B777 Quiz Flashcards
1
Q
When does the ground crew call horn sound?
A
When cooling of forward electronic electrical equipment is inoperative.
2
Q
During preflight, what position should the FWD and AFT OUTFLOW VALVE switches and LDG ALT selector be in?
A
OUTFLOW VALVE switches in AUTO and LDG ALT selector pushed IN.
3
Q
If a duct leak is detected, the system automatically isolates the leak. The EICAS caution message BLEED LEAK is displayed. The automatic isolation logic may include:
A
One, two, or three sequential steps.
During isolation, the ENGINE and/or APU bleed switch OFF lights and the ISOLATION switch CLOSED lights illuminate and extinguish as the repective valves close and open.
4
Q
If cruise altitude is unavailable from the FMC in AUTO, the cabin altitude controllers assume a cruise altitude of:
A
39 000 ft.
5
Q
The LANDING ALTITUDE advisory message indicates which of the following?
A
The FMC does not supply a landing altitude or the landing altitude selector is pulled.
6
Q
Which component can be reset by the air conditioning reset switch
A
Trim air valves and recirculation fans.
7
Q
Automatic ventilation of the Forward Cargo Compartment Air Conditioning System ensures that smoke and objectionable odors do not enter the flight deck or passenger cabin.
A
True.
8
Q
What is the normal source of bleed air to start the second engine?
A
APU.
9
Q
Two outflow valves are installed: one forward and one aft. Normally, most of the outflow is through the forward outflow valve.
A
False.
This improves ventilation and smoke removal. Cabin altitude and full ventilation rates can be maintained by either valve.
10
Q
How are cargo compartments controlled in terms of temperature ranges?
A
Low is 4°C to 10°C - High is 18°C to 24°C
11
Q
Equipment cooling: The mode is selected automatically, the EICAS message EQUIP COOLING OVRD is displayed. There is a non normal procedure for this message.
A
correct
12
Q
Each trim air system supplies three zone supply ducts, with the left trim air system also supplying the flight deck.
A
True.
13
Q
What is the function of the negative pressure relief vents?
A
They prevent negative pressure differential.
14
Q
What does the MAN position on the FLT DECK TEMP control do?
A
It allows the trim air valve to operate manually.
15
Q
What does the PACK MODE R EICAS message indicate?
A
The right pack is operating in the standby cooling mode.
16
Q
If one pack is in standby cooling and the other pack is operating normally, the pack in standby cooling mode shuts down at lower altitudes and higher outside air temperatures when ambient conditions do not permit standby cooling.
A
True.
17
Q
The cabin altitude limiter closes both outflow valves if cabin altitude exceeds:
A
15 000 ft.
18
Q
Why should you minimize flight time at low altitude when the EQUIP COOLING OVRD message is displayed?
A
Electronic Equipment and displays may fail.
19
Q
Which of the following are landing elevation limits for B777?
A
2000 feet below to 14000 feet above sea level.
20
Q
If landing altitude is unavailable from the FMC (and not set in MAN), the EICAS advisory message LANDING ALT is displayed. The cabin altitude controller:
A
Assumes a landing altitude of 1000 ft.
21
Q
When is the center bleed isolation valve open?
A
During single bleed source operation.
22
Q
What is the indication that an outflow valve is in manual control?
A
Amber ‘M’ on the outflow valve indications.
23
Q
During climb, what parameter(s) schedule cabin altitude?
A
Airplane climb rate and flight plan cruise altitude.
24
Q
Why does the flight deck receive air from the left pack at a higher pressure than the passenger cabin?
A
To prevent smoke from entering the flight deck.
25
What protects the fuselage against excessive differential pressure?
Positive and negative pressure relief valves.
26
What happens when the BULK CARGO TEMPERATURE selector is positioned to HIGH?
The bulk cargo compartment ventilation fan operates continuously.
27
How many packs are there and what is their main function?
Two packs - cooling supplied hot bleed air.
28
During preflight, what position should the APU BLEED AIR switch be in?
AUTO.
29
Where does air to the cabin come from, and what are the additional sources?
Both packs - upper and lower recirculation systems.
30
Which system(s) supply trim air to the flight deck?
Left trim air system.
31
In the standby cooling mode, what will the pack automatically do if the airplane is not in an area of sufficient cooling?
Shutoff the pack.
32
The controller uses ambient pressure and flight plan data from the FMC to calculate a cabin pressurization schedule. The schedule provides a comfortable cabin climb to cruise altitude.
True.
*(Half way / 400 NM)*
33
If a pack overheats or fails the pack shuts down and an air conditioning may be needed.
True.
34
In flight, the cabin altitude controller operates in:
All statements are correct.
35
If an overheat or other significant pack fault is detected, the pack shuts down automatically. An attempt to restore pack operation may not be made by pressing the AIR COND RESET switch.
False.
36
What will cause the automatic closure of a bleed valve?
Bleed air overtemp or overpressure.
37
What happens if the FLT DECK TEMP control is moved to the 'C' position?
It closes the trim air valve and lowers the flight deck temperature.
38
Where is the target temperature for the air conditioning zones displayed?
On the air synoptic.
39
Whic trim air valve can be moved directly by the flight crew, and how is it monitored?
Flight trim air valve - through a manual positions of the flight deck temperature selector.
40
What happens when you select the FWR CARGO A/C control to AUTO?
The forward cargo heating system is shutoff and a selected temperature is displayed on the AIR synoptic.
41
If the cruise altitude is unavailable from the FMC in AUTO, the cabin altitude controllers assume a cruise altitude of 39,000 feet.
True.
42
After engine start, what is the correct position for the L ENG and R ENG BLEED AIR switches?
ON.
43
What action is required during preflight if the LANDING ALTITUDE EICAS message is displayed with the FWD and AFT OUTFLOW VALVE switches in AUTO?
Push the LDG ALT selector IN.
44
How are zone target temperatures selected, and what is the temperature range?
Manually set by the flight crew with a temperature range between 18°C and 29°C.
45
What happens if the forward equipment cooling primary supply fan fails?
The backup supply fan operates automatically.
46
What determines the pack outlet temperature?
The temperature zone requiring the coolest temperature controls the pack outlet temperature.
47
With the CARGO TEMPERATURE selector set to LOW or HIGH, the respective cargo heat shutoff valve opens and the temperature control valve opens and closes to maintain the temperature in the compartment.
The lavatory/galley vent fans draw air across temperature sensors in each compartment. If both vent fans fail, cargo heat is not provided.
48
How does the trim air system meet zone temperature requirements?
It heats conditioned air.
49
What system provides the heat for the forward cargo compartment?
Exhaust from the equipment cooling system.
50
In flight, the normal source of bleed air for all systems except the engine anti-ice is the engine low stage compressor (at high power) or intermediate stage compressor (at low power).
True.
51
Which of the followings are bleed air sources?
APU and Ground Cart.
52
When is the pack OFF light illuminated amber?
*- During engine start.*
*- When the valve ıs failed closed.*
*- When there is a pack or compressor outlet high temperature condition.*
**All statements are true.**
53
During normal bleed air operation, what position should the L, C, R ISLN BLEED AIR switches be in?
AUTO.
54
What is the cabin altitude at maximum certified airplane operating altitude?
8000 feet.
55
What is bleed air used for?
Pressurizing the hydraulics reservoir and aspirating the TAT probe.
56
What cabin differential pressure is scheduled for takeoff?
Slighlty positive.
57
The aft and bulk cargo compartments have independent bleed air heating systems. An insulated curtain separates the two compartments.
True.
58
What is the normal position of the forward outflow valve after landing?
Full open.
59
What is the source of supplemental heat for the aft cargo compartment?
An independent bleed air heating system.
60
Forward Equipment Cooling system does not reconfigure automatically to override mode automatically for which of the following?
When high air airflow is detected in flight.
61
Why should the CABIN TEMP control be set to mid position?
To allows ± 6˚C temperature range adjustment on cabin attendant panel.
62
Why should you minimize flight time at low altitude when the EQUIP COOLING OVRD message is displayed?
Equipment and displays could fail.
63
Landing altitude (normally provided by the FMC) can be manually set using the LANDING ALTITUDE selector. Landing field selection limits are _____ below sea level to _____ feet above sea level.
2000 ft and 14 000 ft.
64
What causes the trim air FAULT light to come on?
The trim air valve is commanded closed because of a zone supply duct overheat.
65
Flight Deck Temperature (FLT DECK TEMP) selector in mid position sets the temperature to approximately 75°F (24°C)
True
66
What must be done to manually set a landing altitude?
Pull the manual landing elevation selector out then set the required altitude.
67
In the cabin altitude controller cruise mode, maximum cabin altitude is 8,000 feet. The cabin altitude controllers enter cabin altitude controller descent mode at T/D or at initial descent of approximately _____ from cruise altitude, regardless of T/D.
1000 ft.
68
What landing altitude is displayed on the EICAS pressurization system indications when the airplane has traveled more than 400 miles or has passed the halfway point?
The destination airport altitude to the nearest 100 feet.
69
For Boeing 777, the APU Bleed Air is available at all altitudes.
False.
70
Which of the following is false for the PACK Switch illuminating OFF?
The PACK switched is pushed on.
71
The APU has attended and unattended operating modes. The attended mode operates when either engine is running or starting, or when the airplane is in flight. The unattended mode operates at all other times on the ground.
True.
72
Rotating the APU selector to OFF begins the shutdown cycle by closing the APU bleed air valve. The APU continues running for a cooldown period. The EICAS memo message APU COOLDOWN is displayed during the cooldown period. When the cooldown period finishes, the APU shuts down.
True
73
In the attended mode, any of the following faults cause the APU to shut down immediately:
APU fire/inlet overtemperature, overspeed/loss of overspeed protection, APU controller failure and speed droop.
74
If the APU is in the attended mode, what fault causes an immediate automatic shutdown?
APU controller failure.
75
How long is the cool-down period for the APU attended and unattended modes automatic shutdown?
There is no cool-down period.
76
What are the operating limits for the APU Electrical Power and Bleed Air?
Electrical Power: Whole airplane operating envelope, Bleed Air: 22000ft and below.
77
If AC power is not available or no AC pump pressurizes the left fuel manifold, the DC pump in the right main tank provides APU fuel.
False.
78
The electric starter is powered by the APU battery. The main airplane battery powers:
The inlet door, fuel valve, and fire detection system.
79
When the APU air inlet door reaches the full open position the starter engages. After the APU reaches the proper speed, ignition and fuel are provided. When the APU reaches approximately ______, the starter disengages and ignition is turned off.
50 percent.
80
For the following faults, the APU continues to operate and the EICAS message APU LIMIT displays:
High EGT, high oil temperature and low oil pressure.
81
If AC power is not available or no AC pump pressurizes the left fuel manifold, the DC pump in the left main tank provides APU fuel. On the ground, the APU can be started with no pumps operating.
True.
82
What are the conditions for an APU automatic start?
Both generators fail
83
If the APU is in the attended mode, what fault causes an immediate automatic shutdown?
APU controller failure.
84
Which AT ARM switch configuration causes the AUTOTHROTTLE R message to display?
Left switch ON, right switch OFF.
85
An EICAS message is displayed for any fault which limits the capability of the automatic landing system. Aural alerts for EICAS messages not affecting safety of flight are inhibited until after touchdown. Changes in autoland status below 300 feet, other than a transition to NO AUTOLAND status, are inhibited.
False.
86
What will the autopilot do if you override the control column?
Disengage.
87
IAS-MACH Window - During descent, automatically changes from Mach to IAS at _____ KIAS.
330
88
What will a second push of the TOGA switch do during the takeoff above 80 knots, with LNAV and VNAV armed?
Disarms LNAV and VNAV.
89
What does the AUTOPILOT EICAS message mean when an amber line is drawn through the pitch mode of the FMA?
The pitch mode has failed and the autopilot is continuing to operate.
90
When VS shows in the VS-FPA window, what are the correct steps to make a 2.6 degree FPA descent?
Push V-S FPA reference switch, set new altitude, push VS/FPA switch, set 2.6 degree flight path angle.
91
BANK LIMIT Selector (outer) - Sets the AFDS commanded bank limit when in the heading select (HDG SEL) or track select (TRK SEL) roll mode. In AUTO, the bank varies:
Between 15 and 25 degrees, depending on TAS
92
What is the sequence of steps to use FLCH to descent to 5000 feet at 240 kts?
Set 5000 feet in the ALTITUDE window, push FLCH switch, then set 240 kts in the IAS-MACH window.
93
IAS-MACH Window - The display range is:
100 – 399 KIAS and 0.40 – 0.95 Mach.
94
Flight Level Change (FLCH) Switch - When pushed during climb the autothrottle automatically engages in THR mode and the thrust limit is CLB thrust.
True.
95
What switch resets the auto throttle system and cancels the AUTOTHROTTLE DISC message?
Auto throttle disconnect switch.
96
What switch engages the auto throttle with AT ARM switches in ARM?
AT engage switch.
97
What is the sequence of steps to use FLCH to climb to FL250 at 280 kts?
Set FL250 in the ALTITUDE window, push FLCH switch, then set 280 kts in the IAS-MACH window.
98
What happens to bank angle protection if the AP DISENGAGE bar is selected down?
Bank angle protection is disengaged.
99
What position should the AP DISENGAGE bar be in during the MCP preflight?
UP to the engaged position.
100
What is the sequence of steps to change airspeed with VNAV engaged, using speed intervention?
Push the IAS-MACH selector, then change the IAS-MACH window to the new airspeed.
101
Automatic Flight Approach and Landing - In the event of moderate or strong crosswinds from the side opposite the failed engine, no wings level sideslip is commanded, since the airplane is already banked into the wind.
False.
102
Is the Boeing B777 bank angle limited to 15 degrees when TRK SEL mode is engaged and the BANK LIMIT selector is set to the 15 degree position?
Yes.
103
Vertical Speed-Flight Path Angle (VS – FPA) Window - Displays the selected vertical speed in 100 fpm increments or the selected flight path angle in 0.1 degree increments. The display range is:
VS: -8000 to +6000 fpm and FPA: -9.9 to +9.9 degrees.
104
With TRK SEL engaged, what is the correct sequence of steps to turn right to heading 150 degrees using the HDG SEL mode?
Push the HDG-TRK reference switch, verify HDG SEL on the FMA, then rotate the HDG-TRK selector to the right to set 150 in the HDG-TRK window.
105
Above what altitude can you disengage the approach mode by pushing the APP switch a second time?
1500 feet RA.
106
IAS-MACH Reference Switch - Alternately changes the IAS-MACH window between IAS and Mach displays.
Mach must be 0.4 or greater to switch from IAS to Mach.
107
IAS-MACH Window - When changing from TOGA to VS, FPA, or ALT, the window automatically displays:
The flap placard speed minus 5 knots (flaps extended), 250 knots (flaps up), or a speed value entered in the IAS MACH window after TO/GA was pushed.
108
What is the sequence of steps to reduce airspeed with VNAV engaged, using speed intervention?
Push the IAS-MACH selector, then change the IAS-MACH window to the lower airspeed.
109
What action resets the autopilot system and warning system, and cancels the AUTOPILOT DISC message?
Pushing the autopilot disconnect switch a second time.
110
IAS-MACH Window - During climb, automatically changes from IAS to MACH at ______ Mach.
0.84 Mach.
111
What does the AUTOPILOT EICAS message mean when an amber line is drawn through the pitch mode on the FMA?
The autopilot is operating in a degraded mode and the pitch mode has failed. The pitch mode has failed and the autopilot has entered envelope protection.
112
When is TOGA armed?
When flaps are not up.
113
Climb-Continuous (CLB-CON) Thrust Switch - On the ground and below _____ feet during takeoff, the switch is inoperative.
500 ft.
114
Automatic Flight Approach and Landing - Flare is armed when LAND 3 or LAND 2 is annunciated on the PFDs. At approximately 20 feet radio altitude, the autopilots start the flare maneuver. FLARE replaces the GS pitch flight mode annunciation.
False.
50 feet
fcom 4.20.17
115
Automatic Flight Approach and Landing - If an engine fails prior to the approach, the AFDS introduces a sideslip at _____.
1 300 ft AGL
116
Which MCP actions are accomplished during preflight?
Arm left and right autothrottle, turn left and right FD switches ON, check Bank Limit Switch in AUTO.
117
With the autopilot engaged and LNAV engaged, what will happen if the last active point is passed?
LNAV will maintain current heading.
118
Is the Boeing B777 bank angle limited to 20 degrees when LNAV is engaged and the BANK LIMIT selector is set to the 20 degree position?
No.
119
Automatic Flight Approach and Landing - Runway alignment is a submode of the approach mode. With crosswinds, the crab angle is reduced at touchdown. Runway alignment also compensates for a single engine approach. For crosswinds requiring more than ______ degrees of crab angle, runway alignment occurs at _____.
10 degrees and 500 ft AGL.
120
121
With a LAND 2 indication, the level of redundancy is such that a single fault can cause a significant deviation from the flight path (fail passive).
False.
122
IAS-MACH Window - The selected speed is displayed as the PFD selected speed. Displays 200 knots when power is first applied.
True.
123
When is TOGA armed?
When flaps are not up.
124
If a door is opened from the outside, the mode select lever automatically moves to the DISARMED position.
True.
125
What happens if you adjust an individual panel light brightness or display brightness control when the master bright system is ON?
The brightness of the individual panel light or display changes by a small amount.
126
Which one of the following lights is not controlled by the MASTER BRIGHTNESS switch?
CDUs.
127
The masks automatically drop from the PSUs if cabin altitude exceeds approximately 14,000 feet.
False.
13,500 feet.
128
The FASTEN SEAT BELTS signs are not illuminated for which of the following when the switch is positioned to AUTO?
Flap lever up.
129
.
130
What position should the UPR DSPL brightness control be selected to for a full range of control with the master bright system?
12 o'clock.
131
EMERGENCY LIGHTING SYSTEM is powered by a fully charged battery for:
At least 15 minutes.
132
How long does the oxygen system inside the crew rest area provide oxygen?
Approximately 22 minutes.
133
Which lights are turned to full bright by the STORM light switch?
Dome lights, all flood lights and illuminated indicator lights
134
The nose gear landing lights illuminate when the nose landing gear is not down and locked when the switch is ON.
False.
135
What is the status of the nose gear landing lights when the NOSE LANDING light switch is ON but the nose landing gear is NOT down and locked?
Extinguished.
Illumınated ıf both the main landıng gear are down and locked.
136
Interior Emergency Lighting - Interior emergency lighting consists of door, aisle, cross–aisle, escape path, exit lights, and luminescent exit signs. Battery powered exit lights are located:
At each cabin exit.
137
Moving the Flight DECK DOOR lock selector to DENY rejects keypad entry request and prevents further emergency access code entry for a time period.
True.
138
What is the required position of individual panel light or display brightness controls for the master bright system to have full range of control?
12 o'clock
139
Any time passenger oxygen is deployed, the FASTEN SEAT BELTS signs illuminate automatically, regardless of the selector position.
True.
140
What lights are turned on by the STORM light switch?
Aisle stand, glare shield, instrument flood lights, dome lights and indicator lights.
141
When does the FASTEN SEAT BELTS sign automatically illuminate?
When the passenger oxygen system is ON.
142
The Passenger Oxygen system does not provide oxygen to which of the following?
Cockpit crew.
143
Both HF radios use a common antenna.
True.
144
What does the EICAS message RADIO TRANSMIT indicate?
A VHF or HF radio transmitter is keyed for 30 seconds or more.
145
What is necessary to converse with the mechanic servicing the engine at the engine nacelle?
Position the SERV INTPH switch to ON.
146
What does the SELCAL communication EICAS alert message indicate?
A VHF or HF selective call has been received and is waiting to be answered.
147
What is indicated by a flight deck printer PAPER light?
The flight deck printer is out of paper or the paper is jammed.
148
VHF L is configured for voice communication only.
true
149
A high-low chime sounds and a COMM communications alert message appears on EICAS. What action should you take?
Push the COMM switch on the display select panel and view the uplinked message on the MFD.
150
How can the crew cancel a displayed company or ATC uplink message?
Push the CANC switch on the glareshield or select the CANCEL command key on the MFD COMM page.
151
What does the COMM communication EICAS alert message indicate when accompanied by a high low chime?
A medium priority uplink has been received and may be reviewed on the communication display.
152
What does illumination of the offside tuning light mean?
One of the other radio tuning panels is tuning a radio normally tuned by this panel.
153
HF L and HF R can be configured for data or voice communication. Both can be used together in the data mode.
False.
Left is restricted to voice only
154
Any VHF radio can be controlled by any radio tuning panel.
True
155
On the ground with both engines shut down, any VHF radio that transmits for more than ____ seconds is automatically disable and dashes appear in the tuning panel frequency window for that radio.
35 seconds
156
Which of the following data values does not provide crew feedback, by turning green, when you comply with an ATC uplink message?
VOR frequency.
157
How can the flight crew make a PA announcement to all areas of the cabin?
*All statements are correct.*
*Push the PA transmitter select switch on the audio control panel and key any MIC switch.*
*Push The CAB transmitter select switch on the audio control panel and then enter the appropriate dial code using the CDU keypad, then key any MIC switch.*
*Using the flight deck handset, enter the appropriate dial code from the handset directory and then push the handset PA Push To Talk switch.*
All statements are correct.
*Push the PA transmitter select switch on the audio control panel and key any MIC switch.*
*Push The CAB transmitter select switch on the audio control panel and then enter the appropriate dial code using the CDU keypad, then key any MIC switch.*
*Using the flight deck handset, enter the appropriate dial code from the handset directory and then push the handset PA Push To Talk switch.*
158
When an HF transmitter is keyed after a frequency change the antenna tunes. While the antenna is being tuned, a tone can be heard through the audio system. How much time must be allowed for the antenna to tune?
Tuning takes a maximum of 7 seconds.
159
How can you power the ground handling bus before shutdown if no external power is available?
Start the APU.
160
What automatic switching will occur if you start the APU with external power on the BUS TIE system?
The APU connects to the BUS TIE and replaces secondary external power on the left main bus.
161
What is the correct source order for powering left and right main busses in flight?
Respective IDG - APU generator - opposite IDG.
162
The standby inverter converts DC power to AC power. The inverter powers the AC standby bus if the right transfer bus is not powered.
False.
The standby inverter converts DC power to AC power. The inverter powers the AC standby bus if the left transfer bus is not powered.
163
What is the electrical configuration during autoland?
The right transfer bus isolates from the right main AC bus.
164
What is the source of standby electrical power if the RAT sheds electrical power because of low hydraulic pressure?
Main battery.
165
What is the correct electrical panel configuration for normal flight?
BUS TIE switches in AUTO, BATTERY switch ON, GENERATOR CONTROL switches ON.
166
Right and Left backup generators power the converter at the same time.
False
167
The standby inverter is powered from the ram air turbine (RAT) generator.
False
The standby inverter is powered by the main battery
168
What is the primary source of power for the transfer busses?
Engine generators.
169
Which one of the following is not true about the flight control DC electrical system?
Variable frequency PMG AC power is the unique power source for the power supply assemblies (PSAs).
170
Which one of the following is not true about Electrical Load Management System (ELMS)?
When an additional power source becomes available or the loads decrease, ELMS restores power to shed systems in the same order of shedding
(First shed system restored first).
171
Bus tie relays, controlled by BUS TIE switches, isolate or parallel the right and left main busses. When both BUS TIE switches are set to AUTO, the bus tie system operates automatically to maintain power to both main busses.
True.
172
Which bus powers the main battery charger and the APU battery charger?
Ground service bus.
173
Primary power for the flight control DC electrical system comes from permanent magnet generators (PMGs) housed within each backup generator. Variable frequency PMG AC power is used by individual power supply assemblies (PSAs) to provide DC power to the three flight control DC busses. To ensure a high level of system reliability, each PSA also has multiple AC power sources.
False.
174
What is the primary source of DC power during normal flight?
Transformer rectifier units.
175
When does the right transfer bus isolate from the right main bus?
When system configures to autoland.
176
Which one of the following is not true about the Secondary External Power?
Secondary external power can only power the left main bus.
177
Will the IDG disconnect automatically for high temperature?
Yes.
178
What does the green EXTERNAL POWER AVAIL light indicate?
External power is connected to the airplane, correct and ready to power the electrical busses.
179
How are the busses powered if the right engine is started with the APU powering the left bus system and external power powering the right bus system?
The right engine generator powers both main busses.
180
Which items below are de-powered if you position the BATTERY switch to OFF during power down?
The standby bus, Captain's displays and left AIMS.
181
Which one of the following is not a reason for the backup electrical system to automatically power one or both transfer busses?
One engine shutdown.
182
How many total AC sources of power does the B777 accommodate?
Seven.
183
Which one of the following is not true about the DC electrical system?
The C1 TRU powers the first officer's flight instrument bus.
184
Does electric power has priority over hydraulic power from the RAT?
No.
Hydraulic has priority, and if electric is shed, only the CA instrument bus is powered through the main battery
185
The standby electrical system consists of:
The main battery, the standby inverter, the RAT generator and its associated generator control unit and the C1 and C2 TRUs.
186
Which of the following is not a main AC electrical power source?
Transformer Rectifier Units (TRUs).
187
Backup power is provided by one variable speed, variable frequency generator mounted on each engine. A frequency converter converts the generator frequency to a constant 400 Hz. Only one backup generator can power the converter at a time.
True.
188
When will the RAT auto-deploy?
Both transfer busses unpowered, all three hydraulic systems low, both engines fail and C hydraulic system low
189
What provides DC power on the B777?
Transformer rectifier units
190
The Electrical Load Management System (ELMS), manages load shed priority (galley first, utility bus second, then selected AC components).
True.
191
Which condition(s) cause the ELEC GEN DRIVE L EICAS message to display?
Generator drive oil pressure is low.
192
During autoland, the busses isolate to allow three independent sources to power the three autopilots.
True.
The left IDG powers the left AC transfer bus, the left main DC bus, and the captain’s flight instrument bus The right IDG powers the battery bus and AC standby bus through the main battery charger The backup system powers the right AC transfer bus, the right DC bus, and the first officer’s flight instrument bus.
193
On ground no power connected to the airplane. Which items will be powered if you push the BATTERY switch ON?
The APU controller and the DC fuel pump will be powered.
194
What is the secondary source of power for 'fly-by-wire' if one or more PMGs are unpowered?
DC busses.
195
If the RAT is unable to maintain RPM, the RAT generator electrical load is shed until RPM is satisfactory. Power for standby electrical loads is provided by the main battery during deployment of the RAT and when RAT generator loads are shed.
True.
196
Which one of the following is not true about the ram air turbine (RAT) generator?
The RAT cannot be manually deployed by pushing the RAM AIR TURBINE switch if any of the AC transfer busses powered.
197
How many main AC power sources are required to maintain the entire plane AC electrical load?
2.
198
What is the primary source of standby power if all normal AC and DC power source fail?
RAT generator.
199
What is the primary power source for 'fly-by-wire'?
Permanent magnet generators (PMGs).
200
Which one of the following is not true about the APU generator?
The APU generator cannot power both main busses at the same time.
201
Which bus operates only on the ground?
The ground handling bus.
202
During autoland, the busses isolate to allow three independent sources to power the three autopilot. In this case which one of the following is the power source for the right AC transfer bus, the right DC bus, and the first officer's flight instrument bus?
Backup system.
203
Which one of the following is not true about integrated drive generators (IDGs)?
The IDG can be reconnected by the flight crew by pushing the respective DRIVE DISCONNECT switch.
204
Which one of the following is not true about the Primary External Power?
If both busses are powered from secondary external power, pushing the PRIMARY EXTERNAL POWER switch ON connects primary external power to the both main busses.
205
Which engine parameters the does the auto-start system not monitor and abort the start sequence?
Oil pressure and temperature.
"Hung start." is marked as correct, but hung start IS monitored by autostart
Object this question
206
The engine failure alert system provides alerts when actual engine performance is less than commanded engine performance during a part of the takeoff and for other phases of flight. A red ENG FAIL is displayed on the PFD if actual thrust is less than commanded thrust during takeoff with airspeed between ______ prior to V1.
65 knots and 6 knots.
The PFD display is accompanied by the voice annunciation ENGINE FAIL and the Master WARNING lights illuminating.
207
The oil system provides pressurized oil to lubricate and cool the engine main bearings, gears and accessory drives. The oil system also provides automatic fuel heating for fuel system icing protection.
True.
208
Which statement is true concerning the alternate EEC mode?
If a fault occurs in the normal mode, control is automatically transferred to the soft alternate mode.
Overspeed protection is available in the hard alternate mode.
209
Can Thrust over-boost occur in EEC Alternate mode when the thrust levers are in full forward position?
Yes.
210
With the engine EECs manually selected to the alternate mode, which statement is true?
Positioning the thrust levers to the full forward position will cause the engine limit to be exceeded.
211
The EGT indication has a maximum continuous limit represented by a red band.
False.
continuous limit represented by an amber band
212
When does the EEC select approach idle?
When the flaps are commanded to 25 or greater.
213
What does the ENG OIL PRESS R EICAS message mean?
Engine oil pressure is low.
214
What malfunction, during ground start, will cause the auto-start system to abort the start?
Hot start.
215
What powers the left engine thrust reverser?
Left hydraulic system.
216
What does the ENG FUEL VALVE L EICAS message mean?
The spar or engine fuel valve on the left engine has not reached its commanded position.
217
With auto start ON, when do you move the FUEL CONTROL switch to RUN?
After START has been selected on the START/IGNITION selector.
218
How many in-flight starts does the Auto-start system attempt?
Continuous attempts until the engine starts or the pilot moves the engine fuel control switch to CUTOFF.
219
What is auto-relight?
Auto-relight provides flameout protection by activating both ignitors.
220
If the required signals are not available to operate in the normal mode, the EEC automatically uses the alternate mode. In the alternate mode, the EEC schedules N1 as a function of thrust lever position.
True.
221
Where is engine oil quantity displayed?
The secondary engine indications.
222
What does the ENG OIL TEMP L EICAS message mean?
Engine oil temperature is high.
223
What does the ENG REV LIMITED R EICAS message mean?
The right engine reverser will not deploy or will be limited to idle
224
The EECs do not control thrust limits during reverser operation.
False.
Double negative
225
When does automatic continuous ignition activate?
When flaps are out of the UP position or engine anti-ice is on.
226
The autostart system does not monitor engine oil pressure but it monitors engine temperature.
False.
227
The EICAS caution message ENG FAIL (L or R) is displayed if an engine unexpectedly decelerates to less than idle speed.
True.
228
What does the ENG BTL DISCH illuminated amber light indicate?
The extinguisher bottle is discharged or has low pressure
229
Engine Fire and Overheat Detection - There are two detector loops in each engine nacelle. Each detector loop provides both fire and overheat detection. Normally, both loops must detect a fire or overheat condition to cause an engine fire warning or overheat caution.
True.
230
Which part of the aircraft have fire, overheat or smoke detection systems?
Engines, APU, main wheel wells, cargo compartments and lavatories.
231
How many fire extinguisher bottles are installed for the cargo compartment fire extinguishing?
Five.
232
The APU compartment has dual fire detector loops and can detect overheat conditions.
False.
233
What action should you take if the fire switch remains locked after a fire is detected?
Push the fire override switch and then pull the fire switch.
234
During preflight, you notice the BOTTLE 1 DISCH ENG message displayed on EICAS. What does this mean?
When the first two bottles have completely discharged.
235
Which statement is true concerning a lavatory fire?
An aural warning activates and a light illuminates outside the lavatory if smoke is detected.
236
Which of the following is not an indication of an engine overheats?
The fire bell sounds.
237
The APU has only one fire extinguisher bottle.
True.
238
After the FWD CARGO FIRE ARM switch has been armed, what happens when the CARGO FIRE DISCH switch is pushed?
Two rapid dump bottles discharge into the forward cargo compartment.
239
How many detectors loops does each each engine have and what states may each loop signal?
There are two loops. The different possible states are: normal, overheat, fire and fault.
240
What does the DET FIRE APU EICAS message indicate?
APU fire detection is no longer available.
241
Where are the lavatory fire extinguishers located?
In the waste container cabinet.
242
Which statement is true concerning a wheel well fire?
There is no built-in fire extinguishing system for the wheel well.
243
What happens when an APU fire is detected on the ground and the engines are shut down?
The APU shuts down automatically and the fire bottle discharges automatically.
244
What does the DET FIRE CARGO AFT EICAS message indicate?
Fire detection for the aft cargo compartment is not available.
245
What happens when an APU fire is detected on the ground and the engines are running?
The APU shuts down automatically but the fire bottle must be discharged manually.
246
What does the DET FIRE ENG R EICAS message indicate?
Fire detection for this engine is no longer available.
247
What fire, overheat, or smoke protection is provided for the lavatories?
Fire, overheat, and smoke.
248
After a forward cargo fire has been extinguished, what happens when the AFT CARGO FIRE ARM switch is now pushed?
The arming functions for the AFT CARGO FIRE ARM switch activates, but discharge into the aft compartment does not occur.
249
During preflight, you notice the BOTTLE DISCH APU message displayed on EICAS. What does this mean?
The APU fire bottle has discharged.
250
What does the DET FIRE CARGO FWD EICAS message indicate?
The Forward cargo fire heat sensor is inoperative.
251
Fire and Overheat Detection System automatically checks for faults in the loops.
True.
252
During cruise, you notice the OVERHEAT ENG R message displayed on EICAS. What has occurred?
An overheat condition exists in the right engine.
253
In direct mode, which of the following components of the primary flight control system are NOT operating?
Primary Flight Computers (PFCs).
254
When do the PFCs make self-test?
After hydraulic system shutdown (HYD PRESS SYS L+C+R).
255
What is the meaning of the EICAS advisory message STABILIZER CUTOUT?
Both stabilizer cut-out switches are in the CUTOUT position.
256
What can you say about the FLAPS DRIVE EICAS message?
The message is displayed when the flap drive mechanism has been shut down due to an asymmetry.
257
What causes the SPEEDNRAKE EXTENDED message to display on the EICAS?
Speedbrake is extended when radio altitude is between 15 and 800 ft.
258
Auto speed-brakes protection is provided for which phases of flight?
Take-off, rejected take-off and landing.
259
What does stall warning consist of?
Stick shaker but NO stall warning.
260
What does the EICAS message FLIGHT CONTROL MODE indicate?
Flight control system is operating in the secondary mode.
261
Which of these flight control surfaces assist in roll control?
Ailerons and flaperons.
262
What is true about turn compensation?
Elevator input is NOT required if the airplane is in a 30 degree bank.
263
Which one of the following statements is false?
At cruise speed, spoilers 5 and 10 are locked out.
Spoilers 4 and 11 are mechanically operated.
There are 12 spoilers.
When augmenting roll control, the spoilers work asymmetrically.
There are 12 spoilers.
264
Which of the following is true when the flight control system is operating in secondary mode?
Envelope protection features are NOT available.
265
What can you say about the FLAPS DRIVE EICAS message?
The message is displayed when the flap drive mechanism has been shut down due to an asymmetry.
266
Which of these flight control surfaces aid in roll control?
Ailerons, flaperons and spoilers.
267
Which statement is NOT true regarding the flap position indicator?
The flap position indicator is on the PFD.
268
Auto speed-brakes protection is provided for which phases of flight?
Take-off, rejected take-off and landing.
269
Which spoilers will be locked out in secondary and direct modes?
Spolers 5 and 10
270
What could cause the STAB GREENBAND EICAS message to be displayed?
The FMC weight entry and CG may be incorrect.
271
What principle is used when direct mode is in use?
Direct control surface deflection.
272
When does TAC automatically add rudder to minimize yaw?
When one engine differs by 10 % or more from the other engine.
273
In **direct **mode, which of the following components of fly-by-wire are NOT operating?
Primary Flight Computers (PFCs).
274
Which one of the following statements is incorrect?
Spoilers 5 and 10 are available as ground spoilers only.
Spoilers 4 and 11 are mechanically operated.
The spoilers augment roll control.
The extension of speed-brakes in the landing configuration is prohibited.
The extension of speed-brakes in the landing configuration is prohibited.
275
In the normal mode, a control column input or trim change is required to maintain a constant flight path:
During airspeed changes.
276
What causes the SPEEDBRAKE EXTENDED message to display on the EICAS?
Speedbrake is extended when radio altitude is between 15 and 800 ft.
277
Which of the following is not a stall protection feature?
Use of alternate pitch trim levers reduces the column forces below the minimum manoeuvring speed.
278
Under what conditions does the SPEEDBRAKE EXTENDED EICAS message display?
Stick shaker but NO stall warning.
279
What is FALSE about stabilizer trim?
As airspeed increases, trim rate increases.
280
Which of the following are NOT stall protection features?
The auto-throttle disconnects.
281
Do the ailerons increase lift for takeoff?
Yes the ailerons move down with flaps 5, 15 and 20.
282
Which statement is true when the primary flight computer disconnect switch is positioned to DISC?
Protection features are NOT available.
The system operates in direct mode
Autopilot is not available.
All statements are correct.
All statements are correct.
283
What are the initial steps to extend the flaps using the alternate flap system?
Arm ALT FLAPS ARM switch. Select ALT FLAPS selector to EXT.
284
When do the PFCs make self-test?
After hydraulic system shutdown (HYD PRESS SYS L+C+R).
285
What power source is used for the actuation of all primary flight controls?
Hydraulic.
286
Which trim control is inhibited when the autopilot is engaged?
Control wheel pitch trim switches.
287
What is the effect of placing a stabilizer cutout switch to cutout?
Disconnects hydraulic supply to STCM.
288
When do the alternate pitch trim levers move the stabilizer?
The levers move the stabilizer directly at all times.
289
Which of these flight control surfaces droop when the trailing edge flaps extend?
Flaperons.
290
What is the meaning of the EICAS advisory message STABILIZER CUTOUT?
Both stabilizer cut-out switches are in the CUTOUT position.
291
What happens when the stabilizer signal is not present or is invalid?
The green band and the pointer are not displayed
292
What is FALSE about Flap/Slat Load Relief?
Re-extension is limited to the commended flap position.
Flap load relief is available in the primary and secondary modes.
When airspeed is reduced the flap automatically re-extend as airspeed allows.
The Flap lever does not move during flap condition and shows actual flap position.
Flap load relief is available in the primary and secondary modes.
293
What is the maximum speed of wheel to rudder cross-tie operation?
210 knot.
294
Where - and when - is the stabilizer "green band" displayed?
Only on the ground, on pitch trim indicators.
295
Are the PFCs and ACEs used in direct mode?
only ACEs
confirm question
296
A wheel to rudder cross-tie function provides the capability of being able to control the initial effects of an engine failure using control wheel inputs only. How many degrees of rudder deflection can be obtained from control wheel inputs?
8 degrees.
297
Which spoilers are available as speedbrakes (secondary and direct modes)?
Spoilers 5,10
298
What does the PRI FLIGHT COMPUTERS EICAS message indicate?
The system is in direct mode
299
What is wheel to rudder cross-tie?
Ability to control initial effects of an engine failure with control wheel only.
300
Which pair of spoilers is mechanically controlled through a cable from the control wheel?
Spoilers 4 and 11.
301
What control do the flaperons and ailerons provide?
Roll control assisted by asymmetric spoilers.
302
In direct mode, which of the following components of the primary flight control system are NOT operating?
Primary Flight Computers (PFCs).
303
Which control surfaces are used for roll control on the B777?
Ailerons, flaperons and spoilers.
304
What is the correct statement?
Moving the alternate pitch trim levers with the autopilot engaged does not move the stabilizer.
Aileron trim in inhibited when the autopilot is engaged.
All statements are correct.
Moving the alternate pitch trim levers during stall or overspeed protection does not move the stabilizer
Aileron trim in inhibited when the autopilot is engaged.
305
When do the control wheel stabilizer trim switches control stabilizer movement directly?
Only on the ground.
306
Which of the following is true when the flight control system is operating in secondary mode?
Autopilot and envelope are NOT available.
307
How many spoiler panels are used as speedbrakes?
A total of 14 spoiler panels.
308
Which of the following is not correct concerning the flight control system when operating in secondary mode?
All spoilers remain usable.
309
What happens if uncommanded stabilizer motion is sensed?
Power to the affected STCM is shut off.
310
When are pitch trim changes required with the 777 'fly-by-wire' system?
During airspeed changes only.
311
Automatic speed-brake operation is provided for which flight control system modes?
Normal
312
Which statement about checklist overrides is correct?
To override a checklist you must display that checklist and then use the CHKL OVRD key.
Closed loop steps cannot be overridden.
Steps that are overridden remain white,
To override a checklist it must first be reset.
To override a checklist you must display that checklist and then use the CHKL OVRD key.
313
What does the CHKL OVRD key do when selected?
Overrides the displayed checklist and displays the next checklist to be overritten.
314
When using the Display Select Panel, what are the steps to select the status page on the left inboard display unit?
Select L INBD switch, then select STAT switch
315
What Display Select Panel steps displays the flight control synoptic on the right inboard display unit?
Select the R INBD switch, then select the FCTL switch
316
When an inboard display selector is in the EICAS position, Which switches on the Display Select Panel affect that inboard display?
All display switches are inoperative except ENG, FUEL and AIR.
317
Which statement about the Integrated Standby Flight Display (ISFD) is most correct?
It displays airplane attitude, airspeed and ILS information.
It displays airplane attitude, heading and airspeed information.
It is displays airplane attitude, altitude and ILS information.
It displays airplane attitude, airspeed and ILS information.
It displays airplane attitude, heading and airspeed information.
It is displays airplane attitude, altitude and ILS information.
It is displays airplane attitude, altitude and ILS information.
318
What does the EICAS Message SGL SOURCE DISPLAYS indictae?
A single source of display information is used by some or all display unit.
319
What does the EICAS Message SGL SOURCE AIR DATA indicate?
Both PFDs are receiving air data from the same single channel source.
320
What does the EICAS Message DISPLAY SELECT PNL indicate?
Left, center or right CDU control of the Display Control Panel is active.
321
What does the EICAS Message SGL SOURCE AIR DATA indicate?
Both PFDs are recieving air data from the same single channel source.
322
What does the EICAS Message BARO SET DISAGREE indicate?
The captains and the first officers barometric settings disagree
323
Which statement is not correct about the Radio Altitude display on the PFD?
Display radio altitude belown 2500 feet AGL.
Turns amber when below radio altitude minimums.
The display box is highlighted in white for 10 seconds when passing below 1000 feet.
Indicate current ADIRS altitude below 2500 feet.
Indicate current ADIRS altitude below 2500 feet.
324
Which statement is true about the Glideslope Pointer and scale on the PFD?
Displays when the autopilot or flight director is LOC mode and the airplane is close to the runway center line, providing a more sensitive displays.
325
When the ND is in the Plan mode, what is the display orientation?
The top of the display represents True North.
326
Which statement about the EFIS control panel Map switches is true?
ARPT (airports) can be only be displayed simultaneously on a single ND
327
Which Display Select Panel switch displays the APU EGT?
STAT (status page)
328
What happens if the ADIRU switch is left in then primary power is removed from the airplane and the BATTERY switch is turned off?
The ON BAT light illuminates and the ground crew call horn sounds.
329
Which message is displayed when the ADIRU is in the alignment mode?
EICAS memo message ADIRU ALIGN MODE
330
How often is a complete ADIRU alignment recommended?
Whenever the total time in the navigation mode is expected to exceed 24 hours.
331
Which of the following are data sources for the ADIRU?
Static ports only
Air data modules,AOA sensors, and TAT probe
Air data modules only
AOA sensors and TAT probe only.
Air data modules,AOA sensors, and TAT probe
332
Which of the following are data sources for the SAARU?
Air data modules, AOA sensors, and TAT probe
333
What is the altitude source for transponder altittude reporting when the ALT SOURCE selector is in the ALTN position?
SAARU
334
Which one of the following is inoperative with dual FMC failure?
LNAV
VNAV
MAP display
Both CDUs
VNAV
335
When will the FMC not automatically sequence the active waypoint in flight?
When more than 21 NM off the active route and not on an offset.
336
What color is the VOR data on the NAV RADIO page?
Green
337
What color is the ADF frequency data on the NAV RADIO page?
Cyan
338
What is the maximum range at which turbulence returns can be displayed?
40 nm
339
Which of the following statements about FMC fuel monitoring is not correct?
The FMC uses fuel quantity system values in flight.
The FMC uses calculated fuel values for performance.
During fuel jettison, the FMC calcuted values are independant of the fuel quantity system values.
The FMC updates calculated values with fuel quantity system values regularly in flight and informs the crew when the differences are significant.
The FMC uses calculated fuel values for performance.
340
What does the WXR FAIL ANT fault message indicate?
Weather returns will not display or weather returns will display, but will be unreliable.
341
Which of the following actions does not begin an early VNAV descent?
Selecting the DES NOW promt on the DES page.
Selecting a lower altitude in the MCP altitude window in response to the CDU scratchpad message RESET MCP Altitude.
Selecting a lower altitude in the MCP altitude window and pushing the MCP altitude selector when less than 50 NM from th T/D
Selecting a lower altitude in the MCP altitude window and pushing the mcp altitude selector when more than 50 NM from the T/D
Selecting a lower altitude in the MCP altitude window in response to the CDU scratchpad message RESET MCP Altitude.
342
Which statement about the ADIRU is correct?
The inertial reference position is updated using information from the air data modules.
The ADIRU sends magnetic variation data the FMCs to convert true heading to magnetic heading.
The ADIRU receives the same data inputs as the SAARU but compares and validates the data indenpendently.
If the ADIRU fails, the PFDs will blank.
The ADIRU receives the same data inputs as the SAARU but compares and validates the data indenpendently.
343
What is the source of air data for the integrated Standby Flight Display (ISFD)?
An ndependant attitude source inside of the ISFD
344
Which of the following statements about the FMC "on approach" logic is not correct?
VNAV PTH remains displayed during a descent after airspeed intervention is selected.
VNAV continues to command a descent after the MCP altitude selection is set to at least 300 feet above the current airplane altitudes.
"On approach" logic requires the FMC be in the descent phase and the flaps out of UP.
A glide path angle must be included in the approach and displayed on the LEGS page.
A glide path angle must be included in the approach and displayed on the LEGS page.
345
Which of the following will not cause the EICAS mesage FMC to be displayed?
CDU is selected on the instrument Source selector.
The FMC selector is in the L position with the left FMC failed.
The FMC selector is in the R position with the right FMC failed.
Both FMCs have failed.
CDU is selected on the instrument Source selector.
346
What is the only FMC page that will accept entry of airways?
ACT RTE X, page 2 and beyond
347
Which of the following actions does not activate tha FMC descent phase?
Passing the T/D point in FLCH.
Selecting the DES NOW prompt on the DES page.
Selecting a lower altitude in the MCP altitude window and pressing the MCP altitude selector when less than 50 NM from the T/D
Selecting a lower altitude in the MCP altitude window and pressing the MCP altitude selector when more than 50 NM from the T/D
Selecting a lower altitude in the MCP altitude window and pressing the MCP altitude selector when more than 50 NM from the T/D
348
When does LNAV automatically engage if selected during preflight?
At or above 50 feet when within 2.5 NM laterally from the active route leg.
349
Which of the following statements bout FMC missed approach is not correct?
VNAV and LNAV can not be activated below 400 feet radio altitude.
Descent constraint latitudes below the current airplane altitude are deleted.
The highest altitude in the missed approach procedure becomes the new cruise altitude.
Automatic transition to the missed approach phase is not possible without pushing the TOGA switch.
Automatic transition to the missed approach phase is not possible without pushing the TOGA switch.
350
When eletrical power is interrupted and reuturns and the FCM restarts, whhich of the following actions must be performed?
The active waypoint must be entered on LEGS page 1, line 1 and the desired course to that waypoint also selected before LNAV can be activated.
The previously active route automatically remains the active route.
The master FCM (left or right) must be selected and iniatialized on the FCM selector.
Performance data entry is not required, it is retained in temporary memory.
The active waypoint must be entered on LEGS page 1, line 1 and the desired course to that waypoint also selected before LNAV can be activated.
351
What is data source for the standby atitude indicator?
SAARU
352
How long should the ADIRU switch remain off when manually realigning the ADIRU?
30 seconds
353
What is the altitude source for transponder altitude reporting when the ALT SOURCE selecctor is in the NORM position?
ADIRU
354
Which one of the following pages is availbale following dual FCM failure?
ALTN PERF INIT
ALTN REF NAV DATA
ALTN POS REF
ALTN NAV LEGS
ALTN NAV LEGS
355
Which of the following ND modes can display weather radar returns?
APP centered
MAP centered
VOR centered
PLAN
MAP centered
356
What does the WXR FAIL R/T faukt message indicate?
The selected R/T has failed.
357
What does the EICAS message SGL SOURCE ILS indicate?
Both PFDs and NDs are using the same source of ILS information.
358
When can the active navigation database be changed on the IDENT page?
Only on the ground.
359
The FMC scratchpad message TAKE OFF SPEEDS DELETED does not display for which of the following conditions?
A new ZFW is entered on the PERF INIT page.
A new FLAPS setting is entered on the TAKEOFF REF page.
A new CG value is entered on the TAKEOFF REF page.
New runway winds are entered on the TAKEOFF REF page
A new CG value is entered on the TAKEOFF REF page.
360
What is represented by the color magenta in weather radar returns?
Turbulence within precipitation. Heavy precipitation Moderate precipitation Clear air turbulence Turbulence within precipitation
361
When can engine anti-ice be operated manually?
On the ground or in flight
362
What does the EAI indicate when displayed on the Primary EICAS N1 indication?
The engine anti-ice is open
363
What is the position of an engine anti-ice valve when the ENGINE ANTI-ICE selector is in AUTO and EAI is displayed?
Open
364
When can wing anti-ice be operated manually?
Only in flight
365
When will wing anti-ice operate automatically?
Only in flight
366
Which flight deck windows are heated to provide both anti-icing and anti-fogging protection?
Both forward windows
367
Which flight deck windows are provided with a backup anti-fogging system?
Both forward windows
368
Why are the WIPER selectors set to OFF during preflight?
To avoid wiper operation on dry windshields
369
With the R FWD window heat switch ON, what does the EICAS advisory message WINDOW HEAT R FWD indicate?
Primary heat for the affected forward window heat is off.
370
When will the EICAS advisory message ANTI-ICE ON be displayed?
TAT above 10 degrees C, any ANTI-ICE selector ON and ice is NOT detected
371
What position of the ANTI-ICE selectors will remove the ANTI-ICE ON EICAS message when the air temperature is above 10 degrees C and ice is not detected?
AUTO
372
What position should the ENGINE ANTI-ICE selectors be in for taxiing in icing conditions?
ON
373
What position should the WING ANTI-ICE selector be in for taxiing in icing conditions?
AUTO
374
What action should you take if the EICAS advisory message ICE DETECTORS is displayed?
Operate engine and wing anti ice systems manually when icing conditions are encountered.
375
What does the EICAS message ICE DETECTORS mean?
Ice detection has failed.
376
What does the EICAS message ICING ENG indicate?
Ice is detected and one or both engine anti-ice selectors are OFF.
377
Which Total Air Temperature (TAT) probes and Angle-of-Attack (AOA) sensors are electrically heated?
The TAT probe aft of the left pitot probe and the angle of attack (AOA) sensor mounted aft of and above the pitot probes on each side of the fuselage.
378
The total air temperature probe is aspirated inflight by bleed air for anti-ice protection.
False
379
APU fuel is supplied from the _____.
1. left fuel manifold
2. left scavenge pump
3. center fuel manifold
4. right fuel manifold
left fuel manifold
380
The DC fuel pump is located in the _____ tank.
1. left main
2. left surge
3. right surge
4. right main
left main
381
On the ground, the DC fuel pump operates automatically to provide fuel to the APU when _____.
no AC power is available and the APU switch is ON
382
Except when Fuel Jettison is armed, fuel temperature is displayed on the _____.
EICAS
383
Total fuel quantity is displayed on the _____.
Primary EICAS display
384
The expanded fuel quantity display appears when
- One or more fuel quantity indicators are inop.
- The FUEL QTY LOW, FUEL IN CENTER or FUEL IMBALANCE messages are displayed.
- One or both crossfeed valves are open.
- Airplane on the ground and at least one engine is OFF
385
Fuel temperature is sensed in the tank.
Left main
386
The DC fuel pump operates automatically when:
- The APU is started without AC power available.
- Both engines flameout in flight with no AC power available.
387
When all available fuel has been jettisoned there will be at least _______ in the main tank:
3800 kg
(OY-MAC & OY-MAD)
388
On the ground the fuel jettison system is inhibited. True or False
True
389
Main tank fuel capacity
31300 kg
390
Center tank fuel capacity
82900 kg
391
Vent/surge tank returns fuel into _____ tank
main tank
392
Center tank pumps must be selected be on when
4800 kg and more is in the cnter tank
393
Center pumps will turn off after ______ Seconds of low pressur
15 seconds
394
Any main tank pump can operate respcetive engine at all thrust conditions. True or false
true
395
B777F total fuel capacity
145500 kg total fuel
396
Fuel imbalance solid WHITE pointer is shown when main tank differs more than _____ kg
500 kg
397
Fuel imbalance solid white pointer is shown when main tank differs more than _____ kg, and cross feed is open.
100 kg
398
Fuel imbalance solid AMBER pointer is shown when main tank differs more than _____ kg
1000 kg
399
Center tank scavenging begins at ___________ main tank capacity
23900 kg
400
Normal brakes are powered by the _________ hydraulic system
Right
401
Right hydraulic demand pump runs continously on the ground. (True/false)
True
402
The landing gear is driven by the _________ hydraulic system
Center
403
Nose and main gear steering is driven by the _________ hydraulic system
Center
404
Reserve brakes is driven by the _________ hydraulic system
Center
405
Left hydraulic system demand pump is ________ driven
electrically
406
Center hydraulic system demand pump is ________ driven
pneumetically
407
Ram air turbine deploys automatically when
Both engines fail
408
Ram air turbine deploys automatically when
Center hyd pressure is low
409
Ram air turbine deploys automatically when
Both AC busses unpowered
410
Low pressure in the center system ensures nose wheel steering by ...
Closes isolation valve.
C1 runs below standpipe level, and ISLN valve opens at gear down and speed below 60 kts
411
C1 and C2 can run simultaniously. (True/false)
False
412
VMO / MMO for B777F
330 / M .89
413
Turbulence penetration speed
280 / M .82
270 below FL250 (Manouvespeed +15 below .82)
414
Maximum taxi weight:
348.721 kg
415
Maximum take off weight:
347.841 kg
416
Maximum landing weight:
260.815 kg
417
Maximum zero fuel weight:
248.115 kg
418
Auto relight function function is active when
Flaps not up
Engine anti-ice is on
419
In flight EEC selects approach idle when
Flaps are commanded 25 or greater
420
When EECs are manually selected to ALTERNATE mode, advandince thrust levers will cause an engine limit to be exceeded
True
421
If the autostart detects HOT START or N2 less than starter cutout, the EEC turns off fuel and motor the engine for 4 seconds
True
422
If the N1 exceeds the maximum N1 limit, the following EICAS message is shown
ENG LIMIT PROT L (R)
423
Caution message APU LIMIT indicates
High EGT
High Oil Temperature
Low oil pressure
There will be no cool down message
424
APU shuts down with out cool down period if: (Unattended mode)
Uattended mode
APU FIRE
Inlet over temperature
Overspeed
Loss of overspeed protection
APU controller failure
Speed droop
High EGT
Low oil pressure
High oil temperature
Generator oil filter approaching bypass
Intake door failure
No combustion or no acceleration on start
425
APU shuts down with out cool down period if: (attended mode)
Attended mode
APU FIRE
Inlet over temperature
Overspeed
Loss of overspeed protection
APU controller failure
Speed droop
426
APU fire on ground in attended mode will shut down and discharge fire bottle
False
427
The main battery can supply power for the standby system for a minimum of
5 minutes
428
Masks drops at (cabin altitude)
13500 cabin altitude
429
Seat belts comes on (In auto)
10000 cabin altitude
430
Aft lower cargo temp range
4°c - 7°c
431
