Bacteria Flashcards

1
Q

Staphylococcal species is gram___ and____

A

gram positive and aerobic

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2
Q

Streptococcal species is gram ___ and ____

A

gram positive and aerobic

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3
Q

Enterococcal species is gram___ and ____

A

gram positive and aerobic

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4
Q

What is the most virulent of the staph species?

A

staph aureus

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5
Q

staph aureus is coagulase ____

A

positive

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6
Q

Most staph aureus produce _____, mediated by plasmids

A

penicillinase (beta-lactamase)

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7
Q

What is affective against staph aureus?

A

penicillinase-resistant penicillin (methicillin) and cephalosporins

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8
Q

What is methicillin-resistant, cephalosporin resistant, but vancomycin sensitive?

A

MRSA - chromosomally encoded PBP (penicillin binding protein)

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9
Q

VISA stands for

A

vancomycin intermediately susceptable

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10
Q

GISA stands for

A

glycopeptide intermediately susceptable

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11
Q

Staph aureus is a true _____

A

pathogen

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12
Q

Staph aureus is gram ____

A

positive

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13
Q

Staph epidermidis is gram ____

A

positive

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14
Q

Which staph is part of the normal skin flora?

A

staph epidermidis

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15
Q

staph epi. is coagulase ____

A

negative

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16
Q

Which staph is usually a colonizer?

A

staph epi

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17
Q

Diseases from staph ____ are usually associated with immunocompromised, violation of natural barriers, implantation of foreign devices (biofilms)

A

staph epi

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18
Q

Coagulase positive test means it is ___ form

A

gel

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19
Q

coagulase negative test means it is ____ form

A

liquid

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20
Q

Staph saprophyticus is gram ___

A

positive

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21
Q

staph sapro is coagulase ___

A

negative

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22
Q

Which staph species rarely causes infection in healthy individuals, but is most noted for UTI’s in women?

A

staph saprophyticus

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23
Q

Pyogenic supprative lesions, infection of the hair follicle or sweat gland, acne vulgaris, or a stye are all considered

A

furunculosis (“boil”)

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24
Q

infection of the base of the eyelash

A

stye

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25
Q

Spreading lesions of subq tissue, very serious, can lead to bloodstream infection is known as

A

carbuncle

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26
Q

Highly communicable, superficial skin infection, large blisters containing viable staph, seen mostly in infants and children under conditions where infections can easily be spread through touch contamination is known as

A

bullous impetigo

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27
Q

infection of soft tissue around the nails is known as

A

paronychia

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28
Q

tissue destruction with abscess formation in deep tissues is known as

A

deep lesions

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29
Q

Examples of deep tissue infections are:

A

osteomyelitis, septic arthritis, cerebral, pulmonary and renal abscesses, breast abscesses, bacterial pneumonia, endocarditis, entercolitis

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30
Q

In individuals with diabetes, alcoholism, malignancy, old age, steroid or cytotoxic therapy have an increased risk to having

A

deep lesions

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31
Q

when bacteria gets in the blood causing severe infections it is known as

A

septicemia

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32
Q

Gangrene is a type of

A

staph septicemia

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33
Q

Diseases can be caused by staphylococcal ____

A

toxins

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34
Q

Staphylococal toxins can cause diseases such as:

A

scalded skin syndrome (Ritter’s Disease)
Toxic Shock Syndrome
Staphylococcal food poisioning

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35
Q

streptococcus is gram ___

A

positive

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36
Q

Streptococcus is ____ or ___ shaped

A

spherical or oval

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37
Q

Streptococcus is usually found in ____ or ___

A

chains or pairs

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38
Q

Which bacteria comprise significant portion of the indigenous microflora of humans and animals (mostly GI tract; some respiratory tract)?

A

streptococcus (rarely cause disease)

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39
Q

Streptococcus has 3 impt human pathogens, they are:

A

strep pyogenes
strep pneumoniae
strep agalactiae

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40
Q

A further classification of the streptococcus species is

A

Lancefield groups

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41
Q

Lancefield groups are based on

A

antigenic characteristics of the outer membrane

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42
Q

There are ___ common groups designated by the letters of the alphabet (A-R) for Lancefield groups

A

14

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43
Q

Another classification of strep species is ____

A

brown groups

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44
Q

For brown group classification, streptococci are grown on sheep’s blood agar producing 3 pathogens of _____ around the colonies

A

hemolysis

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45
Q

A green zone is ___ hemolysis and is indicative of _____ hemolysis

A

alpha, incomplete

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46
Q

What are the two strep species that have alpha hemolysis?

A

S. pneumoniae, s. viridans

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47
Q

A clear zone is ___ hemolysis and is indicative of ____ hemolysis

A

beta, complete

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48
Q

What are two strep species that have beta hemolysis?

A

s. pyogenes, s. agalactiae

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49
Q

No zone is ___ hemolysis and is indicative of _______

A

gamma, non-hemolytic

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50
Q

What group of streptococci are non-hemolytic?

A

most Group D

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51
Q

Clinical classification combines ___ and ___ groupings and disease producing characterisitcs

A

Lancefield and Brown

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52
Q

An example of clinical classification for s. pyogenes would be

A

Group A, beta hemolytic Strep

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53
Q

Enterococcal and Non-enterococcal species are both

A

Group D Streptococci

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54
Q

A sore throat is

A

pharyngitis

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55
Q

Pharyngitis accounts for ___ million MD office visits yearly

A

40

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56
Q

Of all the sore throats presented, many of them are actually caused by

A

viruses

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57
Q

Only ___ of sore throats are caused from Group __ Streptococcus

A

15%, group A

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58
Q

Pharyngitis can also be caused by:

A

Arcanobacterium hemolyticum, neisseria gonorrhea, chlamydia pneumoniae, epstein-barr virus (mononucleosis), & other viruses

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59
Q

When a patient presents with pharyngitis, the diagnostic focus is to rule in or out ____

A

group A strep

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60
Q

First test to perform in a patient with pharyngitis is

A

rapid strep test

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61
Q

In a rapid strep test, good specificity (90%), means if the test is positive, ___ chance that a strep infection __ occuring

A

90% chance it IS occuring

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62
Q

In a rapid strep test, fair specificity (60%), means if the test is negative, ____ chance that you ____a strep infection

A

40% chance you MISSED a strep infection

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63
Q

What is the gold standard for someone with pharyngitis?

A

Culture and susceptibility of throat swab

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64
Q

If the rapid strep test is negative, the next step is to

A

perform a throat culture

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65
Q

Pharyngitis is usually indistinguishable from

A

viral infections

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66
Q

If a patient with pharyngitis turns out to have group ___, ____-hemolytic strep, concern arises over immunological sequella (disease that can result from pharyngitis)

A

group A, beta-hemolytic

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67
Q

Sequellas that can arise from group A, beta-hemolytic strep are:

A
Rheumatic fever (heart valve disease) - more common with strep pharyngitis
Acute glomerulnephritis (chronic renal failure) - more common with strep impetigo
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68
Q

Another strep disease causing a localized infection of healthy skin is

A

impetigo

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69
Q

Impetigo usually affects kids ___ years old

A

2-5

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70
Q

Vesicles associated with impetigo are ____, but lesions do not usually result in ____

A

contagious, scarring

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71
Q

In a patient with impetigo, staph ___ sometimes becomes a secondary invader

A

staph aureus

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72
Q

Nephritogenic strains of imetigo cause immunogloblins to

A

attack the kidneys

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73
Q

Another strep disease that causes strep infection of the skin and subcutaneous tissues (dermis) is

A

erysipelas

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74
Q

Spreading areas of erythema and pain with systemic manifestations of fever and lymphadenopathy is associated with

A

erysipelas

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75
Q

Patients with erysipelas usually have a history of a ____ and the infection is usually on the ___

A

sore throat, face

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76
Q

Serious infection of ____ can require ____ (PCN)

A

erysipelas, antibiotics (penicillin)

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77
Q

Cellulitis, necrotizing fasciitis (“flesh-eating strep”), would and burn infections, puerperal infection, scarlet fever, immunologic sequelae (rheumatic fever, acute glomerulonephritis) are all examples of

A

streptococcal diseases

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78
Q

Strep agalactiae is classified as a group ___ strep

A

B

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79
Q

The species responsible for the leading cause of pneumonia, sepsis and meningitis during the first 2 mos of life is

A

strep agalactiae

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80
Q

strep agalactiae has an incidence of ___ cases per ____ births

A

1-3/1000 births

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81
Q

Mortality rates from strep agalactiae ___ to __

A

30-60%

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82
Q

immediate perinatal period infections caused by contamination of infant with birth canal is from

A

strep agalactiae

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83
Q

_____ is a late onset disease (3-8 wks post-partum lower mortality rate (not enough maternal IgG)

A

strep agalactiae

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84
Q

Treatment for step agalactiae is

A

penicillin and aminoglycoside

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85
Q

Streptococcus pneumoniae aka “pneumococcus” or “diplococcus” has no

A

Lancefield classification

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86
Q

strep pneumoniae has a unique ____ which inhibits ____

A

polysaccharide capsule, phagocytosis

-at least 80 antigenically distinct types

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87
Q

Many strains of strep pneumoniae are sensitive to ___ but growing numbers are becoming resistant

A

penicillin

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88
Q

Strep pneumoniae is responsible for causing

A

community acquired pneumonia

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89
Q

The most common cause of bacterial pneumonia is

A

pneumococcal pneumonia

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90
Q

Mortality from pneumococcal pneumonia increases dramatically after ___ yrs of age

A

50

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91
Q

alcoholism, diabetes mellitus, chronic renal disease, some malignancies, transplantation all increase mortality from

A

pneumonia

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92
Q

Treatment for ___ is getting more complicated

A

pneumococcal pneumonia

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93
Q

pneumococcal meningitis is caused by the bacteria

A

strep pneumoniae

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94
Q

strep pneumonia is one of the “big three” causes of ___ and the most common

A

bacterial meningitis

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95
Q

Neisseria meningiditis causes

A

meningococcal meningitis

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96
Q

H. influenzae is caused by the bacteria

A

haemophilus influenzae

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97
Q

common cause of sinusitis and otitis media is

A

upper respiratory infection (URI)

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98
Q

Other infections caused by _____ include: endocarditis, arthritis and peritonitis usually following bloodstream infections

A

strep pneumoniae

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99
Q

when treating a patient with strep pneumoniae you must consider

A

site of infection

meningitis vs. pneumonia vs. bacteremia vs. URI

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100
Q

For CNS infections,
Drug-susceptible strep pneumoniae (DSSP)
-penicillin G (MIC is less/equal to ___mcg/mL)
Drug-intermediate susceptible strep pneumoniae
-MIC greater/equal to ___

A

DSSP 0.06mcg/mL
DISSP 0.12
DRSP 2.0

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101
Q

For lung and intestinal fluid,
susceptible less/equal to
intermediate equal
resistant greater than

A

2
4
8

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102
Q

High risk patients for strep pneumoniae are elderly older than ___ and those with ____ affecting immune status

A

65, underlying diseases

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103
Q

2 vacinne types for strep pneumoniae

A

pneumococcal conjugate vaccine, 7 valent

pneumococcal polysaccharide vaccine, 23 valent

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104
Q

7 valent vaccine covers ____ of disease causing strains.

A

80%

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105
Q

23 valent vaccine covers ____ of disease causing strains

A

98%

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106
Q

Prevnar (7 valent) is for children less than ___ yrs of age

A

2

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107
Q

pneumovax 23, pneu-imune 23 are for children older than ___ yrs of age and

A

2 and high risk adults

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108
Q

The spleen is composed of ___ pulp, ___ pulp, ___follicles, and ____sheaths

A

red, white, lymphoid, periarteriolar lymphoid

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109
Q

mechanical filtration of the red blood cells

A

red pulp

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110
Q

provides active immune response through humoral and cell-mediated pathways

A

white pulp

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111
Q

rich in B-lymphocytes

A

lymphoid follicles

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112
Q

rich in t-lymphocytes

A

periarteriolar lymphoid sheaths

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113
Q

A large group of streptococci with no ____ designation but with ___ hemolytic characteristic and are major constituents of the mouth and nasopharnyx are Viridans

A

lancefield, alpha

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114
Q

subacute bacterial endocarditis is caused by

A

viridans group A strep

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115
Q

Enterococcus is ___ hemolysis

A

gamma

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116
Q

Normal inhabitants of GI tract and able to survive harsh condition are

A

enterococcus

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117
Q

enterococcus can spread through

A

touch contamination

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118
Q

enterococcus can be very resistant to

A

penicillin and others

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119
Q

Many times, this bacteria must be treated with a combination of antibiotics (synergy)

A

enterococcus

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120
Q

Enterococcus does NOT cause

A

pneumonia

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121
Q

Opportunistic organisms capable of causing UTI’s, wound infections, endocarditis in damaged heart valves are

A

enterococcus species

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122
Q

One of the most highly resistant organisms today

A

enterococcus

synergistic combos are losing effectiveness

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123
Q

VRE stands for

A

Vancomycin resistant entercoccus

enterococcus faecium

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124
Q

There is some evidence that the resistance factors can be passed on to more virulent organisms such as

A

staph aureus

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125
Q

Molecular _____ is very reactive and toxic

A

oxygen

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126
Q

what are the 3 forms of molecular oxygen?

A

H2O2 (peroxide)
O2- (superoxide radicals)
OH- (hydroxyl radicals)

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127
Q

____ pour oxygen radicals over bacteria

A

macrophages

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128
Q

There are ___ bacterial enzymes that break down oxygen radicals. What are they?

A

3
Catalase
peroxidase
superoxidase dismutase

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129
Q

catalase reaction

A

2(H2O2) –> 2(H2O) + O2

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130
Q

peroxidase reaction

A

2(H2O2) –> 2(H2O) + O2

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131
Q

superoxidase reaction

A

(O2-) + (O2-) + (2H+) –> (H2O2) + (O2)

132
Q

There are four main classifications of growth for bacteria, what are they?

A

obligate aerobes
facultative anaerobes
microaerophilic bacteria (aerotolerant anaerobes)
obligate anaerobes

133
Q

In obligate aerobes, energy is derived from ______ and the ______

A

glycolysis (important) and Krebs Cycle

humans are obligate aerobes

134
Q

In obligate aerobes, ____ is the final electron acceptor in the ETC

A

oxygen

135
Q

_____ have all the protective enzymes, O2 isn’t toxic

A

Obligate aerobes

136
Q

Bacteria in facultative anaerobes are (aerobic/anaerobic)?

A

aerobic

137
Q

In facultative aerobes, ____ is the electron acceptor

A

oxygen

138
Q

Facultative anaerobes have _____ & _____ but not superoxidase mudismutase

A

catalase & peroxidase

139
Q

_____ can grow in the absence of oxygen through fermentation derived energy

A

facultative anaerobes

140
Q

facultative anaerobes prefer ___ but have the “faculty” to grow in _____ conditions

A

O2, can grow in anaerobic conditions (fermentation)

141
Q

Microaerophilic bacteria use ____ for energy

A

fermentation

142
Q

Microaerophilic bacteria (MAB) do not have an

A

electron transport system

143
Q

MAB are also known as

A

aerotolerant anaerobes

144
Q

MAB can “tolerate” low amounts of ____ because they have _____

A

oxygen

superoxidase dismutase

145
Q

MAB do not have ____ or ____

A

catalase of peroxidase

146
Q

____ cannot thrive in the presence of oxygen because there are no enzymes available to defend against it

A

obligate anaerobes

147
Q

Blood cultures for obligate anaerobes are put into special bottles that are free of _____

A

oxygen

148
Q

Clostridia is an _____ and gram ____

A

obligate anaerobe and gram positive

149
Q

C. botulinum causes ____ because neurotoxins cause “flaccid” paralysis

A

Botulism

Flaccid = lose total control of skeletal muscle (like breathing)

150
Q

C. tetani causes ___ because neurotoxins cause “rigid” paralysis

A

Tetanus (Lock jaw)

Rigid = causes muscles to lock up (can’t breathe if the muscles lock up)

151
Q

C. perfringens causes _____ because exotoxins destroy skin, soft tissue and muscle

A

gas gangrene

gas produced under skin ends up killing tissue

152
Q

C. difficile causes ____ (CDD)

A

Clostridium difficile disease (CDD)

-can be a side effect to taking antibiotics bc they would wipe out normal GI flora and allow this to grow)

153
Q

In CDD, exotoxin A causes _____, exotoxin B is _____

A

diarrhea (annoying), cytotoxic (attack mucosal cells of GI tract)

154
Q

_____ causes superinfection of the intestines caused by antibiotics which wipe out the normal GI flora

A

C. difficile

155
Q

_____ also causes pseudomembranous enterocolitis (Colon reabsorbs water, in this disease prevents water reabsorption, causing diarrhea, bleeding, NASTY)

A

C. difficile

156
Q

Strep species is _____ and gram ___

A

microaerophilic and gram positive

157
Q

What does SRGPC stand for?

A

streptococcus-related gram-positive cocci

158
Q

Peptostreptococcus is another name for

A

anaerobic strep

159
Q

______ is the most significant pathogen recovered in clinical specimens and recovered as often as Bacteroides fragilis

A

Peptostreptococcus

160
Q

Peptostreptococcus has been recovered in _____ cavities of the body

A

abscessed

161
Q

Bacteroides are classified as _____ and gram ___

A

obligate anaerobes and gram negative

162
Q

_____ is the most abundant bacteria of the lower GI tract (colon), outnumbering E. Coli 1000 to 1

A

Bacteroides fragilis

163
Q

Bacteroides fragilis produces

A

beta-lactamase

164
Q

_____ is instrumental in the development of intraabdominal abscesses

A

bacteroides fragilis

165
Q

_____ has been a target organism in the development of broad-spectrum antibiotics

A

bacteroides fragilis

166
Q

_____ is found in the oral cavity and upper respiratory tract. Dental, sinus, pulmonary infections, abscesses and human bites

A

bacteroides melaninogenicus

167
Q

Some _____ are beta-lactamase producers

A

bacteroides melaninogenicus

168
Q

Neisseria species are _____ and gram ____

A

obligate aerobes and gram negative

169
Q

Neisseria species are gram negative _____

A

diplococci

170
Q

What are the two pathogenic strains of Neisseria species?

A
Neisseria meningiditis (meningococcus)
Neisseria gonorrhea (gonorrhea)
171
Q

N. meningiditis is the main cause of ____, exclusively affecting humans

A

meningitis

172
Q

____ can be a harmless member of the normal flora

A

N. meningiditis

173
Q

in N. meningiditis, serogroups A,B,C,Y, and W135 are most commonly associated with

A

disease

174
Q

in N. meningiditis, serogroups __ and ___ account for 75% of outbreaks

A

B & C

175
Q

peak incidence of N. meningiditis, occurs btw ___ mo and ___ years. Can also occur in populations that live close together (military)

A

6 mo to 5 yrs

176
Q

Transmission of N. meningiditis is by

A

droplet nuclei

177
Q

Last epidemic of ____ was 1971 in Brazil and 1946 in USA

A

N. meningiditis

178
Q

in N. meningiditis, encpsulated bacteria resists ____, contributing to virulence, and also a need for vaccine protection

A

phagocytosis

179
Q

Mortality from N. meningiditis if untreated is ___, ___ if treated appropriately

A

100%, 15%

180
Q

meningitis and sepsis caused from ______ can cause coagulopathy which detroys major organs and also can cause adrenal gland destruction (waterhouse-friderichsen Syndrome)

A

N. meningiditis

181
Q

what is the treatment for N. meningiditis?

A

high dose of penicillin G, alternative 3rd generation cephalosporins, chloramphenicol

182
Q

Prevention of N. meningiditis, although controversial is

A

rifampin 600mg bid x2 days for adults

183
Q

N. gonorrhea is an ____ and gram ____

A

obligate aerobe and gram negative

184
Q

Transmission of N. gonorrhea is by

A

sexual contact, major reservoir in asymptomatic infected persons

185
Q

1 mil new cases estimated each yr of ___ is probably a sever underestimate

A

N. gonorrhea

186
Q

Highest incidence occurs btw ____ years of age

A

20-24

187
Q

____ of women are infected after single exposure

A

50%

188
Q

____ of women are asymptomatic, 15% may develop PID, fallopian scarring, sterility, ectopic pregnancies

A

50%

189
Q

___ of men are infected after single exposure

A

20%

190
Q

___ of men are asymptomatic, <1% developing complications: prostatitis, uretheral stricture, epidimitis

A

10%

191
Q

along with N. gonorrhea, ____ can also be present as a co-infection and should also be treated

A

chlamydia trachomatis

192
Q

N. gonorrhea produces ____ which complicates treatment

A

beta-lactamase,

193
Q

ideal treatment of N. gonorrhea involves >___% erradication rate with a single dose

A

95%

194
Q

Regimen for _____depends on site of infection and whether infection is complicated or not

A

N. gonorrhea

195
Q

What drugs are effective against N. gonorrhea?

A

selected 2nd or 3rd generation cephalosporins, fluoroquinolones, spectinomycin

196
Q

Ophthalmia neonatorium is caused by

A

N. gonorrhea

197
Q

Prophylaxis of Ophthalmia neonatorium is

A

silver nitrate solution 1%

198
Q

treatment of Ophthalmia neonatorium is

A

ceftriaxone 25-50 mg/kg single dose

199
Q

Moraxella catarrhalis is an ___ and gram ____

A

aerobe and gram negative

200
Q

Moraxella catarrhalis is also known as

A

Branhamella catarrhalis

201
Q

Moraxella catarrhalis is aerobic, gram negative ____

A

diplococci

202
Q

Moraxella catarrhalis resembles ____ species

A

Neisseria

203
Q

_____ has low pathogenicity, but increasing concern in ____ and ____ especially in patients with chronic bronchitis

A

Moraxella catarrhalis

URI’s & pneumonias

204
Q

The ___ ___ is a natural reservoir for Moraxella catarrhalis

A

nasal cavity

205
Q

COPD, CAP, acute otitis media, sinusitis, urethritis, invasive diseases in immunosuppressed patients are caused by

A

Moraxella catarrhalis

206
Q

___ in Moraxella catarrhalis contributes to virulence but is different in structure from lipopolysaccharide of the enteric gram-negative bacilli (enterobacteriaceae)

A

lipo-polysaccharide

207
Q

Moraxella catarrhalis usesd to be sensitive to ____

A

penicillin

208
Q

In the 1980’s Moraxella catarrhalis became ___ producers (chromosomally and plasmid mediated)

A

beta-lactamase

209
Q

Most Moraxella catarrhalis remain sensitive to

A

erythromycin, tetracycline, amoxicilin/clavulanic acid (augmentin), and cephalosporins

210
Q

Most Moraxella catarrhalis infections involve oral mucosa, oral antibiotics are (okay/not okay)

A

usually okay

211
Q

Pneumonia/ bacteremia caused by Moraxella catarrhalis, antibiotics should be given ____

A

parenteral

212
Q

___ in Moraxella catarrhalis contributes to virulence but is different in structure from lipopolysaccharide of the enteric gram-negative bacilli (enterobacteriaceae)

A

lipo-polysaccharide

213
Q

Moraxella catarrhalis usesd to be sensitive to ____

A

penicillin

214
Q

In the 1980’s Moraxella catarrhalis became ___ producers (chromosomally and plasmid mediated)

A

beta-lactamase

215
Q

Most Moraxella catarrhalis remain sensitive to

A

erythromycin, tetracycline, amoxicilin/clavulanic acid (augmentin), and cephalosporins

216
Q

Most Moraxella catarrhalis infections involve oral mucosa, oral antibiotics are (okay/not okay)

A

usually okay

217
Q

Pneumonia/ bacteremia caused by Moraxella catarrhalis, antibiotics should be given ____

A

parenteral

218
Q

Enterococcus is resistant to ___

A

vancomycin

219
Q

The most prominent species of enterococcus is

A

E. faecalis

220
Q

The second most prominent species of enterococcus is

A

E. faecium

221
Q

We try to limit our use of _____ because of resistant factors

A

vancomycin

222
Q

Enterobacteriaceae are also known as

A

enteric bacilli

223
Q

enteric bacilli are gram ____ and ____

A

gram negative and aerobic

224
Q

_____ are a large, diverse group of gram negative ____ found in nature and as part of the normal flora of man and animals

A

enteric bacilli, rods

225
Q

most _____ are opportunistic pathogens but some strains are highly and specifically pathogenic (E. coli)

A

enteric bacilli

226
Q

_____ is the most abundant organism found in normal flora followed by Klebsiella species, Proteus species, and Enterobacter species

A

Escherichia coli

227
Q

Enterobacteriaceae are also known as

A

enteric bacteria

228
Q

These four species are truly pathogenic

A

Salmonella, Shigella, E. coli, and Yersinia

229
Q

enteric bacilli are also known as

A

“gram-negative rods” (coliforms)

230
Q

____ is the causative organism of gram-negative sepsis

A

enteric bacilli

231
Q

In the development of gram-negative sepsis, the lip-polysaccharide _____ is contained in the cell wall and is the initiating _____ factor

A

endotoxin, virulence

232
Q

“enteric common antigen” is

A

enteric bacilli

233
Q

in ____ chromosomal and plasmid-mediated resistance to antibiotics is common and treatment is guided by results of cultures and sensitivities

A

enteric bacilli

234
Q

E. coli (___) is a type of enter bacilli.

A

non-diarrheagenic

235
Q

E. coli (___) is typical or common, its part of the normal flora, most common cause of UTI’s, causes opportunistic infections (breach of natural barriers pathologically of iatrogenically), some quite severe (septic shock - lipopolysaccharide)

A

non-diarrheagenic

236
Q

What were the first organisms identified in producing extended-spectrum beta-lactamases?

A

E. coli (non-diarrheagenic)

237
Q

there are __ E. coli (diarrheagenic) causing enteric infections

A

5

238
Q

ETEC is

A

enterotoxogenic

239
Q

EPEC is

A

enteropathogenic

240
Q

EIEC is

A

enteroinvasive

241
Q

EHEC is

A

enterohemorrhagic

242
Q

EAggEC is

A

enteroaggregtive

243
Q

Klebsiella-Enterbacter-Serratia group is gram ____ and _____

A

negative and aerobic

244
Q

the Klebsiella-Enterbacter-Serratia group is part of the ____ _____

A

enteric bacilli (enterobacteriaceae)

245
Q

there are ___ bacteria classified under the Klebsiella-Enterbacter-Serratia group. what are they?

A

3
Klebsiella pneumoniae
Enterobacter cloacae
Serratia marcescens

246
Q

_____ & _____ contribute to the virulence of Klebsiella pneumoniae

A

endotoxin and capsule (inhibit macrophage but not WBC - used for protection)

247
Q

Klebsiella pneumoniae is _____ producer, resulting in antimicrobial resistance

A

beta-lactamase

248
Q

Klebsiella pneumoniae is in GI tract, causes mainly _____ diseases including pneumonia (lobar & bronchopneumonia), UTI’s (common cause but E. coli most frequent), bacteremia (6th leading cause of nosocomial infection), klebsiella can also be present in alcoholics

A

nosocomial (hospital acquired)

when patients aspirate, it can cause pnuemonia

249
Q

_____ is the main virulence factor for enterobacter cloacae. It is enteric, gram negative and aerobic.

A

endotoxin (lipopolysaccharide - causes problem)

250
Q

_______ is also a beta-lactamase producer contributing to antibiotic resistance (along with others)

A

enterobacter cloacae

251
Q

UTI’s (pyelonephritis - deep infection of kidney and cystitis-infection of bladder) and nosocomial pneumonia’s (people on ventilator) and bacteremia are all caused by

A

enterobacter cloacae

252
Q

In Serratia marcescens, and _____ is the main virulence factor. Note: main pigment strains may be more virulent

A

endotoxin

253
Q

Serratia marcescens is another _____ producer contributing to antibiotic resistance (along with multiple other mechanisms)

A

beta-lactamase

254
Q

______ is the cause of diseases such as UTI’s (pyelonephritis and cystitis), nosocomial pneumonia and bacteremia, and infective arthritis - from intra-auricular injections (needle to joint, contaminated needle)

A

Serratia marcescens

255
Q

Proteus mirabilis is classified as ___ ____

A

enteric bacilli

256
Q

Proteus mirabilis is gram ____ and ______

A

negative and aerobic

257
Q

Proteus mirabilis is indole ___

A

positive

258
Q

endotoxin, flagella producing “swarming appearance” under microscope, and urease production are all virulence factors for

A

Proteus mirabilis

259
Q

Proteus mirabilis has SOME ______ production

A

beta-lactamase

susceptible to most antibiotics

260
Q

UTI’s (pyelonephritis and cystitis), and urolithiasis (struvite stones), staghorn calculi and nosocomial infections are caused by ___

A

proteus mirabilis

261
Q

all ____ species produce urease which breaks down urea, generates ammonia, alkalinizes the urine, precipitation of magnesium and ammonium phosphate (due to precipitation, causes struvite stones - develop staghorn calculi)

A

proteus

262
Q

Proteus vulgaris, morganella morganii, providentia rettgeri, and providentia stuartii are all indole ___. Note: all used to be called proteus

A

negative

these organisms are harder to treat with antibiotics

263
Q

Salmonella typhi is a true

A

pathogen (not normally present)

264
Q

Salmonella typhi is gram _____ and _____

A

negative and aerobic

265
Q

______ has a endotoxin, capsule that resists antibodies and complement, and survives within macrophages but not neutrophils

A

Salmonella typhi

266
Q

____ has multiple mechanisms of drug resistance

A

Salmonella typhi

267
Q

Salmonella typhi invades the ____ layer of intestines and epithelial cells of ____

A

mucus layer and cells of intestines

268
Q

enteric fever (Typhoid fever) - steady invasion of GI tract to lymphatic system to bacteremia is caused by

A

Salmonella typhi - starts as gastrointestinal disease but can get bad very quick

269
Q

Salmonella typhi is highly fatal if

A

untreated

270
Q

in the Salmonella typhi there is a “carrier state” known as

A

Typhoid Mary

271
Q

Salmonella enteriditis is gram ____ and _____

A

negative and aerobic

272
Q

Salmonella enteriditis and Salmonella typhi are both true

A

pathogens

273
Q

______ has an endotoxin, invasion properties, and the ability of survive macrophages but not neutraphils

A

Salmonella enteriditis

274
Q

Salmonella enteriditis has _____ _____ resistance

A

multiple drug

275
Q

Salmonella enteriditis usually causes watery diarrhea with fever, n&v, and is usually ____-____

A

self-limiting (will be sick, but will get better, we need to let it run its course - don’t take meds to prevent body from normal response)

276
Q

Salmonella enteriditis can occasionally cause

A

bacteremia

277
Q

transmission of Salmonella enteriditis is through

A

fecal/oral, contaminated foods - eggs, milk, poultry, kitchen sponges/towels/utensils

278
Q

Shigella dysenteriae is a true

A

pathogen

279
Q

Shigella dysenteriae produces ______ - Shiga A and B that contribute to virulence

A

enterotoxins (specifically attacks the intestine)

280
Q

Shigella dysenteriae also has endotoxins, invasion properties and the ability to resist ____ that contributes to virulence

A

stomach acid (makes it extremely contagious)

281
Q

Shigella dysenteriae causes _______ (Shigellosis) - watery diarrhea, fever, n&v. Can be fatal to small children

A

Dysentery (diarrhea containing blood - fever, abdominal pain)

282
Q

Transmission of Shigella dysenteriae is by

A

fecal/oral - extremely contagious requiring very small amounts of bacteria

283
Q

Yersinia pestis is another true

A

pathogen

284
Q

Shigella dysenteriae is gram ____ and ____

A

negative and aerobic

285
Q

Yersinia pestis is gram ____ and _____

A

negative and aerobic

286
Q

Yersinia pestis is classified as

A

coccobacilli

287
Q

Yersinia enterocolitica does NOT cause

A

plague

288
Q

what 4 factors of Yersinia pestis contribute to virulence?

A

exotoxin, endotoxin, capsule (resists phagocytosis), and enzymes (coagulase and fibrinolysin)

289
Q

Bubonic plague (black plague, pneumonic plague) is causes by

A

Yersinia pestis

290
Q

Yersinia pestis is a ____ fatal disease, associated with fever, chills, ____ onset, ____ and sepsis, vasculitis and _____ (black death)

A

rapidly fatal, sudden onset, bacteremia and sepsis, gangrene

291
Q

Transmission of Yersinia pestis is through

A

infected fleas

292
Q

Haemophilus influenza is gram ____ and aerobic

A

negative

293
Q

Haemophilus influenza is non-

A

enterobacteriaceae

294
Q

Haemophilus influenza is gram negative and cocco____

A

coccobacilli

295
Q

what are the 3 virulence factors for Haemophilus influenza?

A

endotoxin, capsule (only on the type B strain) and surface enxymes

296
Q

Haemophilus influenza is a _____ producer

A

beta-lactamase

297
Q

Haemophilus influenza occurs in ____ and the ____

A

young children and elderly

298
Q

Haemophilus influenza is the #1 cause of _____ in children 6mo to 6yrs (mostly associated with type b strain)

A

meningitis

299
Q

Antibiotics used to treat meningitis from Haemophilus influenza will reduce _____ but not ____ (neurologic deficits)

A

reduces mortality but not morbidity

300
Q

Haemophilus influenza is the #1 cause of ___ in young children

A

epiglotitis

301
Q

_______ is also known to cause sinusitis and otitis media and purulent conjunctivitis

A

Haemophilus influenza

302
Q

There is a vaccine to prevent disease and prevents mortality and morbidity against type b strain of _____. The vaccine is polysaccharide with conjugated protein carrier

A

Haemophilus influenza

303
Q

Pseudomonas aeruginosa and Burkholderia are gram ____ and _____

A

gram negative and aerobic

304
Q

what 3 virulence factors are associated with Pseudomonas aeruginosa and Burkholderia?

A

exotoxins, endotoxins, proteolytic enzymes (elastase)

305
Q

Pseudomonas aeruginosa and Burkholderia have multiple ___ ___ mechaniams, therefore they are extremely challenging to kill

A

antibiotic resistance

306
Q

Pseudomonas aeruginosa and Burkholderia are harbored in

A

moist environments (hot tubs, swimming pools (swimmer’s ear)

307
Q

Pseudomonas aeruginosa and Burkholderia are also associated with

A

cystic fibrosis

308
Q

pneumonia (necrotizing and bronchopneumonia), burn wound infections - black of green discoloration, endocarditis - IV drug abusers, UTI’s - cystitis and pyelonephritis, bacteremia - especially in immunocompromised patients, external otitis, corneal keratitis, hot tub folliculitis, osteomyelitis are diseases caused by

A

Pseudomonas aeruginosa and Burkholderia

309
Q

treatment of Pseudomonas aeruginosa and Burkholderia requires ____ ______ because no single agent covers more than 80% of isolates

A

multiple antibiotics

310
Q

Stenotrophomonas and Acinetobacter are gram ____ and ____

A

negative and aerobic

311
Q

What is the virulence factor for Stenotrophomonas and Acinetobacter?

A

endotoxin

312
Q

Stenotrophomonas and Acinetobacter have ___ ___ ____

A

multiple drug resistance

313
Q

Stenotrophomonas and Acinetobacter are often seen in _____ patients who have undergone courses of ____

A

hospitalized, and antibiotics

314
Q

nosocomial pneumonia and bacteremia are diseases caused by

A

Stenotrophomonas and Acinetobacter

315
Q

Legionella pneumophilia is gram ____ and ____

A

negative and aerobic

316
Q

Endotoxin, exotoxin (cytotoxin - impairs phagocytes), enzymes (proteolytic - lyse macrophages and monocytes), survives inside alveolar macrophages are virulence factors for

A

Legionella pneumophilia

317
Q

Legionella pneumophilia is a _____ producer

A

beta-lactamase (no beta-lactam antibiotics)

318
Q

Legionella pneumophilia causes _____ pneumonia, can be fatal in immunocompromised and elderly

A

atypical

319
Q

Legionella pneumophilia is susceptible to 3 drugs, what are they?

A

macrolides, tetracyclines, and fluoroquinolones

320
Q

Transmission of Legionella pneumophilia is by

A

water contamination (air conditioners, cruise ship water supplies, hospital water supplies, hot tubs)

321
Q

Helicobacter pylori is gram ____ and _____ but considered an ____ organism

A

negative and aerobic, considered atypical

322
Q

virulence factors for Helicobacter pylori include endotoxin, and production of ____ - enables survival in stomach by neutralizing acid with ammonia

A

urease

323
Q

the human GI tract is the only known reservoir for

A

Helicobacter pylori

324
Q

transmission of Helicobacter pylori is by

A

fecal/oral

325
Q

chronic gastritis (superficial mucosal inflammaiton - 100% of patients have infection), duodenal/peptic ulcer (occurs as an extension of chronic gastritis - 90-100% have infection), gastric peptic ulcer (similar to duodenal - 50-80% have infection), gastric carcinoma (may be an association with chronic gastritis) are all diseases caused by

A

Helicobacter pylori

326
Q

what is the treatment of Helicobacter pylori?

A

clarithromycin +amoxacillin+ PPI

327
Q

PESKY MESS

A
Proteus mirabilis
Enterobacter cloacae
Serratia marcescens
Klebsiella pneumoniae
Yersinia

M ??
E. Coli
Salmonella
Shigella