Brainscape's Knowledge GenomeTM

Browse over 1 million classes created by top students, professors, publishers, and experts.


See full index

Microbiology Kaplan > Bacteria > Flashcards

Bacteria Flashcards

You may prefer our related Brainscape-certified flashcards:
Biology 101 flashcards
1
Q

Bacteria that lacks muramic acid in its cell wal

A

Chlamydia

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

Salmonella subspecies that does not produce H2S

A

Typhi

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

Factors that rickettsiae need for growth

A
  • CoA

* NAD

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

Penicillin used from gram positive bacteria and gram negative rods

A

Ampicillin, amoxicillin

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

Cephalosporins that cover only gram positive organisms and are used for surgery prophylaxis

A

First generation cephalosporins

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

Cephalosporins that apart from gram positives, cover gram negatives also

A

Second generation cephalosporins

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

Cephalosporins that have very low gram positive coverage but a great gram negative coverage

A

Third generation cephalosporins

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

Third generation cephalosporin that covers Pseudomonas

A

Ceftazidime

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

Examples of first generation cephalosporins

A
  • Cefazolin

* Cephalexin

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

Examples of second generation cephalosporins

A
  • Cefotetan
  • Cefoxitin
  • Cefaclor
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

Examples of third generation cephalosporins

A
  • Ceftazidime
  • Cefotaxime
  • Ceftriaxone
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

Cephalosporins that have as much gram positive coverage as first generation cephalosporins but less gram negative coverage than third generation, also covers Pseudomonas

A

Fourth generation

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

Fourth generation cephalosporin

A

Cepefime

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

Antibiotics that increase nephrotoxicity of aminoglycosides

A

Cephalosporins

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

Aztreonam coverage

A

Gram negatives only

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

Vancomycin coverage

A

Gram positives only

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

Aminoglycoside coverage

A

Gram negative aerobic rods

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

Metronidazole coverage

A
  • Flagellates

* Anaerobes, below the diaphragm

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

Mechanism of action of isoniazid

A
  • Inhibits synthesis of mycolic acid

* Needs catalase to activate

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

Mechanism of action of rifampin

A

Inhibits DNA-dependent RNA polymerase

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

Mechanism of action of ethambutol

A

Inhibits synthesis of arabinogalactan

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

Drugs that are inactivated by microbes by acetylation

A
  • Aminoglycosides

* Chloramphenicol

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

Drug resistance mechanism of sulfonamides

A

Active export out of the cell

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

Drug resistance mechanism of vancomycin

A

Ligase produces D-ala-D-lactate, which doesn’t bind the drug

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
Q

Bacteria with a poly-D-glutamate capsule

A

B. anthracis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
26
Q

Conjugated pneumococal vaccine

A

PCV13

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
27
Q

Organisms that secrete IgA protease

A
  • S. pneumoniae
  • H. influenzae type B
  • Neisseria
28
Q

What is the type 3 secretion system

A

Needle-like protein appendage facilitates direct delivery of toxins to eukaryotic cells

29
Q

Bacteria that have type 3 secretion system

A
  • Pseudomonas
  • Salmonella
  • Shigella
  • E. coli
30
Q

Requisite for plasmids to be transfered

A

They must have an OriT region

31
Q

Toxins that are encoded in a lysogenic phage

A
  • A strep erythrogenic toxin
  • Botulinum toxin
  • Cholera toxin
  • Diphtheria toxin
  • Shiga toxin (and verotoxin)
32
Q

Which type of transduction does not need homology for recombination, but needs restriction endonucleases

A

Specialized

33
Q

Gene that confers antimicrobial resistance that is transmitted via transposition

A

VanA gene, from Enterococcus to Staph. aureus

34
Q

What is mobilization

A

When a plasmid lacking the tra operon is transmitted at the time another one with that operon is beign transmitted (eg, happens in N. gonorrhoeae)

35
Q

Morphological components of bacterial spores

A
  • Dipicolinic acid nucleus

* Keratin coat

36
Q

Bacterias that inhibit protein synthesis by producing toxins that inactivate 60S ribosomes by removing adenine from rRNA

A
  • Shigella spp. (Shiga toxin)

* Enterohemorrhagic E. coli (verotoxin)

37
Q

Incubation period of S. aureus food poisoning

A

2 to 6 hours, non-bloody diarrhea and emesis

38
Q

Virulence factor of S. sanguinis that permits formation of vegetations in damaged heart valves

A

Dextran synthesis

39
Q

Strep A infection that most commonly develops glomerulonephritis

A

Impetigo

40
Q

Incubation period of emetic type Bacillus cereus food poisoning

A

1 to 5 hours (rice and pasta)

41
Q

Incubation period for diarrheal type Bacillus cereus food poisoning

A

8 to 18 hours, watery, non-bloody diarrhea

42
Q

Virulence factor of mycobacteria that inhibits phagolysosomal fusion

A

Sulfatides

43
Q

Lactose-fermenting enteric bacteria

A
  • Klebsiella
  • E. coli
  • Enterobacter
  • Serratia
44
Q

Most contagious phase of bordetella pertussis infection

A

Catarrhal

45
Q

Virulence factor of Pseudomonas aeruginosa that contributes to chronic infection in cystic fibrosis patients

A

Mucoid polysaccharide capsule

46
Q

Non-lactose fermenting, non-H2S producing bacteria that is resitant to gastric acid

A

Shigella

47
Q

Effect of antibiotics on fecal excretion of Salmonella

A

Prolongs duration

48
Q

Effect of antibiotics on fecal excretion of Shigella

A

Shortens duration

49
Q

Organism responsible for bacillary dysentery

A

Shigella

50
Q

Difference in the immunologi response beteween Salmonella typhi and Shigella

A

Salmonella has a monocyte response, while a neutrophil infiltration is seen in Shigella

51
Q

Only spirochete that can be visualized with aniline dyes (Wright or Giemsa)

A

Borrelia, due to its size

52
Q

Only heat-stable exotoxin

A

Staph. aureus’ enterotoxin

53
Q

Type of excretion of chloramphenicol

A

Biliary tract excretion

54
Q

Mechanism of action of dapsone

A

PABA analog, therefore it inhibits dihydropteorate synthase

55
Q

Lyme disease treatment for patients less than 9 or pregnant

A

Amoxicillin

56
Q

DOC for Lyme disease with AV block or CNS involvement (except facial palsy)

A

Ceftriaxone

*(2nd cefotaxime, 3rd penicillin G)

57
Q

HLAs associated with chronic arthritis in patients that were infected with Borrelia

A

DR4 and DRB1

58
Q

Homologous recombination follows which type of genetic transfer for bacteria

A
  • Transformation
  • Transduction
  • Hfr conjugation
59
Q

Community acquired pneumonia associated with lobar cavitation

A

Klebsiella pneumoniae

60
Q

Characteristics of the initial lesion seen in granuloma inguinale (donovanosis)

A

Extensive and progressive ulcerative lesions without lymphadenopathy, NOT painful

61
Q

Histopathologic finding seen in granuloma inguinale

A

Deeply-staining gram-negative intracytoplasmic cysts

62
Q

Mechanism of exchange of methicillin resistance genes in Staph. aureus

A

Generalized transduction

63
Q

Most common causative agent of bacterial STDs in the US

A

Chlamydia trachomatis

64
Q

Function of the ELEK test

A

Detect the diphtheria toxin

65
Q

Liver disease and iron overload predispose patients t o infection with which organism

A

Vibrio vulnificus

66
Q

Greatest risk factor for a patient with Clostridium septicum infection (most common cause of spontaneous gas gangrene)

A

Colonic malignancy

Microbiology Kaplan (3 decks)

Brainscape helps you reach your goals faster, through stronger study habits.
© 2024 Bold Learning Solutions. Terms and Conditions