Bacterial Cells Flashcards

You may prefer our related Brainscape-certified flashcards:
1
Q

How do lysozymes inhibit cell wall formation in bacteria?

A

Degrades the structural integrity of cell wall peptidoglycan. It breaks the B 1,4- bonds of the glycan portion of the peptidoglycan

Lysozymes can be found in body fluids (tears, saliva, blood, and breast milk

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

Cytoplasmic granules contain ____________

A

glycogen

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

Rifampin treats____________

A

Tuberculosis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

_______________ is one transcription factor that activates the expression of virulence
genes at 37 degrees Celsius (body temp of host).

A

PrfA

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

Site of protein synthesis in bacteria

A

Poly ribosomes

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

B-lactams

A

Types: penicillins,cephalosporins,cephamycins,carbapenems,

monobactams

inhibit enzymes (PBPs) which catalyze the transpeptide linkage; inhibition results in autolytic enzyme accumulation and lysis

Resitance:

  • Production of beta-lactamases
  • Failure to penetrate outer membrane
  • Mutation in penicillin-binding proteins
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

Lipid found in the cytoplasmic membrane of the inner leaflet

A

Phosphotidyl ethanolamine

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

Mobile genetic elements

A

Also known as jumping genes

  • *- They have ability to insert as discrete DNA segments
  • They randomly insert into whatever chromosome they choose
  • They’re natural constituents of prokaryotic chromosomes/plasmids
  • They’ve been found in bacteriophage DNA as well as eukaryotic cells**

Types

1. Insertional elements

2. Transposoons

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

• Before the bacteria can establish colonization, it must have _____________factors.

A

adherent

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

Model for CAP (CRP) activation of the Lac operon

A

Optimal activation of the lac operon requires both

1)The inducer (lactose)

to bind the lac repressor (De-repression) in order

to release repressor from DNA.

2) The activator (cAMP-CRP) to bind – (Induction) to the CAP site

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

Bacterial Toxins

A
  • Endotoxins (LPS)
  • Exotoxins
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

HPV 16/18 Ribozymes

A

Ribozyme can be made specifically to recognize and attack a specific mRNA. All the human papilloma virus that are known to be involved in cancer formation express E6 protein and the E7 protein.

If you make an E7 specific ribozyme and place it in a cell with HPV16 or HPV18 present, this E7 ribozyme will bind to the E7 mRNA and digest it to the point where it cannot be translated. You end up having no E7 protein and NO transformation to the cancer phenotype.

□ THIS is the basis of the HPV vaccine.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

Antibiotic inhibitors of protein synthesis

A

30S

  • Aminoglycosides
    • _​_Gentamycin
    • Steptomycin
    • Tobramycin
  • Tetracyclines
    • _​_Tetracycline
    • Docycycline

50 S

  • Chloramphenicol
  • Lincosamides
  • Erythromycin
  • Fusidic acid
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

Determinants of Pathogenicity

A
  • Bacterial adherence & Intracellular Growth
  • Tissue specificity
  • Invasiveness
  • Toxins
  • Antiphagocytic factors
  • Immune complex formation
  • Resistance to complement damage
  • Siderophore production
  • Antigenic variation
  • Proteolysis of antibodies
  • Plasmids
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

Acute-phase protein

A

a class of proteins whose plasma concentrations increase (positive acute-phaseproteins) or decrease (negative acute-phase proteins) in response to inflammation

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

Tissue Affinity Examples

A

•Streptococcus mutans

–tooth enamel

•Streptococcus salivarius

–surface of tongue

•Streptococcus pyogenes

–pharyngeal epithelium

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

Transcriptional control by use of alternative sigma factors

A

You have RNA polymerase, which is an alpha, beta subunit
But, when you add a sigma factor to it, you have a holoenzyme for RNA
polymerase

• The sigma factor determines promoter specificity of RNA polymerase

You change the sigma factor, you change the promoter that is being

• Sigma factors can even influence sporulation during starvation
You actually have different sigma factors being turned on to develop this
endospore
actively transcribed at any one time

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

Antibiotics that inhibit cell wall synthesis

A

B-lactams

Vancomycin

Isoniazid

Ethambutol

Cycloserine

Ethionamide

Bacitracin

Polymyxin

Daptomycin

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

How do extracellular infectious agents cause disease?

A

They cause disease by invasion of host tissue, inducing inflammation or by liberation of toxins without invasion or both

Virus infections have an extracellular phase at which time they are vulnerable to the host antibody responses

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

Diauxic growth

A

any cell growth characterized by cellular growth in two phases, and can be illustrated with adiauxic growth curve.

E. Coli use glucose more rapidly than lactose. When they both grow at the same time, that is called diauxic growth. There will be two exponential period. 1st exp, then lag, 2nd exp, then another lag. This is called a diauxic shift.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

Overgrowth of clostridium difficile can cause?

A

Pseudomembranous colitis

Caused by excessive antibiotic use (such as clindamycin, which treats candida albicans)

metronidazole effective

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

____________ enhances mobility.

A

Flagella

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

Components of LPS

A

Lipid A

Core polysaccharide

O antigen

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

Listeria monocytogenes is a human pathogenic bacterium that causes ______________

A

food poisoning.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
Q

Prokaryotes that are pathogenic to us

A

E. coli

Salmonella species (gastroenteritis)

Streptococcus pyogenes (pharyngitis)

HIV

influenza viruses

EBV

HPV

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
26
Q

CAP (Catabolic Activator Protein)

A

Catabolic Activator Protein (CAP) or cyclic AMP Receptor Protein (CRP) is a Positive regulator of lac transcription.

  • CAP is a pleiotropic or general activator. It functions at many different promoters, not just lac.
  • CAP is a sequence-specific DNA binding protein
  • CAP responds to cAMP levels in the cell. cAMP-CAP binding is equired for high expression of the lac operon. This conserves the cells energy.
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
27
Q

Pilli

A

Used for attachment to host cell

Transfer of DNA from bacterial organisms to another

Found mostly in gram negative bacteria

pili also carry surface antigens, which may be responsible for the virulous of the bacteria and for the pathogenicity of the bacteria

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
28
Q

Mode of action for protein synthesis inhibition

A

Some bacteria can inhibit protein synthesis by inhibiting the elongation factor in the protein
machinery
○Inhibiting the elongation factor prevents peptide bond formation between the unit, so the
protein cannot be made

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
29
Q

Where is the cell wall found?

A

In between the capsule and the plasma membrane

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
30
Q

Resistance Mechanisms

A
  • Acidification of phagolysosome
  • Capsule production
  • Toxin release
  • Inhibition of phagolysosome formation
  • Escape from phagolysome
  • Antioxidant production
  • Complement inactivation
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
31
Q

Prokaryotes

A

Major groups: Prokaryotes

Size: 0.5 to 3 micrometers

No nucleus

Single, cincular DNA

No mitochondria, no ER, no Golgi

Ribosomes: 70S (50S+30S)

Cytoplasmic membrane: Does not contain sterols

Reproduction: Asexual

Movement: Simple flagellum

Respiration: Via cytoplasmic membrane

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
32
Q

Role of Plasmids

A

Extra chromosomal DNA

Not required for cell survival

Carry genes that code for virulence factors and drug resistance

Transmitted by transformation and mostly by conjugation

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
33
Q

Nucleoids

A

are areas of DNA concentration. Bacterial DNA occurs as a single circular chromosome. E.coli chromosome has 4x106 base pairs, 1mm long ( 1000 times the length of the bacterium, requires gyrase enzyme for coiling)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
34
Q

___________cells are involved in immunosuppression as in EBV infections (mononucleosis, Burkitt’s lymphoma)

A

T-s cells

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
35
Q

Capsule. Gram Positive or Gram Negative

A

Can be found in both

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
36
Q

Iron Overload and Infections

A
  • Excess iron is stored in liver and macrophages as ferritin; regulated by ferroportin and hepcidin
  • Iron overload is elevated iron levels in liver; and can cause cardiomyopathy (irregular heart beat), joint pain (arthriris), bone pain, diabetes, liver cirrhosis, hyperpigmentation, hypopituitarism/ low sex drive
  • Most important cause is hereditary hemochromatosis
  • Another cause is hemosiderosis due to excessive blood transfusion
  • Iron overload in people of African descent is due to a mutation in ferroportin gene and can lead to hepatocellular carcinoma
  • HIV, Plasmodium falciparum (malaria parasite) require free circulation iron to grow and multiply
  • Low circulation non-heme iron in sickle cell disease; low HIV prevalence in people with sickle cell disease
  • Iron deficiency (hemoglobin < 10g/dL) protects against severe malaria and death in young children
  • Iron supplementation increases severity of HIV and malaria infections

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
37
Q

Bacterial culture systems

A

Batch- closed

Chemostat- continous

Growth Measurements

  • Cell count- plate/viable
  • Cell mass
  • Turbidity/ OD
  • Cell activity
  • Enzyme/ end product
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
38
Q

LPS. Gram Positive or Gram Negative

A

Gram Negative

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
39
Q

Role of bacterial classifications

A

Facilitates proper laboratory identification of clinical isolates

Necessary for determing etiology of infectious diseases during epidemiological investigations

Essential to bacterial nomenclature

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
40
Q

○ When the third amino acid is lysine, then we are dealing with ____________
○ When the third amino acid is DAP (Diaminopimelic acid), then it is a _____________

A

Gram positive bacteria

Gram negative bacteria

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
41
Q

Different shapes of bacteria

A

Spherical cocci

Elongated bacilli

Spiral spirochetes

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
42
Q

Corynebacterium diptheriae

A

Greek korynee, or “club,” referring to its clubbed ends, and diphtheria, meaning “leather hide,”

Exhibits metachromatic granules and “Chinese character”

Pleomorphic gram-positive bacillus

Produces an exotoxin that is encoded by the bacteriophage beta

Diphtheria toxin inhibits protein synthesis

Diphtheria toxin induces pseudomembrane formation

Prevented via vaccination – Diphtheria vaccine

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
43
Q

Levaquin

A

Nucleic Acid inhibitor that inhibits gyrase or topoisomerase, which prevent DNA supercoiling

Treats UTIs and pneumonia

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
44
Q

Transduction

A
  • DNA transferred from donor cell to recipient cell via an intact phage.
  • Lytic cycle

−Phage replicate and escape via lysis

•lysogenic cycle

−Phage DNA integrates into host genome.

Ex: Corynibacterium diptheriae

*The bacteria itself is harmless, it doesn’t do anything. BUT if you get infected with this bacterium
with a beta 2 phage in it, this causes issues. The bacteriophage encodes for a toxin gene that is
two parts, one part inserts in the membrane the other part is transferred to the inside of the cell
where it interferes with protein synthesis and subsequently kills the cell. The other part that is
stuck to your cell surface has the ability to stick to another cell or it could stick to macrophages
that are coming to degrade it. With these guys sticking together by the toxin part that inserts
into the membrane, you can see how a pseudomembrane would build up.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
45
Q

Capsule

A

Made of polysaccharides

Antiphagocytic

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
46
Q

Role of LPS in clinical symptoms

A

–LPS binds to CD14 and Toll-like receptor-4 (TLR-4), activates B cells, induces macrophages, dendritic cells to release acute phase proteins IL-1, IL-6, TNF-a and prostaglandings

– LPS activates alternative complement to produce C3a, C5a as chemoattractant, vasodilation, blood capillary leakage and anaphylactoxins

Bacterial sepsis is a life threatening condition due to lipid A from large numbers of circulating G- bacteria.

LPS confers negative charge to bacteria and repels hydrophobic molecules such as antibiotics, bile salts and detergents

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
47
Q

Binomial nomenclature

A

Genus and species

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
48
Q

Antiphagocytic Factors

A

•Polysacch capsule

–Strep. pneumoniae

•M protein

–Group A Strep

  • K antigen in E. coli
  • Vi antigen Salmonella
  • Protein A in S. aureus
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
49
Q

Bacterial chromosome

A

• The chromosome of the bacteria is single chromosome, double stranded DNA
When you look at the bacteria chromosome, if you stretch it, it is about 1000x the length of the
bacteria

▪ So, you can give an antibiotic to target the gyrase enzyme
▪ If the bacteria can’t compact the chromosome, it will die
○ They have an enzyme called the gyrase enzyme that allows it to compact all of it
• So how is the bacteria able to compact everything?
This is why we need an understanding of all the part of the bacteria in order to treat the infections
that come along

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
50
Q

Catabolite repression also called _____________-

A

Glucose repression

The presence of glucose inhibits the use of other carbon sources

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
51
Q

How can different subspecies of E. Coli be differentiated?

A

Gel electrophoresis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
52
Q

Teichoic acid. Gram Positive or Gram Negative

A

Gram Positive

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
53
Q

Lactoferrin in Macrophages and Human Milk

A
  • Human macrophages produce lactoferrin as an antimicrobial agent
  • Breast milk contains high titers of lactoferrin, lysozyme, lactalbumin
  • Our current studies show that they are inhibitory for malaria and bacterial growth and for bacterial hemolysins
  • Breastfeeding also protects mothers against future breast cancer
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
54
Q

Periplasmic space

A

Filled with enzymes that regulate what comes in and goes out of bacteria

Only found in gram negative bacteria

Harbor virulence factors

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
55
Q

Lysozyme sensitivity. Gram Positive or Gram Negative

A

Gram Positive: Sensitive

Gram Negative: Resistant

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
56
Q

It is that propionic acid that irritates the ___________. Fermentation of what bacteria produces propionic acid?

A

Subepithelium (can cause pimples)

Propinionic bacterium

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
57
Q

_________ and ____________ uses a repressor to switch on and off expression of the operon and uses an attenuator peptide to fine tune expression, while the others rely entirely on the attenuator mechanism for regulation.

A

Phenylalanine; tryptophan

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
58
Q

Resistance to Complement
Damage

A
  • Capsule production
  • IgA coating
  • Elastase production
  • Polysaccharide side chains
  • Expulsion of membrane attack complex
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
59
Q

More susceptible to antibacterial activity. Gram Positive or Gram Negative

A

Gram Positive because it does not have the additional outer membrane and periplasm

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
60
Q

Vectors of Gene Transfer in Eukaryotic Cells

A

Bacteriophage

Adenoviruses

Adeno-associated Viruses

Liposomes

Macro-molecular conjugates

  • A conjugate with the protein that you want on one end. The other end is recognized by
    certain cells. THIS is where you get cell specificity.
    • Ex. If you wanted to use the insulin receptor to get conjugate material into the cell
      • You’d make one end similar to the insulin binding area so that it can bind insulin
        receptor
        • Sometimes they use Ig molecules that will bind their receptors on the cell,
          allowing the protein they’re conjugated to, entry to the cell.
        • This offers cell specificity so you can deliver the protein you need to the right cell
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
61
Q

Oral Bacterial Flora

A
  • Viridans streptococci
  • Anaerobic streptococci
  • Bacteroides fragilis
  • Fusobacterium sp
  • Lactobacillus species
  • Candida albicans
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
62
Q

How do sRNAs regulate transcription?

A

—Regulation of translation initiation and transcription termination by altering the accessibility of Ribosome Binding Sites. [Targets]

—Regulation by base pairing with the targeted sequences on mRNAs. [Mechanism]

—Acts in trans

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
63
Q

Bacterial floras – regulation and advantages

A

•Skin bacteria

–Fatty acids

•Intestinal bacteria

–Bacteriocins, colicins

–B & K vitamins

–Antigenic stimulation

–Competent immunity

•Oral & Vaginal floras

–Lactobacillus keeps acid environment & flora intact

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
64
Q

Inhibitors of Folic Acid syntheis

A

PABA

  • Sulfonamides
  • Sulphadiazine
  • sulphamethoxazole

DHFR

  • Trimethoprim
  • Pyrimethamine
  • Methotrexate
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
65
Q

Candicen

A

peptide antibiotic that can kill candida albicans. The gene for this peptide antibiotic was genetically engineered and placed into the acinar cells (that make spit), thereby enabling them to produce spit with this pharmaceutical in it. So every time a patient swallowed a patient was really self-treating. Then if they live long enough, the candida infection can be resolved.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
66
Q

__________ cells and _________ cells are CD4 helper cells

________ and _____________are CD8 cytotoxic and suppressor T cells

__________cells produce IL-2, TNF-α , IL-12 and interferons for macrophage stimulation and intracellular killing and inhibit T-2 cytokine production

________cells produce IL-4, IL-6 and IL-10 cytokines, are good helpers for B cell production of antibodies and inhibit T-I cytokine production

_____________ cells are effective against viruses and virally infected cells

_________ cells are involved in immunosuppression as in EBV infections (mononucleosis, Burkitt’s lymphoma)

A

T-1; T-2

T-c; T-s

T-1

T-2

T-c

T-s

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
67
Q

DNA homology

A

Compares DNA sequences among bacteria using molecular probes and hybridization studies to determine genetic relatedness

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
68
Q

Defenses against entry into the body

A

The skin is the most important physical barrier against microbial entry into the body due to intact epithelial cover and lactic acid and fatty acids in sweat.

Others include ciliary lining in trachea, HCl in stomach, lysozyme in tears and saliva, lactoferrin and lactoperoxidase in milk.

Antagonistic organisms in oral, nasal, gut and vagina floras

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
69
Q

Modes of gene transfer that infect non-dividing cells

A

Adeno-viruse

Adeno-associated viruses

Liposomes

Macro-molecular conjugates

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
70
Q

Conjugation

A
  • Genetic recombination in bacteria that most resembles sexual reproduction.
  • Cell to Cell contact.
  • Genetic donors (Male)
  • genetic recipients (Female)
  • fertility factor (Plasmid)
  • Pilus + Outer Membrane Protein
  • Female becomes Male

(Quorum Sensing)

  • Occurs when Males begin to out number females
  • This is not beneficial to the cell, so it causes conjugation to stop.
  • Females will begin to divide and more females will come in, as a form of regulation
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
71
Q

Which proteins must be expressed before lactose is used as a carbon source?

A

Lac Z: B-galactosidase

  • cleaves the linkage between galactose and glucose.

Lac Y: Permease

  • Transports lactose into the cell.

Lactose must be transported in

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
72
Q

Techoic acids

A

–They are major surface antigens used for serologic typing.They also play a role in adherence and transport (of magnesium into the cell)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
73
Q

Plasmid Resistance

A
  1. Drug Resistance
    * Plasmids carry drug resistance genes to
  • Penicillin
  • Ampicillin
  • Beta lactamase
  • Tetracyclins
  • Kanamycin
  • Chloramphenocol
  1. UV resistance
  • UV light causes thymine dimers in bacteria-DNA polymerase cuts out these bumps formed by the thymine dimers, but it can mess up and reinsert thymine dimers. This will alter the reading frame resulting in a non-functional protein. This renders the bacteria non-functional as well. Some bacteria are now resistant to UV light because they have
    found a way to repair the damage caused by it.
  1. Metal Ion resistance to mercury, cobalt, magnesium, silver nitrate
    * Silver nitrate drops can act against gonorrhea, so resistance is bad
  2. Bacteriocins
  • These are peptide antibiotics that are produced by one bacterium to kill off another species of bacterium. When the host isn’t taking in enough
    nutrients, the bacteria turn on each other since there aren’t enough resources for both.
  1. Production of proteases
  • Plasmids carry genes that code fo toxins
    • •Exotoxins (Clostridium botulinum)
  • Enterotoxins (E. coli, staphylococcus aureus)
  • Streptococcal hemolysins, SSST
  1. Metabolism of various sugars and Hydrocarbons
    * Plasmids carry genes that allow for the metabolism of various sugars and hyrdrocarbons
  2. Tumorogenesis
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
74
Q

Biofilms

A

Colonies or communities of bacteria that are enclosed by secreted complex polymers with complex architecture.

The whole colony functions physiologically as a coordinated unit. The polymer enclosures or exopolysaccharide matrix allow cell adhesion and aggregation and make them impermeable and resistant to antibiotics and host immune responses.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
75
Q

Which antibiotics selectively block protein synthesis?

A

aminoglycosides(streptomycin,tobramycin), and tetracyclines and erythromicin

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
76
Q

Oxygen Metabolism

A
  • NADPH oxidase
  • Superoxide anion
  • Superoxide dismutase
  • Hydrogen peroxide
  • Ferrous salt
  • Hydroyl radical
  • Glutathione peroxidase & reductase
  • Catalase
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
77
Q

Clusters bacteria examples

A

Staphylococcus aureus

Staph epidermis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
78
Q

Three different ways that bacteria can produce energy

A

Fermentation- Extension of glycolysis

Glycolysis

Respiration (includes glycolysis, Krebs Cycle, and ETC)

79
Q

Which bacteria is overgrown in bacterial vaginosis?

A
  • Candida albicans yeast overgrowth (thick white discharge, but no smell)
  • Treatable with clotrimazole (lotrimin) gel
80
Q

Species

A

Strains with a high degree of overall similarities that differ from other stains

81
Q

Plasmid

A
    1. Extrachromosomal DNA
    1. DS, circular
    1. oriC and oriT (terC)
  • oriC- start of replication
  • oriT- termination of replication
    1. Independent replication- plasmids don’t depend on the host to replicate
    1. Variety of types , Carry Optional Genes
  • A bacteria can carry many different types of plasmids
82
Q

•Bacitracin

A

pervents dephosphorylation of phospholipid carrier, thus blocking regeneration of carrier molecule

83
Q

In between the peptidoglycan and the outer membrane you have the ____________-

A

Periplasmic space

84
Q

Iron Metabolism in Bacteria

A
  • Bacterial iron-containing enzymes(cytochromes, catalase)
  • Bacterioferritin—bacterial iron storage
  • Host iron-containing proteins (hemoglobin, ferritin)
  • Host iron-transport proteins (transferrin, lactoferrin)
  • Bacterial iron-sequestration
  • siderophores- ferrichromes,enterobactins
  • membrane-receptor proteins
  • host cell iron exporters (ferroportin, hepcidin)
  • Iron overload in malaria, sickle cell disease (blood transfusions)
  • Iron chelators (desferrioxamine)-infections
85
Q

Plasmid Types

A

•F Plasmid

  • Conjugative Plasmid

•F’ Plasmid

  • Integrates with host chromosome and can come back out
  • HFR Plasmid
  • High Frequency of recombination

•Drug Resistance Plasmid

86
Q

Transfection

A

•Insertion of “naked bacteriophage” DNA to produce infectious phage particles.

•“Man-made” or laboratory mechanism

87
Q

•Host genetic defects in colon mucosal barrier function, innate bacterial killing or immunoregulation may alter anaerobic microbial composition and result in continuous inflammation by exotoxins of _____________ and development of ______________ and ____________

A

Clostridium difficile; Crohn’s disease; ulcerative colitis

88
Q

Regulator of normal vaginal flora

A

Lactobacillus

89
Q

_______________ allow the bacterium to adhere to host epithelial cells.

A

Pili (fimbriae)

90
Q

Where does ETC occur in bacteria?

A

In the cytoplasm

91
Q

Plasmid

A

Small amount of DNA

a genetic structure in a cell that can replicate independently of the chromosomes, typically a small circular DNA strand in the cytoplasm of a bacterium or protozoan

Carry genes that encode for resistance to antibiotics

Carries genes for toxic production

No necessary for the survival of a bacteria

92
Q

Diplococci bacteria examples

A

Gram Positive

Streptococcus pnemoniae

Gram Negative

Neisseria gonorrhea

N. sicca

N. meningitidis

93
Q
A
94
Q

•Glycopeptides (vancomycin)

A
  • bind to terminal D-ala-D-ala residues, thus preventing incorporation of subunit into growing peptidoglycan
95
Q
A
96
Q

As Viruses and intracellular bacteria multiply, they ____________________, _______________and _________________.

A

kill cells with toxin production and inflammation; induce chronic infections ; evade host humoral immune responses

97
Q

Fermentation product of yeast cells

A

Ethanol and carbon dioxide

98
Q

Class 1 Integron

A

A genetic element that possesses a site, at which additional DNA, in the form of gene cassettes, can be integrated by site-specific recombination, and which encodes an enzyme, integrase, that mediates these site-specific recombination events. So, it’s a genetic unit that includes genes for a site specific recombination, they can capture and mobilize genes contained in mobile elements.

○ When integrons acquire antibiotic genes they make a cassette out of it. Gene cassette is a type of mobile genetic element that contains a gene and a recombination site. Gene cassettes can move around within an organism genome or be transferred to another organism in the environment via horizontal gene transfer. These cassettes often carry antibiotic resistance gene

SINGLE PROMOTOR. All genes on or all genes off

99
Q

Two types of respiration

A

▪ For aerobic respiration, all 3 things: glycolysis, Krebs, & ETS have to be present
▪ An oxygen molecule is the final electron acceptor in ETS
○ Aerobic
○ Anaerobic

100
Q

Components of Trp Operon

A

○ A promoter
○ An operator
○ A repressor gene
Structural enzymes, which are involved in the biosynthesis of tryptophan

101
Q

Mode of action for enzymatic lysis

A

This toxin behaves like a phospholipase c by degrading the phospholipid content of the cell
membrane, thus allowing it to lyse the cell membrane

○ Once the cells are lysed, the bacteria can’t survive and cell death results

102
Q

Modes of gene transfer that are now in clinical use

A

Retro-viruses

Adeno-viruses

Liposomes

103
Q

Causes of UTIs

A

–Tumors

– Kidney stones

– Ureteric reflux

– Prostatic hypertrophy

–Bladder incontinence

– Short female urethra

– Catherization

–Poor hygiene/ GI Urethral Contamination (by E. Coli and Klebsiella)

104
Q

Modes of gene transfer that effects stable gene integration

A

Retroviruses

Adeno-associated viruses

105
Q

How does rifampin work?

A

Inhibits RNA synthesis by binding to DNA- dependent RNA polymerase

106
Q

Two types of professional phagocytes

A

(a) is a blood monocyte ,long-lived with mitochondria, antigen presenting, produces IL-1, TNF-α, IL-6
(b) is a polymorphonuclear neutrophil, short-lived without mitochondria, uses glycolysis under anaerobic conditions such as in inflammatory focus, nonantigen presenting or cytokine production

107
Q

Diptheria Toxin Regulation

A

The dtxR bacterial gene encodes a 226 AA DtxR repressor protein

The DtxR repressor is inactive by itself

Fe+2 is a co-repressor* of DtxR

The DtxR-Fe+2 complex is a DNA binding protein that binds to the bacteriophage tox operator to inhibit transcription

• Repressor also binds to siderophore transport genes

  • ○ Siderophores are iron sequestration
108
Q

Acid fast bacteria

A

Mycobacterium species, neither gram positive nor negative);cell wall with peptidoglycan and layers of cord factor and mycolic acid

109
Q

Modes of gene transfer that accomodates genes of reasonable size

A

Retro-viruses

Adeno-viruses

Aden-associated viruses

Liposomes

Macro-molecular conjugates

110
Q

Genus

A

Collection of similiar species

111
Q

The F sex pilus is used for ___________ and __________

A

bacterial conjugation and DNA transfer.

112
Q

Signficance of lactobacillus

A

Lactobacillus is an important member of the vaginal flora because it regulates that flora through the production of lactic acid because it provides an acidic environment that keeps every member of that flora in check

The overuse of antibiotics can decimate Lactobacillus, wipe out the flora, and dysregulate the dynamics of the population

There are some people who have a hormonal defect that affects regulation of the flora

In the mouth and oral cavities, Lactobacillus plays a role in the formation of dental carries

If you wipe out Lactobacillus from that flora, there’s no regulation, so everyone
will go wild and you have bacterial vaginosis

113
Q
A
114
Q

Plasmids

A

Plasmids are extrachromosomal DNA found in all genera of bacteria. Plasmids are of medical importance because they carry genes for resistance to antibiotics, toxin production and virulence factors

115
Q

Many bacteria multiply outside host cells on mucosal cells and in blood circulation ,e.g ______, _______, ___________, and ____________.

A

E.coli, Staphylococci, Streptococci, Pseudomonas

116
Q

Antibiotics that inhibit antimetabolites

A

Sulfonamides

Dapsone

Trimethoprim

Para-aminosalicyclic acid

117
Q

In product of fermentation for many bacteria found in our GI tract?

A

Mixture of organic acids

118
Q

BACTERIAL ENDOSPORES

How? What? When?

A

Spore formation is characteristic of two genera,Bacillus (aerobes) and Clostridium ( anaerobes)

Sporulation occurs when the bacterium is under environmental stress e.g. lack of nutrients, extreme temperatures or conditions unfavorable to growth

The structure and chemistry of the bacterial spore allows it to resist physical and chemical conditions that are detrimental to the vegetative form of the bacterium

Bacterial spores are of medical significance they are means of dissemination of certain diseases

Bacterial spores are destroyed by autoclaving

119
Q

Streptococci bacteria examples

A

S.pyrogenes

S.mutans

120
Q

Which bacteria produce a lot of capsule?

A

Proteus

Klebsiella

121
Q

When will the CAP protein bind to the CAP site?

A

When cAMP levels are high

The catabolic activating protein will not bind to the site by itself. It will
only bind when in complex with cyclic AMP

122
Q

Oxygen utilization. Which bacteria?

A

Obligate aerobes- bacillus

Faculative anaerobes- E. Coli, Staph

Aerotolerant anaerobes- Lactobacillus

Microaerophiles (need oxygen but poisioned by high concentrations)- Campylobacteria

Obligate anaerobes- Clostridium

123
Q

Spore formation is characteristic of two genera,____________ and ______________

A

Bacillus (aerobes); Clostridium ( anaerobes)

124
Q

Siderophores

A

a molecule that binds and transports iron in microorganisms.

125
Q

•Cycloserin

A

inhibits reactions involved in incorporation of alanine into cell wall precursor

126
Q

–S. aureus protein A binds Fc portion of______

A

IgG

127
Q

Phylogenetic relatedness is determined by comparisons of ______ sequences among bacteria.

A

16srRNA

128
Q

Macromolecules in Bacteria

A

•Protein: 2,360,000/cell

– ( 1,050 types)

–DNA: (1 type)

–23S,16S,5S rRNAs,1type

–tRNA 60 types

–mRNA 400 types

–Lipid: 22,000,000/cell

(4 types)

–LPS: 1,200,000/cell

–Peptidoglycan:1/cell

–Glycogen 4,360/cell

129
Q

Modes of gene transfer that have cell-type specificity

A

Macromolecular conjugates

130
Q

Regulons

A

Regulons allow the co-ordinate up-regulation of multiple genes/operons

in response to a common environmental signal / regulatory molecule

The SOS response is one such regulon.

SOS response is activated by DNA damage and it coordinates various functions required to control DNA damage.

At least 15 genes at different chromosomal locations are controlled by the action of a repressor protein-LexA.

In the absence of DNA damage, LexA represses SOS induced genes by binding to their operator regions.

Following DNA damage, a second regulatory protein, RecA binds to ssDNA and RecA proteolytically cleaves the LexA repressor.

Proteolysis of LexA activates expression of genes in the SOS regulon.

131
Q

LPS contains lipid A, an important endotoxin responsible for the life-threating condition of___________. Lipid A is a potent activator of _________

A

bacterial sepsis; TLR-4.

TLR-4’s activation leads to an intracellular signaling pathway NF-κB and inflammatory cytokine production which is responsible for activating the innate immune system

132
Q

How does translational control occur?

A

By changing the shape of the mRNA

133
Q

Host response to strep pnemonia

A

Release of neutrophils that can phagocytose

134
Q

Enzymes found in periplasmic space

A

–phosphatases ,proteases, endonucleases

135
Q

Mode of action for hyperactivation

A

will bind to the surface of the target cell’s membrane
○ They will inject subunits of the toxin
○ The subunits of the toxin will activate cyclic AMP
The cyclic AMP will turn around and push all the electrolytes out of our system (fluid will
also be pushed out)

○ Organisms like E.coli that cause diarrhea. Diphtheria.

136
Q

Antimembrane agents

A

Polymyxins

  • Anti-bacterial; disrupts hydrophobic region of cell membrane; possess multiple positive charges to bind phospholipid phosphatases

Polyenes

  • Anti-fungal; react with steroids in cell membrane to alter permeability
137
Q

The TrpL sequence

A
  • Leader peptide
  • Contains 2 UGG Trp codons inside
  • this mRNA transcript that makes secondary structures
    • There are several RNA secondary structures you can make
      • ○ You can make a 2-3 stem loop (low tryptophan)
        ○ You can make a 3-4 stem loop (High tryptophan)
        • transciptional terminator, if it is followed by a poly U.
        • Poly U activates RNA polymerase
          ○ OR, you can make both
138
Q

Which type of bacteria has a thicker cell wall?

A

Gram positive

139
Q

What differentiates the cell membrane of prokaryotes from eukaryotes?

A

The lack of sterols

140
Q

Trp Operon

A
  • Absence of tryptophan activates expression of genes required to synthesize tryptophan.
  • Regulation aims to switch off expression when tryptophan is plentiful.

This is the opposite of lac control

One level of control operates through TrpR the trp repressor. Tryptophan acts as a co-repressor with TrpR.

Trp operon encodes enzymes of the shikimate pathway that convert Chorismate to tryptophan

141
Q

Eukaryotes that pathogenic to us

A

Plasmodium species (malaria)

Trichomonas vaginalis (STD)

Toxoplasma gondii

Candida albicans (oral, vaginal candidaiasis)

142
Q

Examples of diseases that different to treat due to the prescence of biofilms

A

Cystic fibrosis

UTIs

143
Q

•Proportions of ________________ and some anaerobes in mouths of patients with oral cancer are >2X that of healthy controls

A

Streptococcus mitis

144
Q

Peptidoglycan cross link in gram positive bacteria

A

Pentapeptide

*No link in gram negative

145
Q

Where are antiphagocytic factors found? Which compounds are considered antiphagocytic?

A

Many in the capsule

M protein, which is found in the cell wall but functions in the capsule

146
Q

Components of periplasmic space

A

Enzymes involved in transport, degradation, and synthesis

–binding proteins for sugars, amino acids, inorganic ions, vitamins

–chemoreceptors that influence motility

–Drug resistance enzymes such as beta- lactamase

147
Q

TRANSPOSONS

A
  • Closely related to IS elements.
  • Carry a variety of genes, especially antibiotic resistance genes.
  • Three Types
  • A. Auxiliary genes flanked by IS elements
  • ex. Cmr transposon Tn9
  • B. No IS flanking elements. Contains 2 genes, Transposase and Resolvase.
  • Ex. Beta lactamase Tn3
  • C. Conjugative Transposons in Streptococcus

148
Q

Transformation

A
  • Uptake of “naked” (NO PROTEINS) , fragmented bacterial DNA.
  • Competency of bacterial cells (bacterial cells have to be competent to take up the DNA)
  • Mechanism
  • absorption
  • •entry
  • •incorporation
  • •G+ cells get ss DNA
  • •G- cells get dsDNA but integrate only 1 strand
149
Q

Which species form capsules?

A

Haemophilus, Neisseria, Klebseilla, Streptococcus, E.coli and Bacillus

150
Q

Exotoxin. Gram Positive or Gram Negative

A

Can be found in both

151
Q

Diptheria toxin

A

• Diphtheria toxin inhibits protein synthesis
• It’s an a and b toxin
It’s activity is an ADPR & it’s substrate is EF-2, when they are together, it’s inactive so protein synthesis is inhibited

○ A stands for activity
• The b portion binds to the receptor and the a portion is taken in

152
Q

Causes of Bacterial Vaginosis

A
  • Loss of regulation
  • Overgrowth of gram negative bacteria
  • Flora disruption
  • Physiological imbalance
  • Gardrenella vaginalis
  • Bacteroides species,
  • Mobiluncus species
  • Occurs when the normal balance of bacteria in the vagina is disrupted and replaced by an overgrowth of certain bacteria.
  • Common in pregnant women and women of child-bearing age
  • accompanied by white or gray discharge, fishy-smelling odor, pain, itching, or burning urination.
  • Increased risks include douching; new or multiple sexual partners

153
Q

Mode of action for Inhibition of Nerve-Muscle transmission

A

You also have bacteria that have neurotoxins, which prevent the transmission of the
electrical signals that cause either muscle contraction or muscle relaxation

154
Q

Colon Flora

A
  • Bacteroides fragilis
  • Fusobacterium nucleatum
  • E. coli
  • Clostridium difficile
  • Lactobacillus acidophilus and other species
155
Q

What factors to bacteria use to become invasive?

A

They use a lot of enzymes. especially hydrolytic enzymes

156
Q

Mucus on plate in indicative of

A

Capsule

157
Q

Bacterial additional morphology

A

Single bacillus

  • E. coli (diarrhea, septicemia, UTI), Pseudomonas aeruginosa (in cystic fibrosis, burn trauma); Lactobacillus species; Clostridium perfringes (myonecrosis, gangrene)

Coccobacillus

  • Bordetella pertussis (whooping cough)
  • Hemophilus influenzae (childhood meningitis)

Vibrio (curved)

  • Vibrio cholera (profuse diarrhea)

Spirillum (spiral)

  • Borellia burgdorferi (Lyme disease)

Spirochete (cork screw)

  • Treponema pallidum (syphilis)

Branched Filamentous (Nocardia, Actinomyces)

158
Q

Model Regulatory Systems

A

The Operon, Transcriptional Control

  • lac, trp

Catabolite Repression: lac

Attenuation, Post-Transcriptional Control

  • trpL

Translational Control

Regulons

  • SOS System
  • Sigma Factors
  • DtxR
159
Q

Three lines of immune responses and protection

A

Natural barriers/exterior defenses

Innate antigen-nonspecific defenses

-rapid, local responses (fever, complement,

inflammation, phagocytosis, cytokines)

Acquired (adaptive) antigen-specific responses

-specifically target microbial pathogens that

pass through first two defenses (antibodies, B and T cells)

160
Q

The most common organism that causes UTIs?

A

E. coli, followed by Klepsiella

161
Q
A
162
Q

Elevated neutrophils =______________
○ Elevated eosinophils = ________________
Elevated lymphocytes =_______________

Elevated basophls=________________

A

bacterial infection

parasitic infection or allergy

intracellular infection like viral or fungal infection

allergic reaction

163
Q

Fermentation

A

A metabolic process that consumes sugar in the absence of oxygen. The products are organic acids, gases, or alcohol. It occurs in yeast andbacteria, and also in oxygen-starved muscle cells

164
Q

Lipid A causes:

A

–cells to produce abnormal amounts of cellular products (cytokines) that normally regulate vascular permeability, blood pressure, blood coagulation and immune responses

165
Q

How do beta lactam antibiotics inhibit cell wall formation in bacteria?

A

By inhibiting cross linkaages of peptidoglycan units

166
Q

____________ and __________ are required for heat resistance in spores.

A

Calcium; dipicolinic acid

167
Q

3 components of Insertional elements

A

direct repeat (both sides), inverted repeat (both sides) , and the core area encoding for transposase genes which will move the gene

168
Q

Exotoxins

A

•Enzymatic lysis

alpha toxin—Clostridium perfringes

• Pore formation

alpha hemolysin — Staph aureus

•Protein synthesis inhibition (80s ribosome)

diphtheria & shigella toxins

•Nerve-muscle transmission-inhibition

tetanus toxin-spastic paralysis

botulinum toxin-flaccid paralysis

169
Q

Antibiotics that inhibit DNA replication

A

Quinolenes

Metronidazole

Clofazimine

170
Q

Insertional Elements

A
  • Can insert into new sites on the same or a different chromosome (replicon).
  • Can NOT replicate autonomously.
  • Contains a single gene that codes for Transposase.
  • Most have a similar structure (~1,000bp)
  • Deletions, duplications, translocations and fusions.
  • Requires little specificity for the DNA sequence in which it inserts.

Insertion sequences (IS’s) are transposable elements whose only genes
are directly related to promotion and regulation of their transposition,

  • Ends contain inverted repeats of 10-50bp.
  • Mycobacterium tuberculosis IS 16100.
171
Q

Functions of the cell membrane

A

–Osmotic barrier (fig. 3-8)

–Electron transport and energy production

–Ion pumps for membrane potential

–Anchor for cell wall biosynthesis

–Chemotaxis and flagella activity

–Transport of molecules (proteins)

–Actin-like protein filaments for bacterial shape

–Site of septum formation

172
Q

Intracellular killing of engulfed bacteria

A
  • Lysosomal enzyme degradation
  • Oxidative / Respiratory Burst

Hydrolytic Enzymes

  • Lysozyme
  • Lactoferrin
  • Collagenase
  • Acid phosphatase
  • Cationic proteins
173
Q

Medically important bacteria are classified according to ____________, _____________, and _____________ characteristics.

A

Phenotypic, analytic, and genotypic

174
Q

In product of fermentation of mouth bacteria?

A

Lactic Acid

Significance:In the mouth and oral cavities, Lactobacillus plays a role in the formation
of dental carries

175
Q

How is the cell wall of bacteria unique?

A

It is many up of aminosugars

Aminosugars have been exploited to create antibiotics that can tag and destroy it

176
Q

Role of LPS in septic shock

A

-IL-1, once produced will get into circulation and travel to the hypothalamus where it will
upregulate the thermal center to increase the body’s temperature, thereby causing a fever.

The extent of the fever will be directly proportional to the amount of LPS in circulation that is
stimulating the macrophages. A low level will lead to a slight discomfort, a higher amount will lead
to a higher fever.
-

TNF-alpha can also go to the liver and induce the liver to release less sugar into circulation in order to deprive the pathogens of needed nutrients for their metabolism and proliferation

It also downregulates the release of iron into circulation. ALL organisms require iron for
their multiplication/metabolism. This is done in an effort to impede bacterial multiplication

TNF-alpha does lot more. It will go to the endothelial cells and increase the production of
adhesion molecules on the endothelial cells (ICAM-1 and VCAM-1). The upregulation of these two
adhesion molecules will increase permeability of the vasculature and will allow fluid to leak out of
blood circulation. Leakage will lead to a drop in BP (hypotension)
-

Alternative complement pathway activation: leading to production of C3a and C5a which will also
increase vascular permeability and contribute to onset of hypotension.
-
Clotting cascade: LPS can also induce the clotting pathway, which leads to intravascular
coagulation. Blood clots in circulation will prevent essential organs from receiving nutrients and
oxygen from the blood-a lack of these two will cause ultimate failure (multiple organ failure will
then lead to septic shock. If not reversed, you will die from it.
-
IgE- LPS can also induce production of IgE which will bind to mast cells and cause their
degranulation leading to release of histamine and serotonin. These two will also contribute to the
increasing of vascular permeability.

177
Q

A lot of the endoenzymes are used for ______________, but a lot of the extracellular enzymes
are used for ______________

A

metabolic activity; pathogenicity

178
Q

Attenuation

A
  • The premature termination of transcripts
  • Itself allows for a 600 fold range in expression of tryptophan genes
  • All due to the TrpL region
  • Within the gene for TrpL is an attenuator sequence called the attenuator site
    • This is a second regulatory region, which allows attenuation to occur
179
Q

Certain bacterial species multiply inside host cells (phagocytes), for example, ____________,________,_________, and _____________. All ______________are obligate intracellular parasites

A

Shigella Mycobacteria, Salmonella, Neisseria, Chlamydia

viruses

180
Q

Oxygen-deprived, nerve-damaged skin as in chronic diabetes breeds _____________from invasive infections by skin flora and can lead to_____________

A

diabetic ulcers ; amputation

181
Q

Regulation sites in glycolysis

A

ATP, ADP

PEP

PFK

182
Q

Antibiotics that inhibit RNA synthesis

A

Rifampin

Rifabutin

183
Q

lacI

A
  • The lac repressor is a sequence-specific DNA-binding protein that Negatively regulates the expression of the lac operon structural genes.
  • trans-acting element
  • Inactivated by lactose
    • When an inducer such as lactose or allolactose is present, it binds to the repressor. In this form it cannot bind to the DNA operator sequence and RNA polymerase is free to bind and activate transcription of the lac operon.
184
Q

Two types of intracellular killing

A

Oxygen-dependent- When a phagocyte ingests bacteria (or any material), its oxygen consumption increases. The increase in oxygen consumption, called a respiratory burst, produces reactive oxygen-containing molecules that are anti-microbial. The oxygen compounds are toxic to both the invader and the cell itself, so they are kept in compartments inside the cell.

  • Type I
    • oxygen-dependent production of a superoxide, which is an oxygen-rich bacteria-killing substance. The superoxide is converted to hydrogen peroxide and singlet oxygen by an enzyme called superoxide dismutase. Superoxides also react with the hydrogen peroxide to produce hydroxyl radicals, which assist in killing the invading microbe
  • Type II
    • involves the use of the enzyme myeloperoxidase from neutrophil granules. When granules fuse with a phagosome, myeloperoxidase is released into the phagolysosome, and this enzyme uses hydrogen peroxide and chlorine to create hypochlorite, a substance used in domestic bleach. Hypochlorite is extremely toxic to bacteria.

Oxygen- independent

  • not as effective as the oxygen-dependent ones.
  • There are four main types. The first uses electrically charged proteins that damage the bacterium’s membrane. The second type uses lysozymes; these enzymes break down the bacterial cell wall. The third type uses lactoferrins, which are present in neutrophil granules and remove essential iron from bacteria.The fourth type uses proteases and hydrolytic enzymes; these enzymes are used to digest the proteins of destroyed bacteria.
185
Q

lac operon is composed of…

A

3 genes lacZ , lacY and lacA, a promoter, operator and terminator.

All are co-transcribed to make a single mRNA.

Each gene is independently translated into protein from the same mRNA.

This is called a poly-cistronic or polygenic mRNA.

Gene expression is controlled transcriptionally by an adjacent gene called lacI.

lacI has its own promoter and terminator so is not part of the lac operon.

186
Q

Most bacterial capsules consist of polysaccharides, except______________ with polypeptide capsule

A

Bacillus anthracis

187
Q

Endotoxin. Gram Positive or Gram Negative

A

Gram Negative

188
Q

Examples of extracellular enzymes that allow for invasiveness of bacteria

A

• Extracellular enzymes

–Hyaluronidase dissolves connective tissue

–Collagenase hydrolyses muscle connective tissue

–Streptokinase lyses blood clots

–Phospholipases damage cell membranes

–Lecithinase damages cell membranes

–Staphylokinase (fibrinolysin) dissolves fibrin clots

_ Hemolysins lyse erythrocytes and white blood cells

189
Q

Composite transposons components

A

generally consist of two copies of the same IS element flanking variable amounts of other DNA sequences coding for one or several genes with diverse functions. The best known transposons are those which were discovered as parts of antibiotic resistance plasmids

190
Q

Peptidoglycan

A

Glycan chains of GlcNac and MurNac cross-linked by peptide bridges

Thicker in gram positive bacteria

191
Q

Mode of action for pore formation

A

Bacteria that contain exotoxins that work through pore formation will punch a hole in the
membrane, which causes cell death

192
Q

Different arrangements

A

Pairs (Dipplococci)

Chains (Streptococci)

Clusters (Staplococci)

193
Q

Which toll-like receptors do gram positive and gram negative bacteria activate respectively?

A

TLR-2 AND TLR-4