophil chemotaxis) -activates tissue factor (coagulation cascade –> DIC)

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51
Q

ENDOTOXIN mnemonic?

A

E=edema N=nitric oxide D=DIC/DEATH O=Outer membrane T=TNF-alpha O=O-antigen X=eXtremely stable I=IL-1 N=Neutrophil chemotaxis

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52
Q

5 bacterial toxins that are encoded in a lysogenic phage:

A

“ABCDE” -shigA-like toxin -Botulinum toxin -Cholera toxin -Diphtheria toxin -Erythrogenic toxin of Strep pyogenes

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53
Q

Staphylococcus Aureus - 1) Gram stain, virulence factor, and appearance 2) commonly colonizes the… 3) catalase + or - ? 4) coagulase + or - ?

A

1) G+, Protein A (finds Fc-IgG inhibiting complement and phagocytosis), cocci in clusters 2) NOSE 3) Catalase + 4) coagulase +

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54
Q

Staphylococcus Aureus - causes what potential issues?

A

1) Inflammatory disease - skin infections, organ abscesses, pneumonia (often after influenza virus infection), endocarditis, and osteomyelitis 2) Toxin mediated disease - toxic shock syndrome (TSST-1), scalded skin syndrome (exfoliative toxin), rapid-onset food poisoning (enterotoxins) 3) MRSA infection (methicillin resistant S. Aureus) - cause of nosocomial and community acquired infections, resistant to methicillin and nafcillin because of altered penicillin-binding protein

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55
Q

Staph Aureus toxic shock syndrome mechanism for illness?

A

-TSST-1 superantigen binds to MHC II and T-cell receptor = polyclonal t-cell activation -Presents as fever, vomiting, rash, desquamation, shock, & end organ failure. -vaginal or nasal tampons predispose to TSS

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56
Q

Staph Aureus food poisoning - how get sick? incubation period?

A

-ingestion of preormed toxin - NOT destroyed by cookied (heat stabile) -incubation period is short (2-6hrs)

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57
Q

Staphylococcus epidermidis - 1) antibiotic lab testing? 2) catalase +/-? 3) coagulase +/-? 4) infects what objects and produces what kind of appearance grossly? 5) normal flora? if yes, where?

A

1) novobiocin sensitive 2) catalase + 3) coagulase - 4) infects prosthetic devices and intravenous catheters –> produces adherent biofilms 5) yes - of the skin

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58
Q

Staphylococcus saprophyticus 1) antibiotic lab testing? 2) catalase +/- ? 3) coagulase +/- ? 4) causes what illness?

A

1) novobiocin resistant 2) catalase + 3) coagulase - 4) second most common cause of uncomplicated UTI in young women (E Coli is first)

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59
Q

Streptococcus pneumoniae- 1) Catalase test? 2) other distinguishing lab test? 3) capsule y/n and bile solubility? 4) antibiotic test? 5) gram stain?

A

1) Catalase - 2) alpha hemolytic (Green partial hemolysis) 3) capusle YES and bile soluble (lysed by bile) 4) Optochin sensitive 5) gram +

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60
Q

Streptococcus pneumoniae- 1) most common cause of: 2) appearance grossly? 3) what is needed for virulence?

A

1) “s pMOPS are Most OPtochin Sensitive” M-Meningitis O-Otitis Media (children) P-Pneumonia S-Sinusitis 2) lancet shape gram positive diplococci 3) Capsule is needed for virulence

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61
Q

Rusty sputum in individual - causative organism?

A

streptococcus pneuomniae

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62
Q

Steptococcus pneumoniae causes sepsis in individuals with what conditions?

A

sickle cell anemia and patients with a splenectomy

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63
Q

viridans group sreptococci- (strep mutans) 1) go through lab testing in head… 2) bile sensitivity? 3) capsule y/n?

A

1) gram + –> catalase - –> hemo alpha –> optochin resistant 2) bile insoluble - not lysed 3) no capsule

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64
Q

viridans group streptococci- (strep mutans)- 1) normal flora where? 2) usually cause what problem?

A

1) normal in the mouth 2) cause dental caries

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65
Q

viridans group strep- streptococcus sanguinis 1) causes what? 2) go through lab testing in head…

A

1) subacute bacterial endocarditis at damaged heart valves- makes dextrans which bind to fibrin-platelet aggregates on damaged heart valves “sanguis = blood in latin” 2) gram + –> catalase - –> hemo alpha –> optochin resistant

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66
Q

streptococcus pyogenes- 1) what group strep? 2) go through lab testing in head… 3) has what virulence factor- what does this factor do?

A

1) group A strep 2) Gram + –> catalase - –> beta-hemolytic –> bacitracin sensitive 3) M-protein - prevents phagocytosis

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67
Q

streptococcus pyogenes- 1) causes what illnesses in body? 2) what test detects recent S pyogenes infection?

A

1) pyogenic - pharyngitis, cellulitis, impetigo; toxigenic - scarlet fever, toxic shock-like syndrome, necrotizing fasciitis; immunogenic - rheumatic fever, acute glomerulonephritis 2) ASO titer

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68
Q

JONES criteria for rheumatic fever (O is in a heart shape)

A

J-Joints - polyarthritis O- (heart shape O for mnemonic) carditis N- nodules (subcutaneous) E- Eryhtema marginatum S- Syndenham chorea

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69
Q

pharyngitis can result in rheumatic fever and glomerulonephritis with which organism?

A

Strep pyogenes

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70
Q

scarlet fever - 1) presentation 2) causative organism?

A

1) rash with sandpaper like texture strawberry tongue circumoral pallor 2) strep pyogenes

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71
Q

Streptococcus agalactiae- 1) which group strep? 2) go through lab testing in head… 3) hippurate test +/-? 4)

A

1) group B strep 2) Gram + –> catalase - –> beta-hemolytic –> bacitracin resistant

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72
Q

strep agalactiae - 1) colonizes where? 2) causes what illnesses in what population?

A

1) colonizes vagina 2) pneumonia, meningitis, sepsis MAINLY IN BABIES ( GROUP B - B FOR BABIES)

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73
Q

prego women testing for strep agalatiae- 1) when? 2) treatment?

A

1) 35-37 weeks 2) intrapartum peniciilin prophylaxis

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74
Q

Enterococci Faecalis and Faecium 1) what group? 2) go through lab testing in your head…

A

1) Group D strep 2) gram pos –> catalase neg –> gamma hemo –> growth in bile and 6.5% NaCl

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75
Q

Enterococcus faecalis and faecium- 1) Normal flora? 2) Cause what illnesses?

A

1) yes normal in colon 2) cause UTI, biliary tract infection, ,subacute endocarditis

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76
Q

Streptococcus bovis - 1) go through lab testing in head… 2) flora where? 3) causes what?

A

1) gram pos –> catalase neg –> gamma hemo 2) normal in guy 3) causes bacteremia and subacute endocarditis in colon cancer patients “Bovis in the Blood = Cancer in the Colon”

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77
Q

Corynebacterium diphtheriae- 1) go through lab testing in head… 2) gross appearance:

A

1) Gram pos –>********************************************* 2) rods with metachromatic (blue and red) granules

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78
Q

What test for C. diphtheriae toxin?

A

Elek test for toxin

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79
Q

Corynebacterium diphtheriae- 1) symptoms of infection: 2) what agar and what color colonies?

A

1) pseudomembraneous pharyngitis (grayish-white membrane) with lymphadenopathy, myocarditis, and arrhythmias 2) cystine tellurite agar - black colonies

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80
Q

Spore forming bacterias that are found in soil:

A

-bacillus anthracis -clostridium perfringns -clostridium tetani

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81
Q

Spore forming bacteria - others (not in soil I guess)

A

-B. cereus -C botulinum -Coxiella burnetti

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82
Q

Gram positive, spore forming obligate anaerobic bacteria:

A

-C tetani -C botulinum -C perfringens -C difficile

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83
Q

floppy baby syndrome usually caused by what organism and how did baby get?

A

caused by clostridium botulinum parents gave baby contaminated honey

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84
Q

Clostridium difficile 1) what toxin(s)? what do toxin(s) do? 2) diagnosis? 3) treatment:

A

1) Toxin A-enterotoxin-binds to the brush border of the gut Toxin B- cytotoxin-causes cytoskeletal disruption via actin depolymerization –>pseudomembraneous colitis –> diarrhea 2) detect one or both toxins in poop 3) metronidazole or oral vancomycin; may need fecal transplant if recurrent

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85
Q

only organism with a polypeptide capsule that contains D-glutamate?

A

bacillus anthracis

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86
Q

anthrax is caused by what organism?

A

bacillus anthracis

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87
Q

Bacillus anthracis: 1) lab testing stuff: 2) toxin produced? 3) disease caused? 4) special detail about its capsule

A

1) gram + –> spore-forming rod 2) anthrax toxin 3) anthrax durp 4) only polypeptide capsule that contains D-glutamate

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88
Q

Cutaneous anthrax- 1) appearance? 2) pain? 3) progression?

A

1) boil-like lesion –> ulcer with black eschar - necrotic 2) painless 3) uncommonly progresses to bacteremia and death

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89
Q

pulmonary anthrax: 1) How do you get this disease? 2) symptoms and progression? 3) What profession most likely to get?

A

1) inhalation of spores 2) flu-like symptoms that progresses to fever, pulmonary hemorrhage, mediastinitis, and shock 3) Woolsorter’s disease - inhalation of spores from contaminated woool

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90
Q

Woolsorters disease is? caused by?

A

pulmonary anthrax by bacillus anthracis spores

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91
Q

Bacillus cereus 1) what condition? 2) types?

A

1) -causes food poisoning -spores survive cooking rice –> warm rice results in germination of spores and enterotoxin formation 2) types: -EMETIC TYPE: RICE AND PASTA - nausea and vomiting 1-5hrs - preformedtoxin=cereulide -Diarrheal type - watery, non-bloody diarrhea and GI pain within 8-18hrs

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92
Q

Emetic type food poisoning 1) food type? 2) organism? 3) toxin? 4) symptoms

A

1) pasta and rice 2) bacillus cereus 3) preformed enterotoxin - cereulide 4) nausea and vomiting within 1-5hrs

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93
Q

-Diarrheal type - 1) organism 2) symptoms

A

1) bacillus cereus 2) watery, non-bloody diarrhea and GI pain within 8-18hrs

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94
Q

Reheated rice syndrome organism?

A

Bacillus cereus - preformed toxins = food poisoning

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95
Q

Listeria monocytogenes: 1) lab testing stuff? 2) how to get this fun orgnaism? 3) How do these guys invade/infect? 4) y/n motility? 5) toxin?

A

1) gram + –> faculative intracellular 2) aqcuired by ingestion of unpasteurized dairy and deli meats or via transplacental transmission or by vaginal transmission during birth 3) these guys form “rocket tails” (actin polymerization) –> move through cytoplasms and into cell membrane (AVOIDS ANTIBODIES) 4) YES motility - tumbling 5) only g+ to produce LPS

96
Q

Eating unpasteurized dairy products and deli meats - organism?

A

listeria monocytogenes

97
Q

Only Gram + organism to produce LPS?

A

listeria monocytogenes

98
Q

Listeria monocytogenes: 1) review lab testing and motility… 2) causes what issues? 3) Tx?

A

1) gram + (WITH LPS!!!) –> faculative intracellular —– tumbling motility 2) amnionitis; septicemia; spontaneous abortion; granulomatosis infantiseptica; neonatal meningitis; meningitis in immunocomp; and mind gastroenteritis in healthy people 3) usually self-limiting in most; infants, immunocomp, and elderly use ampicillin for meningitis

99
Q

Actinomyces israelii 1) appearance: 2) lab testing review: 3) where do they inhabit 4) causes what diseases? 5) treatment? Compare/contrast with nocardia

A

1) long, branching filaments that resemble fungi 2) gram + anaerobe –> NOT acid fast 3) normal oral flora 4) cause oral/facial abscesses that drain through sinus tracts - forms *yellow sulfur granules* – infect when normal flora disturbed due to injury or surgery 5) Treat with penicillin (THINK S.N.A.P.– S=sulfonamides for N=nocardia and A=actinomyces with Penicillin)

100
Q

Yellow sulfur granules draining from sinus tracts. the organism is?

A

actinomyces israeli

101
Q

Nocardia: 1)1) appearance: 2) lab testing review: 3) where do they inhabit 4) causes what diseases? 5) treatment? Compare/contrast with actinomyces

A

1) long, branching filaments that resemble fungi 2) gram + anaerobe –> weakly acid fast 3) found in *soil* and water 4) causes pulmonary infections in immunocompromised and cutaneous infections after trauma in immunocompetent 5) Treat with sulfonamide (TMP-SMX) – (THINK S.N.A.P.– S=sulfonamides for N=nocardia and A=actinomyces with Penicillin)

102
Q

PPD + –> what does this mean

A

individual has an active Tb infection, past exposure or BCG vaccinated

103
Q

More specific test for Tb?

A

interferon-gamma release assay (IGRA) - fewer false positives from BCG vaccine

104
Q

Primary and seconday tuberculosis

A
105
Q

Tb infection of vertebrae (extrapulmonary) is called?

A

Potts disease

106
Q

Mycobacterium tuberculosis 1) staining? 2) symptoms? 3) issue specific to this organism?

A

1) acid fast 2) fever, NS, WL, and hemoptysis 3) often resistant to multiple drugs

107
Q

Mycobacterium kansasii 1) staining? 2) symptoms?

A

1) acid fast 2) TB-like symptoms so basically: fever, NS, WL, and hemoptysis

108
Q

Mycobacterium avium: 1) staining? 2) issue specific to this organism? 3) prophyalctic Tx?

A

1) acid fast 2) causes disseminated non-TB disease in AIDS; often resistant to multiple drugs 3) prophylactic treatment with azithromycin

109
Q

What factor to virulent strains of Tb have? What does it do?

A

-cord factor -inhibits macrophage maturation and induces release of TNF-alpha. -sulfatides (surface glycolipid) inhibit phagososomal fusion

110
Q

Leprosy (Hansen disease) is caused by what organsim?

A

Mycobacterium leprae

111
Q

Mycobacterium leprae 1) organism details? 2) where does it infect? 3) what is the reservoir in the US? 4) what are the two forms of the disease?

A

1) acid fast; likes cool temperatures 2) skin and superficial nerves - GLOVE AND STOCKING - loss of sensation 3) armadillos 4) Lepromatous and Tuberculoid

112
Q

glove and stocking disease is?

A

leprosy - mycobacterium leprae

113
Q

Tuberculoid form of hansen disease 1) organism? 2) whats the dillio with this disease? 3) immunology characteristics? 4) treatment?

A

1) mycobacterium leprae 2) limited to a few hypoesthetic hairless skin plaque (what the heck does this mean?) 3) highly cell-mediated immunity with a largely 4) treat with dapsone and rifampin for 6 months

114
Q

Lepromatous form of hansen disease 1) organism? 2) presentation? 3) How is it spread? 4) immune response? 5) treatment?

A

1) mycobacterum leprae 2) diffuse presentation over skin with leonine (lion-like) face 3) can be spread by contact 4) low cell mediated immunity with a humoral Th2 response 5) Tx with dapsone, rifampin, AND CLOFAZIMINE for 2-5 years

115
Q

Which can be lethal… Lepromatous or tuberculoid hansen disease?

A

Lepromatous can be lethal L for Lethal.

116
Q

Lactose fermenting enteric bacteria: 1) name these suckers: 2) specific growth and color?

A

1) These guys: (mac”C”on”KEES”) Citrobacter Klebsiella E. Coli Enterobacter Serratia (WEAK FERMENTER) 2) GROW PINK COLONIES ON MACCONKEY AGAR

117
Q

What enzyme does E Coi produce to break lactose into glucose and galactose?

A

Beta-galactosidase

118
Q

Appearance of lactose fermenters on EMB agar?

A

purple/black colonies E Coli is special and grows purple colonies with a green sheen

119
Q

Fast lactose fermenters mnemonic:

A

Lactose is “KEE” (Klebsiella, E Coli, Enterobacter)

120
Q

Gram negative bugs: 1) resistance to what drug? what to use instead? 2) Why/how resistant?

A

1) resistant to penicillin G but susceptible to penicillin derivative ampicillin and amoxicillin 2) Gram - outer membrane inhibits entry of penicillin G and vancomycin

121
Q

Intracellular within neutrophils - which organism?

A

neisseria ghonorrhoeae

122
Q

Neisseria meningiditis 1) production of special “thing” to help survival 2) gram stain? 3) capsule? 4) sugar fermentation? 5) vaccine available? 6) transmission? 7) causes what issues? 8) prevention? 8) treatment?

A

1) IgA protease 2) Gram neg 3) polysaccharide capsule 4) Vaccine but not for type B 5) ferments maltose and glucose 6) transmitted via respiratory and oral secretions 7) causes meningococcemia and meningitis (WATERHOUSE FRIDERICHSEN SYNDROME) 8) profylaxis with rifampin, ciproflaxacin, or ceftriaxone 9) Tx with ceftiraxone or penicillin G

123
Q

To prevent neonatal transmission of neisseria ghonorrhoeae?

A

topical erythromycin

124
Q

WATERHOUSE FRIDERICHSEN SYNDROME - organism?

A

Neisseria meningiditis

125
Q

Neisseria ghonorrhoeae- 1) production of special “thing” to help survival 2) gram stain? 3) capsule? 4) sugar fermentation? 5) vaccine available? 6) transmission? 7) causes what issues? 8) prevention? 8) treatment?

A

1) IgA protease 2) Gram neg 3) NO polysaccharide capsule 4) NO VACCINE - RAPID ANTIGENIC VARIATION OF PILUS PROTEINS 5) ferments ONLY glucose 6) Sexual transmission 7) causes gonorrhea, septic arthritis, neonatal conjunctivitis, PID, and Fitz Hugh-Curtis syndrome 8) condoms 9) Tx with ceftriaxone + (azithromycin or doxycycline) for possible chlamydia co-infection

126
Q

Why no vaccine for neisseria ghonorrhoeae?

A

RAPID ANTIGENIC VARIATION OF PILUS PROTEINS

127
Q

Fitz Hugh-Curtis syndrome - organism?

A

Neisseria ghonorrhoeae

128
Q

Haemophilus influenzae 1) lab testing review… 2) transmission? 3) produce any protective factors? 4) Causes what diseases?

A

1) small Gram neg coccobacillary rod 2) aerosol transmission 3) IgA protease 4) Causes: septic Arthritis, Epiglottitis, Meningitis, Otitis media, Pneumonia, and conjunctivitis (Think: h”A.E.M.O.P.”hilus)

129
Q

Haemophilus influenzae: 1) special growth media? 2) epiglottitis presentation in children? 3) vaccine?

A

1) grows on chocolate agar with factors V and X or with s. aureus which provides V 2) CHERRY RED epiglottis 3) vaccine=type B capsular polysaccharide conjugated to diphtheria toxoid or other protein - given between 2-18 mo

130
Q

Cherry red epiglottis appearance - what organism?

A

Haemophilus influenzae

131
Q

Can haemophilus influenzae cause the flu?

A

NO - influenza virus does

132
Q

What drug is used prophylactically with people working in close contact with Haemophillus influenzae patients?

A

Rifampin

133
Q

Tx for haemophilus influenzae mucosal infections?

A

amoxicillin with or w/out clavulanate

134
Q

Tx for Haemophilus influenzae meningitis?

A

ceftriaxone

135
Q

haemophilus influenzae epiglottitis on x-ray show what? What is the term used for this appearance?

A
  • thickening of the epiglottis shown on lateral neck radiography. -called the “thumbprint sign”
136
Q

legionella pneumophila- 1) lab testing review? 2) what stain works better? 3) growth on what media? 4) causes what conditions? 5) transmission?

A

1) gram neg rod - but stains poorly 2) better with silver stain 3) growth on *charcoal* yest extract culture with *iron* and *cysteine* 4) causes a) legionaires disease- severe PNEUMONIA, fever, GI ad CNS symptoms b) pontiac fever-mild flu like symptoms NO PNEUMONIA 5) aerosol transmission from water source - NOT PERSON TO PERSON.

137
Q

legionaires disease- 1) causative organism? 2) presentation/symptoms?

A

1) legionella pneumophila 2) severe PNEUMONIA, fever, GI ad CNS symptoms

138
Q

pontiac fever- 1) causative organism? 2) presentation/symptoms?

A

1) legionella pneumophila 2) mild flu like symptoms NO PNEUMONIA

139
Q

Treatment for Legionella pneumophila infection?

A

macrolide or quinolone

140
Q

Clinical detection of legionella how?

A

check for antigen to organism in urine

141
Q

Pseudomonas Aeruginosa 1) review testing? 2) pigement produced? 3) odor? 4) toxins? mech of toxins? 5) source/reservoir?

A

1) gram neg rod–>non-lactose fermenting–> oxidase pos –> aerobic 2) produces pyocyanin - BLUE GREEN pigment (THINK WATER BC BLUE AND ITS SOURCE) 3) “grape like” odor 4) endotoxin (fever and shock) and exotoxin A (inactivates EF-2) 5) water - source

142
Q

Pseudomonas aeruginosa- 1) causes what diseases? 2) associated with what problems/activites? 3) what happens in immunocompromised people?

A

1) Pneumonia (especially in CF patients - get biofilm), Sepsis, External otitis (swimmers ear), Uti, Drug use, and Diabetic Osteomyelitis 2) Hot tub folliculitis; malignant otitis externa in diabetics; burn victims 3) immunocompro = ecthyma gangrenosum - rapidly progressive necrotic cutaneous lesions

143
Q

Tx for pseudomonas aeruginosa infection?

A

aminoglycoside + extended spectrum penicillin (piperacillin, ticarcillin, cefepime, imipenem, meropenem)

144
Q

Is pseudomonas aeruginosa aerobic or anaerobic?

A

AEROBIC (THINK AER-uginosa AER-obic)

145
Q

E. Coli vriulence factors and condition association:

A

1) fimbrae - cystitis and pyelonephritis 2) K capsule - pneumonia and neonatal meningitis 3) LPS - endotoxin - septic shock

146
Q

EIEC - 1) presentation? 2) toxin and mech?

A

1) Invasive (THINK e”I”ec - I for invasive and I in EIEC); dysentery 2) invades intestinal mucosa and casuses necrosis and inflammation - similar to shigella

147
Q

ETEC 1) presentation? 2) toxin and mech?

A

1) Travelers’ diarrhea (watery) – (THINK e”T”ec - T for travelers and T in ETEC) 2) produces heat labile and heat stabile enTerotoxins - NO INFLAMMATION AND NO INVASION

148
Q

EPEC 1) presentation? 2) toxin and mech?

A

1) Diarrhea usually in children (THINK e”P”ec - P for pediatrics and P in EPEC) 2) no toxin - adheres to apical surface, flattens villi, and prevents absorption

149
Q

EHEC 1) presentation? 2) toxin and mech?

A

1) Dysentery (toxin alone causes necrosis and inflammation) 2) -Produces Shiga-like toxin that causes Hemolytic-uremic syndrome -triad of anemia, thrombocytopenia, and acute renal failure (THINK e”H”ec - H for Hemolytic uremic syndrome and H in EHEC) -Microthrombi form on toxin damaged endothelium = mechanical hemolysis = SCHISTOCYTES ==> decreased RBF; consumption of platelets due to microthrombi produces thrombocytopenia

150
Q

How do distinguish EHEC from other E. Coli?

A

EHEC is only one that DOES NOT ferment sorbitol

151
Q

Most common serotype of EHEC?

A

O157:H7

152
Q

Schistocytes may be formed in blood- which organism?

A

EHEC - O157-H7 (-Microthrombi form on toxin damaged endothelium = mechanical hemolysis = SCHISTOCYTES ==> decreased RBF; consumption of platelets due to microthrombi produces thrombocytopenia)

153
Q

Klebsiella - 1) what conditions? 2) go through organism testing 3) normal flora?

A

1) THINK “4 A’s” – Aspiration (lobar) pneumonia; Abscess in lungs of liver; Alcoholics; di-A-betics -(ALSO HUGE CAUSE OF NOSOCOMIAL UTIs - associated with catheters) 2) gram negative –> ROD –> FAST Lactose fermenter 3) intestinal flora - hence when GI stuff aspirated = pneumonia

154
Q

Klebsiella - classic finding in pneumonia?

A

Red “CURRANT JELLY” sputum

155
Q

Salmonella vs Shigella 1) flagella? 2) spread in body? 3) reservoirs? 4) H2S production? 5) Antibiotics and potential issue? 6) invades what? causes what? 7) diarrhea presentation? 8) sugar fermentation?

A

1) SALMONella flagella (SALMON SWIM) vs Shigella NONE 2) disseminate hematogenously vs cell to cell transmission NOT HEMATOGENOUS 3) Many animal reserviors vs only humans and primates 4) H2S YES vs NO H2S 5) Antibiotics may prolong fecal shedding vs antibiotics shorten time of fecal excretion of organism 6) Invaded intestinal mucosa and causes monocytic response vs invades intestinal mucosa and causes PMN infiltration 7) NON-Bloody vs BLOODY with Shigella 8) BOTH DO NOT ferment lactose

156
Q

Salmonella typhi 1) review organism testing 2) causes what condition? 3) found in what species?? 4) patient presentation? 5) carrier state how?

A

1) gram neg –> rod –> no lactose fermentation –> oxidase neg 2) causes typhoid fever 3) Duh - humans 4) patient has ROSE SPOTS on abdomen, fever, headache and diarrhea 5) can remain in gallbladder = carrier state and you poop it out sometimes

157
Q

Patient has ROSE SPOTS on abdomen - whats the organism?

A

Salmonella typhi

158
Q

Campylobacter jejuni 1) transmission? 2) review organism testing? 3) causes what? what population? 4) associated with what particular foods? 5) common antecedent to what conditions?

A

1) Fecal oral - POOP 2) gram neg –> oxidase pos –> COMMA or S SHAPED grows in 42C (Think: CAMPylobacter likes the hot CAMPfire) 3) causes bloody diarrhea - especially in children 4) poultry, meat, unpasteurized milk. 5) Gullain Barre syndrome and reactive arthritis

159
Q

Comma or S-shaped organisms?

A

campylobacter jejuni vibrio cholerae helicobacter pylori

160
Q

Vibrio Cholerae 1) presentation how? mechanism? 2) review organism testing? 3) common where? 4) treatment?

A

1) profuse watery diarrhea - enterotoxin that permanently activates Gs –> inc cAMP 2) gram neg –> oxidase pos –> comma/S - shaped –> Grows in alkaline media 3) endemic in developing countries 4) oral rehydration is a must

161
Q

Yersinia enterocolitica 1) transmission? 2) review organism testing 3) causes what conditions?

A

1) pet feces (puppies have this), contaminated milk or pork 2) gram neg –> ROD –> NOT lactose fermenter –> oxidase neg 3) causes yersinittis or mesenteric adenitis (mimics Crohns disease of appendicitis)

162
Q

Helicobacter pylori 1) review organism testing: 2) causes what conditions? where? 3) environment created when colonizes?

A

1) gram neg –> oxidase pos –> Comma/S-shaped –>urease pos 2) causes gastritic and peptic ulcers (duodenal) 3) alkaline environment (protect from stomach acid)

163
Q

Special diagnosis for helicobacter pylori?

A

use urea breath test (bc organism is urease pos) or fecal antigen test for diagnosis

164
Q

Helicobacter pylori - treatment:

A

Triple therapy: Proton pump inh + clarithromycin + amoxicillin or metronidazole

165
Q

Spirochetes: Organisms in this group?

A
  • Borrelia -Leptospira -Treponema (BIG - think Blt - big B becuase borelia is big!)
166
Q

Visualize borrelia with?

A

aniline dyes ( Wright or giemsa stain) in light microscopy

167
Q

Visualize treponema how?

A

Darkfield microscopy

168
Q

Leptospira interrogans- 1) found where in environmetn? 2) prevalent in what individuals and locations? 3) causes what condition 4) what symptoms/presentation for above condition?

A

1) found in water contaminated with animal urine 2) Surfers get this - common in the tropics esp Hawaii 3) causes leptospirosis 4) flu-like symptoms, jaundice, photophobia with conjunctival suffusion (erythema w/o exudate)

169
Q

Weil disease 1) what organism? 2) what happens here?

A

1) leptospira interrogans 2) severe form of leptospirosis with jaundice and azotemia from liver. Kidney dysfunction; fever; hemorrhage; anemia

170
Q

Lyme Disease 1) causative organism: 2) transmission? 3) natural reservoir? 4) common where in US?

A

1) Borrelia burgdorferi 2) ixodes tick 3) mouse 4) northeastern US

171
Q

Ixodes ticks are vectors for what disease(s)?

A

-lyme disease -babesia

172
Q

Lyme disease- 1) Initial symtpoms: 2) Later symptoms

A

1) erythemia chronicium migrans - BULLS EYE RASH; flu-like; maybe facial nerve palsy 2) monoarthritis (LARGE JOINTS) and migratory polyarthritis; cardiac issues (AV-block); neurologic issues (encephalopathy, facial nerve palsy, polyneuropathy)

173
Q

Tx for lyme disease?

A

doxycycline, ceftriaxone

174
Q

How to remember symptoms for Lyme disease?

A

think: F.A.K.E. a key LYME pie: F=facial nerve palsy (bilateral) A=arthritis K=kardiac block E=erythema migrans

175
Q

BULLS EYE rash on a patient causative organism?

A

Borrelia burgdorferi - lyme disease

176
Q

Syphilis causative organism and treatment:

A

Treponema pallidum – Penicillin G

177
Q

Primary syphilis: 1) presentation? 2) diagnosis:

A

1) PAINLESS CHANCRE 2) a) dark field microscopy to visualize treponemes in fluid from chancre b) serologic testing VDRL/RPR (non specific) c) FRA-ABS testing for confirmation (specific)

178
Q

Painless chancre on genitals - causative organism?

A

treponema pallidum - Syphilis

179
Q

Secondary syphilis: 1) presentation/symptoms? 2) Testing?

A

1) constitutional symptoms, maculopapular rash (PALMS AND SOLES), condylomata) 2) can use dark-field; serologic VDRL/RPR (non specific); 2) gram neg –> oxidase pos –> comma/S - shaped SECONDARY SYPHILIS = SYSTEMIC (BOTH START WITH S)

180
Q

Tertiary Syphilis: 1) What happens to body: 2) Signs/Symptoms 3) testing for neurosyphilis?

A

1) get Gummas (chronic granulomas), aortitis (vasa vasorum deterioration), neurosyphilis (tabes dorsalis - general paresis); Argyll Robertson Pupul 2) broad-based ataxia, +Romberg, Charcot joint, stroke w/o HTN 3) neurosyphilis=test CSF with VDRL or RPR

181
Q

Congenital symptoms: 1) Presentation in child? 2) prevention?

A

1) saber shins, saddle nose, CN VIII - deafness, Hutchinson teeth, mulberry molars 2) treat mom early in prego-nancy - transmission occurs AFTER 1st trimester

182
Q

Child presents with hutchinson teeth and mulberry molars - disease?

A

congenital syphilis

183
Q

Argyll Robertson pupil 1) seen with what disease? 2) what is it? 3) another “old-school” way people describe this issue?

A

1) tertiary syphilis 2) pupil constrics with accommodation but is not reactive to light 3) prostitute pupil

184
Q

VDRL testing: -used to test for what disease? -mnemonic to remember false positives?

A

-used to test for syphilis - cheap, quantitative, sensitive but not specific - VDRL detects non-specific antibody that reacts with beef cardiolipid -MANY FALSE POSITIVES: THINK VDRL - HOW EASY! V=viruses (mono-EBV, hepatitis) D=Drugs R=rheumatic fever L=lupus and leprosy

185
Q

Jarisch-Herxheimer reaction: what the hell is this thng?

A

Flu-like syndrome after antibiotics are started - due to killed bacteria releasing pyrogens

186
Q

What is zoonosis?

A

Infectious disease transmitted between animals and humans

187
Q

Anaplasma spp. 1) disease 2) transmission/source

A

1) anaplasmosis 2) ixodes ticks - live on deer and mice

188
Q

Bartonella Spp. 1) disease 2) transmission/source

A

1) Cat scratch disease, bacillary angiomatosis 2) cat scratches

189
Q

Borrelia burgdorferi 1) disease 2) transmission/source

A

1) lyme disease 2) ixodes ticks (live on deer and mice)

190
Q

Borrelia recurrentis 1) disease 2) transmission/source

A

1) Relapsing fever 2) louse - recurrent due to variable surface antigens

191
Q

Brucella spp. 1) disease 2) transmission/source 3) organism testing review…

A

1) brucellosis/undulant fever 2) from unpasteurized dairy 3) gram neg (pink) –> coccoid rods

192
Q

Organisms associated with unpasterized dairy?

A

Brucella Listeria monocytogenes

193
Q

Campylobacter 1) disease 2) transmission/source 3) organism testing review…

A

1) bloody diarrhea - especially in children 2) puppies, livestock - fecal oral, ingestion of undercooked meat 3) gram neg –> oxidase pos –> COMMA or S SHAPED grows in 42C (Think: CAMPylobacter likes the hot CAMPfire)

194
Q

Chlamydophila psittaci 1) disease 2) transmission/source 3) presentation?

A

1) psittacosis 2) parrots, other birds 3) atypical pneumonia

195
Q

patient has parrots and other birds - organism?

A

chlamydophila psittaci!

196
Q

Coxiella burnetti 1) disease 2) transmission/source

A

1) q-fever 2) aerosols of cattle/sheep amniotic fluid

197
Q

Ehrlichia chaffeensis 1) disease 2) transmission/source

A

1) ehlrichiosis (human monocytic and human granulocytic) 2) lone start ticks

198
Q

LONE STAR TICK - related infectious organism is…

A

ehrlichia chaffeensis

199
Q

francisella tularensis 1) disease 2) transmission/source

A

1) tularemia 2) ticks, rabbits, deer fly

200
Q

leptospira spp 1) disease 2) transmission/source 3) presentation/symptoms

A

1) leptospirosis - Surfers get this - common in the tropics esp Hawaii 2) found in water contaminated with animal urine 3) flu-like symptoms, jaundice, photophobia with conjunctival suffusion (erythema w/o exudate

201
Q

mycobacterium leprae 1) disease 2) transmission/source

A

1) leprosy 2) human with lepromatous leprosy and armadillos Review types of leprosy and stuff - too much to add here

202
Q

pasturella multocida 1) disease 2) transmission/source

A

1) cellulitis, osteomyelitis 2) animal bite - cats or dogs

203
Q

Rickettsia prowazekii 1) disease 2) transmission/source

A

1) Epidemic typhus 2) louse

204
Q

Louse vector organism(s)?

A

rickettsia prowazekii borrelia recurentis

205
Q

Rickettsia rickettsii 1) disease 2) transmission/source

A

1) Rocky mountain spotted fever (RMSF) 2) dermacentor ticks - wtf?

206
Q

Rickettsia typhi 1) disease 2) transmission/source

A

1) Endemic typhus 2) Fleas

207
Q

yersinia pestis 1) disease 2) transmission/source

A

1) plague 2) fleas - rats and prairie dogs are reservoirs

208
Q

Prairie dog reservoir-reservoir for what organism/disease

A

yersinia pestis / plague

209
Q

Flea vector organisms?

A

yersinia pestis rickettsia typhi

210
Q

Gardnerella vaginalis 1) organism lab review…. 2) classic presentation 3) how to get? 4) classic cells seen under microscope? 5) Tx?

A

1) gram-variable –> Pleomorphic ROD 2) Presents as gray vaginal discharge w/ FISHY SMELL -NONPAINFUL 3) a) associated with sexual activity but not STD; b) overgrowth of certain anaerobic bacteria in vagina 4) clue cells! 5) metronidazole or clindamycin

211
Q

Which is painful - vaginitis or gardnerella vaginalis infection or both?

A

VAGINITIS ONLY

212
Q

Clue cells in vaginal sample - organism is?

A

gardnerella vaginalis

213
Q

Gray vaginal discharge with fishy odor - organism is?

A

gardnerella vaginallis

214
Q

Tx for gardnerella vaginalis?

A

metronidazole or if anaerobic bacteria use clindamycin

215
Q

Tx for ALL rickettsial and vector borne illnesses?

A

DOXYCYCLINE

216
Q

Rocky Mountain spotted fever - RMSF: 1) causative organism? 2) vector? 3) Most commonly found where in the US? 4) Presentation/symptoms

A

1) Rickettsia rickettsii - obligate intracellular organism (they need CoA and NAD+ bc they cannot synthesize ATP) 2) tick 3) North Carolina 4) rash starts at wrists and ankles and spreads to trunk palms and soles

217
Q

Classic triad of RMSF?

A

headache, fever, fash

218
Q

How to remember which infections have palm and sole rash?

A

Think You drive C.”A”.R.S. with your PALMS and SOLES- C=Coxsackievirus “A” infection R=RMSF S=Secondary syphillis

219
Q

Typhus- 1) Endemic type vector and organism? 2) epidemic type vector & organism? 3) Presentation?

A

1) Endemic = R. typhi - fleas 2) Epidemic = R prowazekki - human body louse 3) Rash starts CENTRALLY and spreads outward - sparing the palms and soles

220
Q

Difference between RMSF and Typhus?

A

“R”ickettsii on the w”R”ists and “T”yphus on the “T”runk

221
Q

Ehrlichiosis: 1) organism 2) vector 3) characteristic appearance to remember?

A

1) Ehrlichia 2) tick 3) MONOCYTES have morulae (BERRY LIKE INCLUSIONS) in the cytoplasm

222
Q

Anaplasmosis: 1) organism 2) vector 3) characteristic appearance to remember?

A

1) anaplasma 2) tick 3) GRANULOCYTES have morulae (BERRY LIKE INCLUSIONS) in cytoplams

223
Q

Difference between Ehrlichiosis and Anaplasmosis

A

Ehrlichiosis MONOCYTES have morulae (BERRY LIKE INCLUSIONS) in the cytoplasm Anaplasmosis GRANULOCYTES have morulae (BERRY LIKE INCLUSIONS) in cytoplams

224
Q

Coxiella Burnetti 1) causes what disease? 2) vector? 3) how do you get it? 4) presentation?

A

1) Q-fever 2) No arthropod vector 3) tick feces and cattle placenta release spores that are inhaled as aerosols 4) presents as pneumonia

225
Q

Tick feces or cattle placenta release some spores - organism?

A

coxiella burnetti - Q fever

226
Q

Chlamydiae- 1) caused by what organism? type of organism? 2) 2 forms? Purpose of each? 3) what complication of infection?

A

1) chlamydia trachomatis - obligate intracellular organism - cant make own ATP 2) 2 forms: -“E”lementray bodies (small and dense) - is the “E”nfectious form –> infects and transforms into reticulate body -“R”eticulate body “R”eplicates in cell by fission and reorganizes into elementary bodies 3) Complications: reactive arthritis (Reiter syndrome), follicular conjunctivitis, nongonococcal urethritis, PID

227
Q

Chlamydiae infection - TX?

A

azithromycin (one time treatment) or doxycycline

228
Q

Clamydiae lab diagnosis:

A

cytoplasmic inclusions seen on Giemsa or fluorescent antibody-stained smear

229
Q

Chlamydia trachomatis serotypes and what each cause?

A

1) Types A, B, & C: chronic infection cause blindness due to follicular conjunctivitis in Africa (Think A.B.C - A=Africa; B=Blindness; C=Chronic infection 2) Types D-K: Urethritis, PID, ectopic pregnancy, neonatal pneumonia (transmitted during birth - baby has staccato cough), neonatal conjunctivitis 3) Types L1, L2, & L3: Lymphogranuloma venereum - small, painless ulcers on genitals –> swollen, painful inguinal lymph nodes that ulcerate (BUBOES)

230
Q

Lymphogranuloma venereum 1) organism and serotypes? 2) What happens? 3) Tx?

A

1) chlamydia Serotypes L1, L2 and L3 2) small, painless ulcers on genitals –> swollen, painful inguinal lymph nodes that ulcerate (BUBOES) 3) Tx-doxycycline

231
Q

Mycoplasma pneumonia: 1) review organism testing 2) what does it cause? 3) symptoms/presentation? 4) grows on what agar?

A

1) does not gram stain - no cell wall - membrane contains sterols for stability 2) causes atypical walking pneumonia 3) insidious onset, headache, nonproductive cough, patchy or diffuse interstitial infiltrate 4) grown on Eaton agar

232
Q

Baby presents with staccato cough - whats the organism, serotypes, and condition name?

A

chlamydia serotypes D-K neonatal pneumonia

233
Q

Atypical walking pneumonia causative organism:

A

Mycoplasma pneumonia

234
Q

Mycoplasma pneumonia 1) Diagnosis 2) Treatment:

A

1) -x-ray looks worse than patient feels -high titer or col agglutinins (IgM) = may lyse RBC 2) tx with macrolide, doxycycline or fluoroquinolone (penicillin is ineffective since mycoplasma has no cell wall

235
Q

What organism grows on eaton agar?

A

mycoplasma pneumonia

236
Q

Gram + organism schematic - review in head:

A
237
Q

Gram - organism schematic - review in head:

A

MICRO - FirstAid (2 decks)

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