Bacteria Flashcards

1
Q

Bacteria that lacks muramic acid in its cell wal

A

Chlamydia

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2
Q

Salmonella subspecies that does not produce H2S

A

Typhi

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3
Q

Factors that rickettsiae need for growth

A
  • CoA

* NAD

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4
Q

Penicillin used from gram positive bacteria and gram negative rods

A

Ampicillin, amoxicillin

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5
Q

Cephalosporins that cover only gram positive organisms and are used for surgery prophylaxis

A

First generation cephalosporins

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6
Q

Cephalosporins that apart from gram positives, cover gram negatives also

A

Second generation cephalosporins

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7
Q

Cephalosporins that have very low gram positive coverage but a great gram negative coverage

A

Third generation cephalosporins

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8
Q

Third generation cephalosporin that covers Pseudomonas

A

Ceftazidime

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9
Q

Examples of first generation cephalosporins

A
  • Cefazolin

* Cephalexin

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10
Q

Examples of second generation cephalosporins

A
  • Cefotetan
  • Cefoxitin
  • Cefaclor
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11
Q

Examples of third generation cephalosporins

A
  • Ceftazidime
  • Cefotaxime
  • Ceftriaxone
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12
Q

Cephalosporins that have as much gram positive coverage as first generation cephalosporins but less gram negative coverage than third generation, also covers Pseudomonas

A

Fourth generation

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13
Q

Fourth generation cephalosporin

A

Cepefime

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14
Q

Antibiotics that increase nephrotoxicity of aminoglycosides

A

Cephalosporins

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15
Q

Aztreonam coverage

A

Gram negatives only

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16
Q

Vancomycin coverage

A

Gram positives only

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17
Q

Aminoglycoside coverage

A

Gram negative aerobic rods

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18
Q

Metronidazole coverage

A
  • Flagellates

* Anaerobes, below the diaphragm

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19
Q

Mechanism of action of isoniazid

A
  • Inhibits synthesis of mycolic acid

* Needs catalase to activate

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20
Q

Mechanism of action of rifampin

A

Inhibits DNA-dependent RNA polymerase

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21
Q

Mechanism of action of ethambutol

A

Inhibits synthesis of arabinogalactan

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22
Q

Drugs that are inactivated by microbes by acetylation

A
  • Aminoglycosides

* Chloramphenicol

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23
Q

Drug resistance mechanism of sulfonamides

A

Active export out of the cell

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24
Q

Drug resistance mechanism of vancomycin

A

Ligase produces D-ala-D-lactate, which doesn’t bind the drug

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25
Bacteria with a poly-D-glutamate capsule
B. anthracis
26
Conjugated pneumococal vaccine
PCV13
27
Organisms that secrete IgA protease
* S. pneumoniae * H. influenzae type B * Neisseria
28
What is the type 3 secretion system
Needle-like protein appendage facilitates direct delivery of toxins to eukaryotic cells
29
Bacteria that have type 3 secretion system
* Pseudomonas * Salmonella * Shigella * E. coli
30
Requisite for plasmids to be transfered
They must have an OriT region
31
Toxins that are encoded in a lysogenic phage
* A strep erythrogenic toxin * Botulinum toxin * Cholera toxin * Diphtheria toxin * Shiga toxin (and verotoxin)
32
Which type of transduction does not need homology for recombination, but needs restriction endonucleases
Specialized
33
Gene that confers antimicrobial resistance that is transmitted via transposition
VanA gene, from Enterococcus to Staph. aureus
34
What is mobilization
When a plasmid lacking the tra operon is transmitted at the time another one with that operon is beign transmitted (eg, happens in N. gonorrhoeae)
35
Morphological components of bacterial spores
* Dipicolinic acid nucleus | * Keratin coat
36
Bacterias that inhibit protein synthesis by producing toxins that inactivate 60S ribosomes by removing adenine from rRNA
* Shigella spp. (Shiga toxin) | * Enterohemorrhagic E. coli (verotoxin)
37
Incubation period of S. aureus food poisoning
2 to 6 hours, non-bloody diarrhea and emesis
38
Virulence factor of S. sanguinis that permits formation of vegetations in damaged heart valves
Dextran synthesis
39
Strep A infection that most commonly develops glomerulonephritis
Impetigo
40
Incubation period of emetic type Bacillus cereus food poisoning
1 to 5 hours (rice and pasta)
41
Incubation period for diarrheal type Bacillus cereus food poisoning
8 to 18 hours, watery, non-bloody diarrhea
42
Virulence factor of mycobacteria that inhibits phagolysosomal fusion
Sulfatides
43
Lactose-fermenting enteric bacteria
* Klebsiella * E. coli * Enterobacter * Serratia
44
Most contagious phase of bordetella pertussis infection
Catarrhal
45
Virulence factor of Pseudomonas aeruginosa that contributes to chronic infection in cystic fibrosis patients
Mucoid polysaccharide capsule
46
Non-lactose fermenting, non-H2S producing bacteria that is resitant to gastric acid
Shigella
47
Effect of antibiotics on fecal excretion of Salmonella
Prolongs duration
48
Effect of antibiotics on fecal excretion of Shigella
Shortens duration
49
Organism responsible for bacillary dysentery
Shigella
50
Difference in the immunologi response beteween Salmonella typhi and Shigella
Salmonella has a monocyte response, while a neutrophil infiltration is seen in Shigella
51
Only spirochete that can be visualized with aniline dyes (Wright or Giemsa)
Borrelia, due to its size
52
Only heat-stable exotoxin
Staph. aureus' enterotoxin
53
Type of excretion of chloramphenicol
Biliary tract excretion
54
Mechanism of action of dapsone
PABA analog, therefore it inhibits dihydropteorate synthase
55
Lyme disease treatment for patients less than 9 or pregnant
Amoxicillin
56
DOC for Lyme disease with AV block or CNS involvement (except facial palsy)
Ceftriaxone *(2nd cefotaxime, 3rd penicillin G)
57
HLAs associated with chronic arthritis in patients that were infected with Borrelia
DR4 and DRB1
58
Homologous recombination follows which type of genetic transfer for bacteria
* Transformation * Transduction * Hfr conjugation
59
Community acquired pneumonia associated with lobar cavitation
Klebsiella pneumoniae
60
Characteristics of the initial lesion seen in granuloma inguinale (donovanosis)
Extensive and progressive ulcerative lesions without lymphadenopathy, NOT painful
61
Histopathologic finding seen in granuloma inguinale
Deeply-staining gram-negative intracytoplasmic cysts
62
Mechanism of exchange of methicillin resistance genes in Staph. aureus
Generalized transduction
63
Most common causative agent of bacterial STDs in the US
Chlamydia trachomatis
64
Function of the ELEK test
Detect the diphtheria toxin
65
Liver disease and iron overload predispose patients t o infection with which organism
Vibrio vulnificus
66
Greatest risk factor for a patient with Clostridium septicum infection (most common cause of spontaneous gas gangrene)
Colonic malignancy