B777QBank JUL20 Flashcards

1
Q

What is the maximum Runway slope?

A

+/- 2%

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

What is the maximum tail wind component for Takeoff & Landing?

A

15 knots
Maximum Unrestricted Takeoff/Landing Tailwind Component: 10 knots. Takeoffs and landings with tailwind components up to 15 knots are permitted with the following restrictions:
Takeoff:
• OPT calculation performed
• Runway is clear and dry
• Antiskid and thrust reversers are fully operational
• Max takeoff rated thrust is used.
Landing:
• Aircraft performance landing weights are verified by OPT,
Performance, LANDING FIELD LIMIT WEIGHT
• Antiskid and thrust reversers are fully operational
• Flaps 30 landing
• Auto speed brakes are used
• No braking action reports less than GOOD

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

What is the Maximum Operating Altitude?

A

43,100 ft Pressure Altitude

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

What is the Maximum Altitude for Takeoff & Landing?

A

8,400 ft Pressure Altitude
B777F: 9,800 ft Pressure Altitude
B777F: Max field elevation limited to 9,650 ft

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

What are the Turbulent Air Penetration Speeds?

A

270 knots below 25,000 feet, 280 knots or 0.82 Mach whichever is lower at 25,000 feet and above. Maintain a minimum speed of 15 knots above the minimum maneuvering speed at all altitudes when airspeed is below 0.82 Mach.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

What is the Max EY Crosswind Component for Takeoff and Landing on a wet runway with Good Braking action?

A

Values are as specified in the EY QRH Supplementary – Company Wind Limitations

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

What operational documents list the aircraft maximum taxi weight, takeoff weight, landing weight, and ZFW?

A

As specified in the FCOM

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

What is the maximum allowable difference between Captain’s or First Officer’s altitude display and field elevation for RVSM operation?

A

The maximum difference between the Captain’s or First Officer’s altimeter and field elevation for RVSM operation is 75 ft

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

What is the Maximum tank fuel temperature?

A

49°C

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

What is the Minimum tank fuel temp prior to T/O?

A

-40°C or 3°C above the fuel freezing point (highest)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

Minimum tank fuel temp in flight is?

A

3°C above freezing point of fuel being used

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

What are the fuel loading restrictions if Center tank fuel is loaded?

A

Main tanks must be scheduled to be full if centre tank fuel is loaded. Centre tank may contain 1,360kg (B787-10,000kg) of fuel with less than full main tanks provided that c enter tank fuel + actual ZFW do not exceed MZFW and C of G limits are observed

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

What are the limitations on the use of the GPWS LOOK AHEAD TERRAIN ALERTING and TERRAIN DISPLAY Function?

A

Prohibited within 15 nm of takeoff, approach, landing at any airport not contained in GPWS database.
Do not use terrain display for navigation

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

What are the operational limitations on the use of Runway Awareness and Advisory System?

A

Do not use RAAS voice annunciations or alerts for navigation.
Do not use RAAS voice annunciations or alerts as substitute for NOTAM or ATIS information

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

What selection must be done in the Flight Management System if QFE is used for PFD altitude reference instead of QNH?

A

QFE SELECTION IS PROHIBITED BY ETIHAD’s ALTIMETER POLICY IN OM-A

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

How are the maximum and minimum Engine limits displayed?

A

Maximum and minimum limits are indicated by red engine limit display markings

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

Is intentional use of reverse thrust in-flight allowed?

A

No, intentional selection of reverse thrust in-flight is prohibited

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

Can the airplane be backed using reverse thrust while on the ground?

A

No, backing the airplane with use of reverse thrust is prohibited

19
Q

What is the maximum EGT for engine start?

A

The maximum EGT during start is indicated by a red start limit line on the EGT indication display

20
Q

What is the maximum cabin differential pressure (positive relief valves)?

A

9.1 psi differential

21
Q

What is the maximum allowable cabin pressure differential for takeoff and landing?

A

0.11 psi differential

22
Q

How is an excessive cabin differential pressure indicated on the EICAS display?

A

By a red digital readout on the EICAS display

23
Q

What precautions should be taken when making flight control changes or inputs?

A

Rapid and large alternating control inputs are to be avoided, especially in combination with large changes in pitch, roll and yaw

24
Q

What are the Company speed restrictions?

A

An aircraft speed shall not exceed 250 KIAS or minimum clean speed, whichever is greater below 10,000ft AGL, unless a specific speed has been assigned by ATC, in which case the speed shall not be greater than 250 KIAS or minimum clean speed, whichever is greater below 5,000ft AGL

25
Q

What are the maximum allowable bank angles?

A
  • Minor changes up to 10 degrees below 300ft AGL
  • 15 degrees at/above 300ft AGL
  • 30 degrees at/above 500ft AGL
26
Q

What are the maximum permissible rates of climb/descent?

A

During climb or descent, the maximum vertical speed shall not exceed:
• 2,000 ft/min when within 2,000ft of the cleared flight level/altitude
• 1,500 ft/min when within 1,000ft of the cleared flight level/altitude
These rates are maximum allowable, therefore, aircraft performance must be taken into account when adjusting the vertical speed during a high level climb or descent.
These rates are intended to minimize the activation of TA’s and RA’s and are therefore applicable when other traffic is within 5nm and +/- 2000ft of your aircraft. If not applicable crews will utilize VNAV pitch mode to capture the assigned altitude.

27
Q

Maximum vertical speeds approaching Terrain/Obstacles

A

Below 10,000ft AGL, at no time must rates of descent exceed the following values:
• 5,000 ft/min down to an altitude 5,000 ft AGL
• 4,000 ft/min down to an altitude 4,000 ft AGL
• 3,000 ft/min down to an altitude 3,000 ft AGL
• 2,000 ft/min down to an altitude 2,000 ft AGL
• 1,500 ft/min down to an altitude 1,000 ft AGL
• 1,200 ft/min below 1,000 ft AGL for Cat D aircraft

28
Q

What is the Company stabilization approach criteria?

A

An approach is considered stabilized when the following parameters are met:
1. The aircraft is on the correct path
2. Pitch is within + 8° and - 3°
3. Bank is not more than 7°
4. IAS not greater than command speed + 10 kts and not less than VREF
5. The aircraft is in the correct and briefed landing configuration
6. Sink rate is not more than:
- 1,200 ft per minute for CAT D aircraft
If a higher rate of descent is required by aircraft configuration, approach procedure or other specific conditions, it shall be briefed during approach preparations
7. Thrust setting is appropriate for the aircraft configuration. Significant changes are only allowed for gust compensation. Brief reductions to idle thrust are acceptable as long as all other stabilization criteria are met
8. All briefings and checklists have been completed
9. ILS approaches shall be flown within one dot of glide slope and localizer. During Non-ILS approaches the course deviation must stay within 1⁄2 dot or 2.5 degrees for VOR approaches and 5 degrees (ADF) for NDB approaches

29
Q

What is the latest point at which the stabilization approach criteria must be met during precision and non-precision approaches?

A
  • The stabilization approach criteria should be attained by 1500 ft RA (recommended).
  • 1000 ft RA is the latest point where the aircraft shall be in full landing configuration and the stabilized approach criteria met.
  • A Go Around must be executed if the Stabilized Approach Criteria are not met at 1000 ft RA.
  • Only as a consequence of particular speed instructions by ATC, a deviation from the stabilized speed criteria including the associated thrust setting (points 4 and 7) is permitted below 1000ft RA down to 500 ft RA.
  • In this case, the stabilized speed criteria and the associated thrust setting must be reached by 500ft RA at the latest.
30
Q

What is the latest point at which the stabilization approach criteria must be met during a straight-in instrument approach which is cleared to be concluded visually?

A

Straight-in instrument approaches which are cleared to be concluded visually must meet the Stabilized Approach Criteria at 1,000 ft RA and adhere to the Stabilized Approach Criteria as described for standard Precision and Non-Precision Approaches

31
Q

What is the latest point at which the stabilization approach criteria must be met during circling approaches and visual circuits?

A

500 ft AAL

32
Q

What is Etihad’s policy regarding orbits on final approach?

A

Orbit on the approach segment, below 2,000 ft AGL, is prohibited for any purpose, including losing of height, speed or increasing the track miles, even when requested by ATC

33
Q

What is Etihad’s policy regarding landing within the touchdown zone?

A
  • The desired touchdown zone lies between 300m to 600m from the landing threshold
  • If touchdown cannot be accomplished within the desired touchdown zone, a missed approach should normally be initiated with due regard to the remaining runway length
  • Spool up of engines, aircraft speed and pitch attitude must be considered carefully
34
Q

What is Etihad’s policy regarding the decision to execute a go-around?

A
  • A decision to initiate a ‘Go-around’ rests with the Commander as long as the aircraft is higher than 1,000 ft AAL
  • Below 1,000 ft AAL, a ‘Go-around’ shall be executed as soon as any active crew member calls out “GO-AROUND”, regardless of who is PF/PM
35
Q

When is the Sterile Cockpit Policy in force?

A

The Commander shall ensure that the “Sterile Cockpit Policy” is in force:
• From commencement of push back (or engine start when no pushback is required), to Top of Climb (TOC).
• From Top of Descent (TOD) until engine shut down on stand.

36
Q

What is the No Contact Period and when is it valid?

A

During the no-contact period there shall be no contact with the flight deck from the cabin crew.
The no-contact period is from:
• The application of takeoff power until the undercarriage is retracted.
• The extension of the undercarriage prior to landing, until the aircraft has vacated the runway.

37
Q

What is the priority of tasks for the Pilot Flying (PF) in normal and abnormal situations?

A

During all phases of flight the PF duties must be clearly assigned to one Cockpit crew member, who must refrain from performing non-essential duties. PF shall always prioritize tasks as follows:
• Aviate
• Navigate
• Communicate

38
Q

What is the priority of tasks for the Pilot Monitoring (PM)?

A
  • Monitoring flight progress
  • Assistance and supervision of PF
  • Airspace observation
  • Monitoring aircraft systems
  • Operating aircraft systems in accordance with task sharing
  • R/T communication and correct use of checklists.
  • Keeping the necessary flight records.
  • Setting, identifying and checking navigational aids according to the instructions of PF.
39
Q

What should be done in case of uncertainty about a clearance given by ATC?

A

Both Flight Crew members shall monitor ATC clearances and have a responsibility to query any clearance that is not understood, incorrectly received, or incomplete.
Any uncertainty about a clearance must be resolved by asking ATC to repeat the clearance.

40
Q

Can a pilot request ATC for lateral or vertical flight path change if one pilot is absent from the cockpit?

A

It is mandatory that, when one pilot is absent from frequency, no request for lateral or vertical change of the flight path is made to ATC.

41
Q

What are the applicable procedures when a pilot needs to leave the flight deck for physiological reasons or otherwise?

A

Prior to leaving the cockpit, both pilots will cross check that the radio panels are configured with the active frequency on set 1 and the guard frequency (121.5) on set 2 including appropriate volume setting.
During the absence from the cockpit, sterile cockpit rules apply and the remaining pilot at the controls should be wearing head phones and have the full seat harness securely fastened.
The remaining pilot must refrain from performing non-essential duties (i.e. reading of iPad, etc) and have unobstructed vision to the flight instruments at all times.

42
Q

What are the mandatory altitude checks and callouts during climb and descent phases of flight

A

Altitude awareness is achieved by the active attention of the Flight Crew. This awareness with associated continuous monitoring is the primary means of ensuring that cleared altitudes are adhered to and clearances are not infringed. The mandatory checks and calls are:
• “10000’ above airport elevation”
• Every 10000’ (FL200 and above, in climb and descent):
“Passing ALT/FL…, climbing / Descending FL/ALT…”
1000’ before reaching the cleared Altitude or Flight Level: “one thousand to go”.

43
Q

What critical actions shall be crosschecked and confirmed by the flight crew?

A
  • Engine thrust levers
  • Fuel master or control switches
  • Engine fire handles or switches
  • Engine fire extinguisher switches
  • IDG/CSD disconnect switch
  • Aircraft configuration changes (Landing gear, flaps, speed brakes)
  • Altimeter bug and airspeed bug settings, as applicable
  • Altimeter subscale settings
  • Altitude (window) settings
  • Transfer of control of the aircraft
  • Changes to the Automatic Flight system (AFS) / Flight Management System (FMS) and radio navigation aids during the departure and or approach phases of flight.
  • Weight/mass and balance calculations and associated AFS/FMS entries.
  • Performance calculations or inputs, including AFS/FMS entries.