B777 Quiz Flashcards
When does the ground crew call horn sound?
When cooling of forward electronic electrical equipment is inoperative.
During preflight, what position should the FWD and AFT OUTFLOW VALVE switches and LDG ALT selector be in?
OUTFLOW VALVE switches in AUTO and LDG ALT selector pushed IN.
If a duct leak is detected, the system automatically isolates the leak. The EICAS caution message BLEED LEAK is displayed. The automatic isolation logic may include:
One, two, or three sequential steps.
During isolation, the ENGINE and/or APU bleed switch OFF lights and the ISOLATION switch CLOSED lights illuminate and extinguish as the repective valves close and open.
If cruise altitude is unavailable from the FMC in AUTO, the cabin altitude controllers assume a cruise altitude of:
39 000 ft.
The LANDING ALTITUDE advisory message indicates which of the following?
The FMC does not supply a landing altitude or the landing altitude selector is pulled.
Which component can be reset by the air conditioning reset switch
Trim air valves and recirculation fans.
Automatic ventilation of the Forward Cargo Compartment Air Conditioning System ensures that smoke and objectionable odors do not enter the flight deck or passenger cabin.
True.
What is the normal source of bleed air to start the second engine?
APU.
Two outflow valves are installed: one forward and one aft. Normally, most of the outflow is through the forward outflow valve.
False.
This improves ventilation and smoke removal. Cabin altitude and full ventilation rates can be maintained by either valve.
How are cargo compartments controlled in terms of temperature ranges?
Low is 4°C to 10°C - High is 18°C to 24°C
Equipment cooling: The mode is selected automatically, the EICAS message EQUIP COOLING OVRD is displayed. There is a non normal procedure for this message.
correct
Each trim air system supplies three zone supply ducts, with the left trim air system also supplying the flight deck.
True.
What is the function of the negative pressure relief vents?
They prevent negative pressure differential.
What does the MAN position on the FLT DECK TEMP control do?
It allows the trim air valve to operate manually.
What does the PACK MODE R EICAS message indicate?
The right pack is operating in the standby cooling mode.
If one pack is in standby cooling and the other pack is operating normally, the pack in standby cooling mode shuts down at lower altitudes and higher outside air temperatures when ambient conditions do not permit standby cooling.
True.
The cabin altitude limiter closes both outflow valves if cabin altitude exceeds:
15 000 ft.
Why should you minimize flight time at low altitude when the EQUIP COOLING OVRD message is displayed?
Electronic Equipment and displays may fail.
Which of the following are landing elevation limits for B777?
2000 feet below to 14000 feet above sea level.
If landing altitude is unavailable from the FMC (and not set in MAN), the EICAS advisory message LANDING ALT is displayed. The cabin altitude controller:
Assumes a landing altitude of 1000 ft.
When is the center bleed isolation valve open?
During single bleed source operation.
What is the indication that an outflow valve is in manual control?
Amber ‘M’ on the outflow valve indications.
During climb, what parameter(s) schedule cabin altitude?
Airplane climb rate and flight plan cruise altitude.
Why does the flight deck receive air from the left pack at a higher pressure than the passenger cabin?
To prevent smoke from entering the flight deck.
What protects the fuselage against excessive differential pressure?
Positive and negative pressure relief valves.
What happens when the BULK CARGO TEMPERATURE selector is positioned to HIGH?
The bulk cargo compartment ventilation fan operates continuously.
How many packs are there and what is their main function?
Two packs - cooling supplied hot bleed air.
During preflight, what position should the APU BLEED AIR switch be in?
AUTO.
Where does air to the cabin come from, and what are the additional sources?
Both packs - upper and lower recirculation systems.
Which system(s) supply trim air to the flight deck?
Left trim air system.
In the standby cooling mode, what will the pack automatically do if the airplane is not in an area of sufficient cooling?
Shutoff the pack.
The controller uses ambient pressure and flight plan data from the FMC to calculate a cabin pressurization schedule. The schedule provides a comfortable cabin climb to cruise altitude.
True.
(Half way / 400 NM)
If a pack overheats or fails the pack shuts down and an air conditioning may be needed.
True.
In flight, the cabin altitude controller operates in:
All statements are correct.
If an overheat or other significant pack fault is detected, the pack shuts down automatically. An attempt to restore pack operation may not be made by pressing the AIR COND RESET switch.
False.
What will cause the automatic closure of a bleed valve?
Bleed air overtemp or overpressure.
What happens if the FLT DECK TEMP control is moved to the ‘C’ position?
It closes the trim air valve and lowers the flight deck temperature.
Where is the target temperature for the air conditioning zones displayed?
On the air synoptic.
Whic trim air valve can be moved directly by the flight crew, and how is it monitored?
Flight trim air valve - through a manual positions of the flight deck temperature selector.
What happens when you select the FWR CARGO A/C control to AUTO?
The forward cargo heating system is shutoff and a selected temperature is displayed on the AIR synoptic.
If the cruise altitude is unavailable from the FMC in AUTO, the cabin altitude controllers assume a cruise altitude of 39,000 feet.
True.
After engine start, what is the correct position for the L ENG and R ENG BLEED AIR switches?
ON.
What action is required during preflight if the LANDING ALTITUDE EICAS message is displayed with the FWD and AFT OUTFLOW VALVE switches in AUTO?
Push the LDG ALT selector IN.
How are zone target temperatures selected, and what is the temperature range?
Manually set by the flight crew with a temperature range between 18°C and 29°C.
What happens if the forward equipment cooling primary supply fan fails?
The backup supply fan operates automatically.
What determines the pack outlet temperature?
The temperature zone requiring the coolest temperature controls the pack outlet temperature.
With the CARGO TEMPERATURE selector set to LOW or HIGH, the respective cargo heat shutoff valve opens and the temperature control valve opens and closes to maintain the temperature in the compartment.
The lavatory/galley vent fans draw air across temperature sensors in each compartment. If both vent fans fail, cargo heat is not provided.
How does the trim air system meet zone temperature requirements?
It heats conditioned air.
What system provides the heat for the forward cargo compartment?
Exhaust from the equipment cooling system.
In flight, the normal source of bleed air for all systems except the engine anti-ice is the engine low stage compressor (at high power) or intermediate stage compressor (at low power).
True.
Which of the followings are bleed air sources?
APU and Ground Cart.
When is the pack OFF light illuminated amber?
- During engine start.
- When the valve ıs failed closed.
- When there is a pack or compressor outlet high temperature condition.
All statements are true.
During normal bleed air operation, what position should the L, C, R ISLN BLEED AIR switches be in?
AUTO.
What is the cabin altitude at maximum certified airplane operating altitude?
8000 feet.
What is bleed air used for?
Pressurizing the hydraulics reservoir and aspirating the TAT probe.
What cabin differential pressure is scheduled for takeoff?
Slighlty positive.
The aft and bulk cargo compartments have independent bleed air heating systems. An insulated curtain separates the two compartments.
True.
What is the normal position of the forward outflow valve after landing?
Full open.
What is the source of supplemental heat for the aft cargo compartment?
An independent bleed air heating system.
Forward Equipment Cooling system does not reconfigure automatically to override mode automatically for which of the following?
When high air airflow is detected in flight.
Why should the CABIN TEMP control be set to mid position?
To allows ± 6˚C temperature range adjustment on cabin attendant panel.
Why should you minimize flight time at low altitude when the EQUIP COOLING OVRD message is displayed?
Equipment and displays could fail.
Landing altitude (normally provided by the FMC) can be manually set using the LANDING ALTITUDE selector. Landing field selection limits are _____ below sea level to _____ feet above sea level.
2000 ft and 14 000 ft.
What causes the trim air FAULT light to come on?
The trim air valve is commanded closed because of a zone supply duct overheat.
Flight Deck Temperature (FLT DECK TEMP) selector in mid position sets the temperature to approximately 75°F (24°C)
True
What must be done to manually set a landing altitude?
Pull the manual landing elevation selector out then set the required altitude.
In the cabin altitude controller cruise mode, maximum cabin altitude is 8,000 feet. The cabin altitude controllers enter cabin altitude controller descent mode at T/D or at initial descent of approximately _____ from cruise altitude, regardless of T/D.
1000 ft.
What landing altitude is displayed on the EICAS pressurization system indications when the airplane has traveled more than 400 miles or has passed the halfway point?
The destination airport altitude to the nearest 100 feet.
For Boeing 777, the APU Bleed Air is available at all altitudes.
False.
Which of the following is false for the PACK Switch illuminating OFF?
The PACK switched is pushed on.
The APU has attended and unattended operating modes. The attended mode operates when either engine is running or starting, or when the airplane is in flight. The unattended mode operates at all other times on the ground.
True.
Rotating the APU selector to OFF begins the shutdown cycle by closing the APU bleed air valve. The APU continues running for a cooldown period. The EICAS memo message APU COOLDOWN is displayed during the cooldown period. When the cooldown period finishes, the APU shuts down.
True
In the attended mode, any of the following faults cause the APU to shut down immediately:
APU fire/inlet overtemperature, overspeed/loss of overspeed protection, APU controller failure and speed droop.
If the APU is in the attended mode, what fault causes an immediate automatic shutdown?
APU controller failure.
How long is the cool-down period for the APU attended and unattended modes automatic shutdown?
There is no cool-down period.
What are the operating limits for the APU Electrical Power and Bleed Air?
Electrical Power: Whole airplane operating envelope, Bleed Air: 22000ft and below.
If AC power is not available or no AC pump pressurizes the left fuel manifold, the DC pump in the right main tank provides APU fuel.
False.
The electric starter is powered by the APU battery. The main airplane battery powers:
The inlet door, fuel valve, and fire detection system.
When the APU air inlet door reaches the full open position the starter engages. After the APU reaches the proper speed, ignition and fuel are provided. When the APU reaches approximately ______, the starter disengages and ignition is turned off.
50 percent.
For the following faults, the APU continues to operate and the EICAS message APU LIMIT displays:
High EGT, high oil temperature and low oil pressure.
If AC power is not available or no AC pump pressurizes the left fuel manifold, the DC pump in the left main tank provides APU fuel. On the ground, the APU can be started with no pumps operating.
True.
What are the conditions for an APU automatic start?
Both generators fail
If the APU is in the attended mode, what fault causes an immediate automatic shutdown?
APU controller failure.
Which AT ARM switch configuration causes the AUTOTHROTTLE R message to display?
Left switch ON, right switch OFF.
An EICAS message is displayed for any fault which limits the capability of the automatic landing system. Aural alerts for EICAS messages not affecting safety of flight are inhibited until after touchdown. Changes in autoland status below 300 feet, other than a transition to NO AUTOLAND status, are inhibited.
False.
What will the autopilot do if you override the control column?
Disengage.
IAS-MACH Window - During descent, automatically changes from Mach to IAS at _____ KIAS.
330
What will a second push of the TOGA switch do during the takeoff above 80 knots, with LNAV and VNAV armed?
Disarms LNAV and VNAV.
What does the AUTOPILOT EICAS message mean when an amber line is drawn through the pitch mode of the FMA?
The pitch mode has failed and the autopilot is continuing to operate.
When VS shows in the VS-FPA window, what are the correct steps to make a 2.6 degree FPA descent?
Push V-S FPA reference switch, set new altitude, push VS/FPA switch, set 2.6 degree flight path angle.
BANK LIMIT Selector (outer) - Sets the AFDS commanded bank limit when in the heading select (HDG SEL) or track select (TRK SEL) roll mode. In AUTO, the bank varies:
Between 15 and 25 degrees, depending on TAS
What is the sequence of steps to use FLCH to descent to 5000 feet at 240 kts?
Set 5000 feet in the ALTITUDE window, push FLCH switch, then set 240 kts in the IAS-MACH window.
IAS-MACH Window - The display range is:
100 – 399 KIAS and 0.40 – 0.95 Mach.
Flight Level Change (FLCH) Switch - When pushed during climb the autothrottle automatically engages in THR mode and the thrust limit is CLB thrust.
True.
What switch resets the auto throttle system and cancels the AUTOTHROTTLE DISC message?
Auto throttle disconnect switch.
What switch engages the auto throttle with AT ARM switches in ARM?
AT engage switch.
What is the sequence of steps to use FLCH to climb to FL250 at 280 kts?
Set FL250 in the ALTITUDE window, push FLCH switch, then set 280 kts in the IAS-MACH window.
What happens to bank angle protection if the AP DISENGAGE bar is selected down?
Bank angle protection is disengaged.
What position should the AP DISENGAGE bar be in during the MCP preflight?
UP to the engaged position.
What is the sequence of steps to change airspeed with VNAV engaged, using speed intervention?
Push the IAS-MACH selector, then change the IAS-MACH window to the new airspeed.
Automatic Flight Approach and Landing - In the event of moderate or strong crosswinds from the side opposite the failed engine, no wings level sideslip is commanded, since the airplane is already banked into the wind.
False.
Is the Boeing B777 bank angle limited to 15 degrees when TRK SEL mode is engaged and the BANK LIMIT selector is set to the 15 degree position?
Yes.
Vertical Speed-Flight Path Angle (VS – FPA) Window - Displays the selected vertical speed in 100 fpm increments or the selected flight path angle in 0.1 degree increments. The display range is:
VS: -8000 to +6000 fpm and FPA: -9.9 to +9.9 degrees.
With TRK SEL engaged, what is the correct sequence of steps to turn right to heading 150 degrees using the HDG SEL mode?
Push the HDG-TRK reference switch, verify HDG SEL on the FMA, then rotate the HDG-TRK selector to the right to set 150 in the HDG-TRK window.
Above what altitude can you disengage the approach mode by pushing the APP switch a second time?
1500 feet RA.
IAS-MACH Reference Switch - Alternately changes the IAS-MACH window between IAS and Mach displays.
Mach must be 0.4 or greater to switch from IAS to Mach.
IAS-MACH Window - When changing from TOGA to VS, FPA, or ALT, the window automatically displays:
The flap placard speed minus 5 knots (flaps extended), 250 knots (flaps up), or a speed value entered in the IAS MACH window after TO/GA was pushed.
What is the sequence of steps to reduce airspeed with VNAV engaged, using speed intervention?
Push the IAS-MACH selector, then change the IAS-MACH window to the lower airspeed.
What action resets the autopilot system and warning system, and cancels the AUTOPILOT DISC message?
Pushing the autopilot disconnect switch a second time.
IAS-MACH Window - During climb, automatically changes from IAS to MACH at ______ Mach.
0.84 Mach.
What does the AUTOPILOT EICAS message mean when an amber line is drawn through the pitch mode on the FMA?
The autopilot is operating in a degraded mode and the pitch mode has failed. The pitch mode has failed and the autopilot has entered envelope protection.
When is TOGA armed?
When flaps are not up.
Climb-Continuous (CLB-CON) Thrust Switch - On the ground and below _____ feet during takeoff, the switch is inoperative.
500 ft.
Automatic Flight Approach and Landing - Flare is armed when LAND 3 or LAND 2 is annunciated on the PFDs. At approximately 20 feet radio altitude, the autopilots start the flare maneuver. FLARE replaces the GS pitch flight mode annunciation.
False.
50 feet
fcom 4.20.17
Automatic Flight Approach and Landing - If an engine fails prior to the approach, the AFDS introduces a sideslip at _____.
1 300 ft AGL
Which MCP actions are accomplished during preflight?
Arm left and right autothrottle, turn left and right FD switches ON, check Bank Limit Switch in AUTO.
With the autopilot engaged and LNAV engaged, what will happen if the last active point is passed?
LNAV will maintain current heading.
Is the Boeing B777 bank angle limited to 20 degrees when LNAV is engaged and the BANK LIMIT selector is set to the 20 degree position?
No.
Automatic Flight Approach and Landing - Runway alignment is a submode of the approach mode. With crosswinds, the crab angle is reduced at touchdown. Runway alignment also compensates for a single engine approach. For crosswinds requiring more than ______ degrees of crab angle, runway alignment occurs at _____.
10 degrees and 500 ft AGL.
With a LAND 2 indication, the level of redundancy is such that a single fault can cause a significant deviation from the flight path (fail passive).
False.
IAS-MACH Window - The selected speed is displayed as the PFD selected speed. Displays 200 knots when power is first applied.
True.
When is TOGA armed?
When flaps are not up.
If a door is opened from the outside, the mode select lever automatically moves to the DISARMED position.
True.
What happens if you adjust an individual panel light brightness or display brightness control when the master bright system is ON?
The brightness of the individual panel light or display changes by a small amount.
Which one of the following lights is not controlled by the MASTER BRIGHTNESS switch?
CDUs.
The masks automatically drop from the PSUs if cabin altitude exceeds approximately 14,000 feet.
False.
13,500 feet.
The FASTEN SEAT BELTS signs are not illuminated for which of the following when the switch is positioned to AUTO?
Flap lever up.
.
What position should the UPR DSPL brightness control be selected to for a full range of control with the master bright system?
12 o’clock.
EMERGENCY LIGHTING SYSTEM is powered by a fully charged battery for:
At least 15 minutes.
How long does the oxygen system inside the crew rest area provide oxygen?
Approximately 22 minutes.
Which lights are turned to full bright by the STORM light switch?
Dome lights, all flood lights and illuminated indicator lights
The nose gear landing lights illuminate when the nose landing gear is not down and locked when the switch is ON.
False.
What is the status of the nose gear landing lights when the NOSE LANDING light switch is ON but the nose landing gear is NOT down and locked?
Extinguished.
Illumınated ıf both the main landıng gear are down and locked.
Interior Emergency Lighting - Interior emergency lighting consists of door, aisle, cross–aisle, escape path, exit lights, and luminescent exit signs. Battery powered exit lights are located:
At each cabin exit.
Moving the Flight DECK DOOR lock selector to DENY rejects keypad entry request and prevents further emergency access code entry for a time period.
True.
What is the required position of individual panel light or display brightness controls for the master bright system to have full range of control?
12 o’clock
Any time passenger oxygen is deployed, the FASTEN SEAT BELTS signs illuminate automatically, regardless of the selector position.
True.
What lights are turned on by the STORM light switch?
Aisle stand, glare shield, instrument flood lights, dome lights and indicator lights.
When does the FASTEN SEAT BELTS sign automatically illuminate?
When the passenger oxygen system is ON.
The Passenger Oxygen system does not provide oxygen to which of the following?
Cockpit crew.
Both HF radios use a common antenna.
True.
What does the EICAS message RADIO TRANSMIT indicate?
A VHF or HF radio transmitter is keyed for 30 seconds or more.
What is necessary to converse with the mechanic servicing the engine at the engine nacelle?
Position the SERV INTPH switch to ON.
What does the SELCAL communication EICAS alert message indicate?
A VHF or HF selective call has been received and is waiting to be answered.
What is indicated by a flight deck printer PAPER light?
The flight deck printer is out of paper or the paper is jammed.
VHF L is configured for voice communication only.
true
A high-low chime sounds and a COMM communications alert message appears on EICAS. What action should you take?
Push the COMM switch on the display select panel and view the uplinked message on the MFD.
How can the crew cancel a displayed company or ATC uplink message?
Push the CANC switch on the glareshield or select the CANCEL command key on the MFD COMM page.
What does the COMM communication EICAS alert message indicate when accompanied by a high low chime?
A medium priority uplink has been received and may be reviewed on the communication display.
What does illumination of the offside tuning light mean?
One of the other radio tuning panels is tuning a radio normally tuned by this panel.
HF L and HF R can be configured for data or voice communication. Both can be used together in the data mode.
False.
Left is restricted to voice only
Any VHF radio can be controlled by any radio tuning panel.
True
On the ground with both engines shut down, any VHF radio that transmits for more than ____ seconds is automatically disable and dashes appear in the tuning panel frequency window for that radio.
35 seconds
Which of the following data values does not provide crew feedback, by turning green, when you comply with an ATC uplink message?
VOR frequency.
How can the flight crew make a PA announcement to all areas of the cabin?
All statements are correct.
Push the PA transmitter select switch on the audio control panel and key any MIC switch.
Push The CAB transmitter select switch on the audio control panel and then enter the appropriate dial code using the CDU keypad, then key any MIC switch.
Using the flight deck handset, enter the appropriate dial code from the handset directory and then push the handset PA Push To Talk switch.
All statements are correct.
Push the PA transmitter select switch on the audio control panel and key any MIC switch.
Push The CAB transmitter select switch on the audio control panel and then enter the appropriate dial code using the CDU keypad, then key any MIC switch.
Using the flight deck handset, enter the appropriate dial code from the handset directory and then push the handset PA Push To Talk switch.
When an HF transmitter is keyed after a frequency change the antenna tunes. While the antenna is being tuned, a tone can be heard through the audio system. How much time must be allowed for the antenna to tune?
Tuning takes a maximum of 7 seconds.
How can you power the ground handling bus before shutdown if no external power is available?
Start the APU.
What automatic switching will occur if you start the APU with external power on the BUS TIE system?
The APU connects to the BUS TIE and replaces secondary external power on the left main bus.
What is the correct source order for powering left and right main busses in flight?
Respective IDG - APU generator - opposite IDG.
The standby inverter converts DC power to AC power. The inverter powers the AC standby bus if the right transfer bus is not powered.
False.
The standby inverter converts DC power to AC power. The inverter powers the AC standby bus if the left transfer bus is not powered.
What is the electrical configuration during autoland?
The right transfer bus isolates from the right main AC bus.
What is the source of standby electrical power if the RAT sheds electrical power because of low hydraulic pressure?
Main battery.
What is the correct electrical panel configuration for normal flight?
BUS TIE switches in AUTO, BATTERY switch ON, GENERATOR CONTROL switches ON.
Right and Left backup generators power the converter at the same time.
False
The standby inverter is powered from the ram air turbine (RAT) generator.
False
The standby inverter is powered by the main battery
What is the primary source of power for the transfer busses?
Engine generators.
Which one of the following is not true about the flight control DC electrical system?
Variable frequency PMG AC power is the unique power source for the power supply assemblies (PSAs).
Which one of the following is not true about Electrical Load Management System (ELMS)?
When an additional power source becomes available or the loads decrease, ELMS restores power to shed systems in the same order of shedding
(First shed system restored first).
Bus tie relays, controlled by BUS TIE switches, isolate or parallel the right and left main busses. When both BUS TIE switches are set to AUTO, the bus tie system operates automatically to maintain power to both main busses.
True.
Which bus powers the main battery charger and the APU battery charger?
Ground service bus.
