B767-300 Technical Flashcards
1
Q
Wing span
A
47,6 m
2
Q
Length
A
54,9 m
3
Q
Height
A
15,85 m
4
Q
Min RWY width for a 180 turn
A
44,6m (45m)
5
Q
Eye heigh on 3 degree glide slope
A
8,25 m
6
Q
Number of leading edge slats
A
12
Hydraulically operated by PDU´s
7
Q
When flaps 1 i selected, the position indicator indicates.
A
The position indicator pointers
move mid–way between UP and 1
Only slats move upon selection of ‘Flaps 1’
8
Q
The horizontal stabilizer is a
A
Variable pitch all moving tail.
9
Q
What hydraulic system powers the stabilizer?
A
Left and Center hydraulic system
10
Q
There are ______ mode(s) of stabilizer trim control.
A
- electric
-Dual electric pitch trim switches located on the control wheel - alternate
-Alternate trim control is provided by the stabilizer trim levers on the control stand - automatic
-The stabilizer is controlled automatically by the autopilot or by a Mach speed trim
system
11
Q
Pitch Enhancement System (PES)
A
The Pitch Enhancement System (PES) consists of a hydraulic motor in the right
system driving a pump which uses trapped left trim system fluid to operate the
stabilizer. It will automatically activate if both the left and center hydraulic
systems are lost in flight. Only electric trim is available at approximately 1/4 the
normal rate. Alternate and automatic trim will be inoperative.
12
Q
Number of autopilot servos
A
9
13
Q
yamdamper servos
A
2
14
Q
Flaps and slats are driven by ________’s
A
PDU (Power Drive Unit)
15
Q
The 767 is equipped with a Ram Air Turbine (RAT). The RAT powers the ______ system
A
Center hydraulic system
16
Q
Trim cutout switch 1/2 in CUTOFF, the trim ________
A
Moves half the normal rate.
17
Q
Trim cutout switch 2/2 in CUTOFF, the trim ________
A
is not available
18
Q
In case of LEFT and CENTER hyd sys fail, what system will provide trim?
A
The PES (Pitch Enhancement System)
Right hydraulic drives trapped Left fluid
19
Q
When the PES (Pitch Enhancement System) is in effect, the trim …..
A
Moves 1/4 normal rate and alternate and automatic trim will be inoperative
20
Q
How many hydraulic systems are present in elevator?
A
Left, Center, Right.
21
Q
Elevator feel system is powered by which hydraulic systems?
A
L, C
Two feel units.
22
Q
One elevator feel unit fail has the following effect
A
No effect
23
Q
Two elevator feel units fail has the following effect
A
Elevator feel is provided by springs as a function of airspeed.
24
Q
Ailerons ‘droop’ down under the following condition
A
Trailing edge flap extension
25
Outboard ailerons lock out at _____________
235 KIAS / M0.85
26
1 unit of aileron trim equates
5 degrees
27
Movement of the aileron trim moves the control wheen. (True or false)
True.
28
Spoilers are ___________ controlled and __________ actuated.
Electrically and hydraulically.
29
The spoiler system is controlled by _______ SCM(s)
6
(Spoiler Control modules)
30
Spoiler extension during high speed.
1, 2, 3, 6, 7, 9, 10, 11, 12.
31
Three requirements for speed brake activation on ground.
- Center hyd
- Truck tilt
- Both Thrust reverse levers at idle
32
EICAS message "SPEEDBRAKES EXT" is shown when
Lever is beyod arm position
- Landing flaps and RA above 15'
- RA 800' - 15'
33
Rudder is hydraulically controlled by the__________ hydraulic system(s)
L, C, R hydraulic system.
34
Rudder connection is a ________ connection.
Cable connection
(feel and centering are provided by a spring)
35
Rudder feel and centering is provided by a ___________ mechanism
Spring mechanism
36
Rudder tim control switch does the following
- Moves rudder neutral point
- Moves the rudder pedals
37
Excessive rudder aedynamic load is prevented by __________
a rudder ration changer
38
Rudder ration changer uses _______ input, and is in _______ to the rudder.
ADC (Air Data Computer) , parallel.
39
Yaw damper provides turn coordination and needs __________ to operate.
one IRS unit
40
The yaw damper is powered by the following hydraulic system(s)
L and C Hydraulic
41
Leading edge slats are powered by ______ PDU(s)
2 PDU (Power Drive Units)
powered by the center system.
42
Trailing edge flaps are powered by _______ PDU (s)
1 Power Drive Unit
Hydraulically driven by the center hyd system
43
The flap lever is not mechanially linked to the PDU. (True / False)
False
44
Flap load relief is provided for flaps ______
Flaps 25 & 30
But not in alternate
45
Flaps are powered by ______ hydraulic system
Center
46
Flap alternate gives assymetry protection. (True / False)
False.
47
In flaps alternate, time from flaps up to 20 is approximately
3 minutes
48
Flap load relief is not provided in flaps alternate.
True
49
Cockpit Voice Recorder starts recording when
First engine started
(Records 30 minutes on four trakcs)
50
Cockpit Voice Recorder is located where
Aft galley ceiling
51
CVR (Cockpit Voice Recorder) records
30 minues on four tracks
52
767-300 has _____ VHF antennas
3
53
767-300 HF antenna is located where ________
In the tail
54
767-300 has _______ IRU's installed
3 IRU's (L, C, R)
55
Standard IRS Initialization time
10 min
56
Aircraft attitude is supplied by
the IRS
57
Aircraft vertical speed is supplied by
the IRS
58
Aircraft ground speed is supplied by
the IRS
59
Aircraft airspeed is supplied by
the ADC
60
Wind readout is supplied by
the IRS
61
Aircraft track is supplied by
the IRS
62
767-300 has ______ ADF's installed
2 ADF's
63
767-300 has ______ DME's installed
2 DME's
64
767-300 has ______ ILS' installed
3 ILS'
65
767-300 has ______ VOR's installed
2 VOR's
66
IRS fast alignment duration (ATT postion)
30 seconds
(HDG information must be entered manually)
67
The 'AUTO' function on the VOR tune panel does....
FMC tunes VOR for automatic position updating
68
What 3 items will make the FUEL CONFIG light on the fuel panel illuminate?
- Low Fuel Quantity
- Imbalance between L and R main tank
- C tank fuel pumps OFF with fuel in C tank
69
When will the FUEL CONFIG due to low fuel illuminate?
- When total usable fuel in either L og R main drops below 2200 LBS
70
Which 2 pumps has the greatest output pressure of them all
- The 2 center tank pumps
71
How many fuel pumps are there
- 6 (2 in center, 2 in Left tank, 2 in Right tank) AC pumps in total
72
Which main tank has a DC pump?
Left main tank - The pump run automatically and cannot be controlled by crew.
73
A what imbalance between L and R main tanks will the FUEL CONFIG light and EICAS FUEL CONFIG warning be displayed?
Difference of more than 2000 LBS +/- 500 LBS
74
What is the total capacity of fuel:
L: 40.267 LBS = 18.262 kg
C: 79.730 LBS = 36.159 kg
R: 40.267 LBS = 18.262 kg
Total fuel on board: 160.264 LBS = 72.682 kg
75
Which tank is feeding the APU
Left tank. On the ground with no AC the APU gets fueled via a DC pump that starts automatically when the APU is set to ON. With AC available the DC is not running and the APU is feed by the forward AC pump in LEFT tank.
76
How much fuel can be jettisoned with both pumps on?
Approx. 2600 LBS/Min = 1.179 kg/min
77
What are the main 3 units of the L / R hyd system
- Reservoir
- Eng-Driven primary pump
- Elec.- Driven Demand pump
78
Down to what speed will the RAT be able to deliver sufficient hydraulic power to the ________ system?
130 kts / Center
79
How many degrees can you turn the nose wheel with the sidewall tiller?
65 degrees
80
How much can you turn the nose wheel with the pedals?
7 degrees
81
Whats the minimum SPEED that needs to be achived in order to activate the autobrake RTO function?
85 kts
82
What hydraulic system powers the extension, retraction and steering of the landing gear?
Center Hyd system
83
The _________ system powers the normal braking?
RIGHT
84
The _________ system powers the alternate braking?
CENTER
85
What 3 elements must be fulfilled for RTO to activated?
- Aircraft on ground
- Ground speed is above 85 kts.
- Both thrust levers are retarded to idle
86
After landing, when does the autobrake begin?
- Both thrust levers are at idle
- The wheel has spun up
87
A resulution advisory comes ____________
20 - 30 seconds CPA (Closest Point of Approach)
88
The TCAS term CPA means ....
Closest point of approach
89
Weather radar returns are NOT displayed FULL VOR. (True or false)
True
90
Weather radar returns are NOT displayed VOR. (True or false)
False
91
Weather radar returns are displayed PLAN. (True or false)
False
92
Weather radar returns are NOT displayed FULL ILS. (True or false)
True
93
Maximum weather radar tilt
15 degrees
94
Maximum FMC offset
99 NM
95
FMC 'DES NOW' gives _______ fpm until _______
1000 fpm until VNAV profile is attained
96
The five electrical busses of the 767-300
STBY (AC)
STBY (DC)
LEFT (AC)
LEFT (DC)
BAT BUS (DC)
97
How many batteries are installed in the 767-300
Two (Main and APU)
98
The main electrical battery is located ....
in the front of the aircraft
99
The APU battery is located ....
Located aft (Only used for APU start)
100
What is the purpose of the HMG. (Hydro mechanical Generator)
To convert hydraulic fluid motion to DC and AC power in non-normal conditions
101
Where is the location of the HMG. (Hydro mechanical Generator)
Left wheel well
102
The standby power selector 'AUTO' function ...
In case no to generator power available, battery power will be supplied to the busses.
103
Hot battery bus powers
- Right AC bus via GND service bus
- Provides DC to fire protection
104
Battery bus powers
- Fire detection Eng / APU
- Alternate gear
- Fuel valves
(FAF)
105
The 767-300 has ______ hydraulic system
three
106
The Ram Air Turbine powers the ______ system
Center
107
Hydraulic fluid is cool by ___________ located in the ___________
Heat exchanger located in the fuel tank
108
The Left and Right hydraulic systems has, demand pumps. Theese are ______ powered
AC
109
The center hydraulic system is located in the ____________
Right gear well
110
The center hydraulic system is powered by ___________ and _________
2 x AC driven pumps & 1 x ADP (air driven pump)
111
Center hydraulic fluid is cooled by ___________ located in the ___________
Heat exchanger located in the right fuel tank
112
The tail skid strut is powered by the ____________ hydraulic system
Center
113
The RAM air turbine ONLY supplies hydraulic fluid to flight control systems. (True / false)
True
114
The hydraulic reservoir is pressurized by _________ psi
40 psi bleed air
115
Reserve brakes and steering are powered by the ___________ hyd system
Center
(With low quantity, a standpipe level ensures adequate pressure)
116
Main landing gear is tilted _______ with ________ degrees
Forward with 17 degrees
117
Normal brakes are powered by the ___________ hydraulic system
Right
118
Landing gear doors are powered by the ___________ hydraulic system
Right
119
The right yaw damper is powered by the ___________ hydraulic system
Left
120
The left yaw damper is powered by the ___________ hydraulic system
Right
121
Left electric demand pump is inhibited on ground with one enginge running (True / false)
True.
This is due to load shedding during engine start.
122
Landing gear is powered by the ___________ hydraulic system
Center
123
Nose wheel is powered by the ___________ hydraulic system
Center
124
The PES (Pitch enhancement system) is powered by the ___________ hydraulic system
Right
125
The normal brakes are powered by the ___________ hydraulic system
Right
126
The nose gear doors are hydraulically actuated by the center hydraulic system. (True / false)
False
127
Aircraft Ground Mode is sensed by
- Nose gear strut compression
- Main gear tilt
128
Nose gear turns _________ degrees with the tiller
65 degrees
129
Nose gear turns _________ degrees with the rudder
7 degrees
130
Nosewheel steering is disconnected by
By an actuating lever located on the nose gear strut
131
The alternate brakes are powered by the ___________ hydraulic system
Center
132
How will and antiskid module fail affect antiskid?
Wheels brake in pairs
133
RTO system needs three prerequisites for operation
- On GND
- Both thrustlevers idle
- Above 85 kts
134
Cargo smoke detected utilizes __________ for operation
pneumatics (bleed)
135
Bleed air is pressure regulated by a ______________
Pressure relieve valve
136
Bleed air is temperature regulated by a ______________
Fan air precooler
137
´Cabin altitude´ panel warning light comes on
10.000´ cab alt
138
´Cabin altitude´ panel warning light extinguishes
Cabin descending below 8500´
139
The 767-300 has ______ packs installed
Two
140
The 767-300 has ______ pack controllers
Two.
141
Maximum APU bleed altitude
17.000 MSL
142
Max APU start attepmts
3 starts in any 60 minutes
143
Minimum N1 crossbleed start
N1 70%
144
Pack control selector in the "OFF" position
Pack flow valve closed
145
Pack control selector in the "AUTO" position
Temp is automatically controlled by the pack flow valve with sensor input
146
Pack control selector in the "N" position
Constant moderate temperatur of 24 degrees
147
Pack control selector in the "C" position
Full cold temperature of 18 degrees
148
Pack control selector in the "W" position
Temperature is coldtrolled by ram air and is kept at 29 degrees
149
Pack HI FLOW is on under the following two conditions
- Ground ops with APU
- Inflight with one pack U/S or RECIRC fan inop
150
Pack HI FLOW is inhibited when
- Wing anti ice with only one bleed source
- Flaps are not up
- Aft cargo fire switch is armed
151
No enging thrust limits with pack in HI FLOW. (True / false)
false
152
In case of pack over heat the following occurs
- EICAS (x PACK TEMP)
- Pack auto max cooling
153
Forward cargo temp is adjusted to _______ degrees
7 degrees
154
Aft and bulk cargo is supplied by _______ and kept at ________ degrees
Center APU duct and kept at 4-10 degrees
155
If FWD, AFT and bulk temp exceeds _______ degrees the ________ closes
32 degrees the Shutoff valve closes
156
Equipment cooling AUTO mode. On ground with one engine running.
OVBD valve ______
Skin heat exchanger _______
Overboard valve is open and skin heat exchanger is closed.
157
Equipment cooling in STBY. (GND)
Cooling exhaust fan ________
Cooling exhaust fan: on
158
Equipment cooling in STBY. (AIR)
Cooling exhaust fan ________
Cooling exhaust fan: off
159
Equipment cooling AUTO mode. (AIR)
Cooling exhaust valve ______
Skin heat exchanger _______
Cooling exhaust valve: On
Skin heat exhanger: open
(Supply vans as back up)
160
Equipment cooling OVRD mode.
Smoke clearance valve ________
The smoke clearance valve opens and it creates a bypass flow.
161
Illumination of the ´VALVE´light means
- OVBD valve is not closed in the (air)
- Fan/Valves are not in the commanded position (gnd)
162
Equipment cooling in OVRD position on GND.
A horn will sound
163
During fuel jettison the eqiupment cooling system configures _________ and ________
Override and reverts back automatically
164
The 767-300 has _______ outflow valve(s)
One located on the aft fuselage.
165
The outflow valve is controlled by _______ power in either AUTO channel
AC
Manual: DC (slower movement)
166
In the mode select ´MAN´ the outflow valve is _________ controlled
DC controlled and moves slower
167
IF cabin altitude exceedes __________ the __________
11000´ the outflow valve closes automatically
168
Landing altitude selector range is from _______ to _______
-1000 to 14000
169
Max cabin differential
8.6 psi
170
Number of positive relief valve(s)
Two
171
The positive relief valves opens at
8.95 psi
172
Excess cabin altitude comes at __________ and extinguishes at __________
10000´and extuingishes at 8500´
173
Caution messages are inhibited after _______ kts
80 kts
Inhibit ends after 20 nose gear liftoff or 400 RA
174
During take off the bell is inhibited from __________ to __________
nose gear lift off to 400 RA or 20 seconds
175
excessive cabin alt aural alert is ________
A siren
sounds at 10000´cab alt
176
EICAS GEAR NOT DOWN is showed when
- Flight mode
- Gear not down and locked
- RA less than 800ø with thrust levers idle
- Flaps landing
177
Wind shear alert becomes active at __________ and ends at __________
Rotation and ends at 1500´
178
Predictive windshear alert becomes active __________ and ends at __________
During take off and ends at 1200´
(2300´in flight descending)
179
The GPWS warning system is active between ________ and __________
10´- 2450´
180
Fire detection and protection is provided for
- Engine
- APU
- Cargo
(DC powered)
181
Fire detection only is provided for for
-Wheel well
(AC powered)
182
Pulling a fire handle seperates
- Fuel spar valve
- Bleed air SOV
- Trips generator field
- Disconnects hydraulic
- Arms squibs
- Silences aural warning
183
Main gear fire detection consists of
single loot detection system
184
There are _________ engine fire extinguisher bottles.
Two
Either or both bottles can be
discharged into either engine.
185
There are ________ APU fire extinguisher bottles
Two
186
When the APU fire switch is pulled
out, the APU
- fuel is shut off
- bleed air valve is closed
- generator is tripped off
- fire extinguisher bottles are armed
187
Cargo compartment fire protection consists of these systems:
- cargo compartment smoke detection
- cargo compartment fire warning
188
Lower cargo compartment has ______ bottles and ensures _______ min of firesupression
Three bottles and ensures 195 minuts of supression.
Note: Type specific differences between CBT and actual models
189
Lower cargo fire supression sequence
- First bottle immeadiatly discharged
- Remaining bottles will graduatly flow in to the cargo compartment
If landing happens within 30 minuts, all bottles will discharge
190
Cargo ARM switch does
- Detecto blowers turn off
- Cargo heat valve closes
- Recirculation fans reconfigure
- Arms firebottle squibs
191
767-300 Main fuel tank capacity
18.200 kgs
192
767-300 center tank capacity
36.400 kgs
193
Number of fuel pumps
6 x AC fuel pumps
1 x DC in L main tank (APU)
194
A single pump can supply
sufficient fuel to operate one engine under all conditions. (True / false)
True
195
Center pumps are override pumps and are inhibited ____________
50% N2
196
Fuel config light comes on under the following conditions
- Main tank quantity is below 1000kgs
- 900 imballance
useable fuel in the center tank with pumps off
197
Fuel tempetaur is measured _________ (where)
in the left tank
198
The 767-300 has ______ EICAS computer(s)
Two
AUTO: Left EICAS in in control
199
The engine EEN controls the Hydromechanical Unit by __________ to prevent __________
Trimming fuel to prevent overspeed
200
EEC NORM: The EEC uses _________ to calculate _________
Thrustlever angle calculate appropriate N1
201
EEC Alternate mode means
Direct thrustlever connection with NO overspeed protection
202
In case of EEC and TMC fail, the _________ window _________
N1 window blanks
203
Engine igniters are powered from
Right main AC bus
204
Fuel on bug shows
minimum N2 RPM for fuel on. (15 RPM)
205
Starter cuts out at ______
50% N2
(If starter dosent close by 52% N2- take action)
206
CLB 1 & CLB 2 washout starts at approximately ___________
10000´
207
CLB 1 derates ______% and CLB 2 derates ______%
10% - 20%
note: Type specific differences
208
The APU has ______ AC Generator
one
Frequency governed by APU rpm
209
APU has fire detection AND protection. (True / false)
True
210
APU inlet door not fully open will cause APU shut down (True / false)
True
211
APU Fire protection panel is located (where)
Back side of nose gear strut
212
Max altitude for APU bleed supply
17000´
213
Max altitude for APU electric supply
43100´
214
APU needs both batteries for start. (True / false)
True
215
Apu shut down cycle is ________
120 seconds
216
Pitot, static ports, AOA & TAT are heated when _________
one engine is operating
217
Wing anti ice includes _______ outboard slaps
three
218
One window heat INOP light means
Window heat fault
219
Both window heat INOP light means (in flight)
Winder heat overheat
220
Engine anti ince must be used when TAT is between _______ and ________
+10 degrees and - 40 degrees
221
Traffic advisory is ________ sec and _______ feet
45-25 seconds and 1200´
222
Resolution advisory is ________ sec and _______ feet
30-20 sec and 900´
223
TCAS detection range is _________ NM and _________ feet
30-40 NM and 9900´
