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Maersk Air Cargo > B767-300 Technical > Flashcards

B767-300 Technical Flashcards

1
Q

Wing span

A

47,6 m

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2
Q

Length

A

54,9 m

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3
Q

Height

A

15,85 m

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4
Q

Min RWY width for a 180 turn

A

44,6m (45m)

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5
Q

Eye heigh on 3 degree glide slope

A

8,25 m

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6
Q

Number of leading edge slats

A

12

Hydraulically operated by PDU´s

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7
Q

When flaps 1 i selected, the position indicator indicates.

A

The position indicator pointers
move mid–way between UP and 1

Only slats move upon selection of ‘Flaps 1’

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8
Q

The horizontal stabilizer is a

A

Variable pitch all moving tail.

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9
Q

What hydraulic system powers the stabilizer?

A

Left and Center hydraulic system

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10
Q

There are ______ mode(s) of stabilizer trim control.

A
  • electric
    -Dual electric pitch trim switches located on the control wheel
  • alternate
    -Alternate trim control is provided by the stabilizer trim levers on the control stand
  • automatic
    -The stabilizer is controlled automatically by the autopilot or by a Mach speed trim
    system
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11
Q

Pitch Enhancement System (PES)

A

The Pitch Enhancement System (PES) consists of a hydraulic motor in the right
system driving a pump which uses trapped left trim system fluid to operate the
stabilizer. It will automatically activate if both the left and center hydraulic
systems are lost in flight. Only electric trim is available at approximately 1/4 the
normal rate. Alternate and automatic trim will be inoperative.

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12
Q

Number of autopilot servos

A

9

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13
Q

yamdamper servos

A

2

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14
Q

Flaps and slats are driven by ________’s

A

PDU (Power Drive Unit)

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15
Q

The 767 is equipped with a Ram Air Turbine (RAT). The RAT powers the ______ system

A

Center hydraulic system

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16
Q

Trim cutout switch 1/2 in CUTOFF, the trim ________

A

Moves half the normal rate.

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17
Q

Trim cutout switch 2/2 in CUTOFF, the trim ________

A

is not available

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18
Q

In case of LEFT and CENTER hyd sys fail, what system will provide trim?

A

The PES (Pitch Enhancement System)

Right hydraulic drives trapped Left fluid

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19
Q

When the PES (Pitch Enhancement System) is in effect, the trim …..

A

Moves 1/4 normal rate and alternate and automatic trim will be inoperative

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20
Q

How many hydraulic systems are present in elevator?

A

Left, Center, Right.

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21
Q

Elevator feel system is powered by which hydraulic systems?

A

L, C

Two feel units.

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22
Q

One elevator feel unit fail has the following effect

A

No effect

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23
Q

Two elevator feel units fail has the following effect

A

Elevator feel is provided by springs as a function of airspeed.

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24
Q

Ailerons ‘droop’ down under the following condition

A

Trailing edge flap extension

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25
Q

Outboard ailerons lock out at _____________

A

235 KIAS / M0.85

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26
Q

1 unit of aileron trim equates

A

5 degrees

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27
Q

Movement of the aileron trim moves the control wheen. (True or false)

A

True.

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28
Q

Spoilers are ___________ controlled and __________ actuated.

A

Electrically and hydraulically.

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29
Q

The spoiler system is controlled by _______ SCM(s)

A

6

(Spoiler Control modules)

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30
Q

Spoiler extension during high speed.

A

1, 2, 3, 6, 7, 9, 10, 11, 12.

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31
Q

Three requirements for speed brake activation on ground.

A
  • Center hyd
  • Truck tilt
  • Both Thrust reverse levers at idle
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32
Q

EICAS message “SPEEDBRAKES EXT” is shown when

A

Lever is beyod arm position

  • Landing flaps and RA above 15’
  • RA 800’ - 15’
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33
Q

Rudder is hydraulically controlled by the__________ hydraulic system(s)

A

L, C, R hydraulic system.

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34
Q

Rudder connection is a ________ connection.

A

Cable connection

(feel and centering are provided by a spring)

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35
Q

Rudder feel and centering is provided by a ___________ mechanism

A

Spring mechanism

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36
Q

Rudder tim control switch does the following

A
  • Moves rudder neutral point
  • Moves the rudder pedals
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37
Q

Excessive rudder aedynamic load is prevented by __________

A

a rudder ration changer

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38
Q

Rudder ration changer uses _______ input, and is in _______ to the rudder.

A

ADC (Air Data Computer) , parallel.

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39
Q

Yaw damper provides turn coordination and needs __________ to operate.

A

one IRS unit

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40
Q

The yaw damper is powered by the following hydraulic system(s)

A

L and C Hydraulic

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41
Q

Leading edge slats are powered by ______ PDU(s)

A

2 PDU (Power Drive Units)

powered by the center system.

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42
Q

Trailing edge flaps are powered by _______ PDU (s)

A

1 Power Drive Unit

Hydraulically driven by the center hyd system

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43
Q

The flap lever is not mechanially linked to the PDU. (True / False)

A

False

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44
Q

Flap load relief is provided for flaps ______

A

Flaps 25 & 30

But not in alternate

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45
Q

Flaps are powered by ______ hydraulic system

A

Center

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46
Q

Flap alternate gives assymetry protection. (True / False)

A

False.

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47
Q

In flaps alternate, time from flaps up to 20 is approximately

A

3 minutes

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48
Q

Flap load relief is not provided in flaps alternate.

A

True

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49
Q

Cockpit Voice Recorder starts recording when

A

First engine started

(Records 30 minutes on four trakcs)

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50
Q

Cockpit Voice Recorder is located where

A

Aft galley ceiling

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51
Q

CVR (Cockpit Voice Recorder) records

A

30 minues on four tracks

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52
Q

767-300 has _____ VHF antennas

A

3

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53
Q

767-300 HF antenna is located where ________

A

In the tail

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54
Q

767-300 has _______ IRU’s installed

A

3 IRU’s (L, C, R)

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55
Q

Standard IRS Initialization time

A

10 min

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56
Q

Aircraft attitude is supplied by

A

the IRS

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57
Q

Aircraft vertical speed is supplied by

A

the IRS

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58
Q

Aircraft ground speed is supplied by

A

the IRS

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59
Q

Aircraft airspeed is supplied by

A

the ADC

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60
Q

Wind readout is supplied by

A

the IRS

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61
Q

Aircraft track is supplied by

A

the IRS

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62
Q

767-300 has ______ ADF’s installed

A

2 ADF’s

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63
Q

767-300 has ______ DME’s installed

A

2 DME’s

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64
Q

767-300 has ______ ILS’ installed

A

3 ILS’

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65
Q

767-300 has ______ VOR’s installed

A

2 VOR’s

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66
Q

IRS fast alignment duration (ATT postion)

A

30 seconds

(HDG information must be entered manually)

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67
Q

The ‘AUTO’ function on the VOR tune panel does….

A

FMC tunes VOR for automatic position updating

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68
Q

What 3 items will make the FUEL CONFIG light on the fuel panel illuminate?

A
  • Low Fuel Quantity
  • Imbalance between L and R main tank
  • C tank fuel pumps OFF with fuel in C tank
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69
Q

When will the FUEL CONFIG due to low fuel illuminate?

A
  • When total usable fuel in either L og R main drops below 2200 LBS
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70
Q

Which 2 pumps has the greatest output pressure of them all

A
  • The 2 center tank pumps
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71
Q

How many fuel pumps are there

A
  • 6 (2 in center, 2 in Left tank, 2 in Right tank) AC pumps in total
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72
Q

Which main tank has a DC pump?

A

Left main tank - The pump run automatically and cannot be controlled by crew.

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73
Q

A what imbalance between L and R main tanks will the FUEL CONFIG light and EICAS FUEL CONFIG warning be displayed?

A

Difference of more than 2000 LBS +/- 500 LBS

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74
Q

What is the total capacity of fuel:

A

L: 40.267 LBS = 18.262 kg
C: 79.730 LBS = 36.159 kg
R: 40.267 LBS = 18.262 kg

Total fuel on board: 160.264 LBS = 72.682 kg

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75
Q

Which tank is feeding the APU

A

Left tank. On the ground with no AC the APU gets fueled via a DC pump that starts automatically when the APU is set to ON. With AC available the DC is not running and the APU is feed by the forward AC pump in LEFT tank.

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76
Q

How much fuel can be jettisoned with both pumps on?

A

Approx. 2600 LBS/Min = 1.179 kg/min

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77
Q

What are the main 3 units of the L / R hyd system

A
  • Reservoir
  • Eng-Driven primary pump
  • Elec.- Driven Demand pump
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78
Q

Down to what speed will the RAT be able to deliver sufficient hydraulic power to the ________ system?

A

130 kts / Center

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79
Q

How many degrees can you turn the nose wheel with the sidewall tiller?

A

65 degrees

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80
Q

How much can you turn the nose wheel with the pedals?

A

7 degrees

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81
Q

Whats the minimum SPEED that needs to be achived in order to activate the autobrake RTO function?

A

85 kts

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82
Q

What hydraulic system powers the extension, retraction and steering of the landing gear?

A

Center Hyd system

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83
Q

The _________ system powers the normal braking?

A

RIGHT

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84
Q

The _________ system powers the alternate braking?

A

CENTER

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85
Q

What 3 elements must be fulfilled for RTO to activated?

A
  • Aircraft on ground
  • Ground speed is above 85 kts.
  • Both thrust levers are retarded to idle
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86
Q

After landing, when does the autobrake begin?

A
  • Both thrust levers are at idle
  • The wheel has spun up
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87
Q

A resulution advisory comes ____________

A

20 - 30 seconds CPA (Closest Point of Approach)

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88
Q

The TCAS term CPA means ….

A

Closest point of approach

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89
Q

Weather radar returns are NOT displayed FULL VOR. (True or false)

A

True

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90
Q

Weather radar returns are NOT displayed VOR. (True or false)

A

False

91
Q

Weather radar returns are displayed PLAN. (True or false)

A

False

92
Q

Weather radar returns are NOT displayed FULL ILS. (True or false)

A

True

93
Q

Maximum weather radar tilt

A

15 degrees

94
Q

Maximum FMC offset

A

99 NM

95
Q

FMC ‘DES NOW’ gives _______ fpm until _______

A

1000 fpm until VNAV profile is attained

96
Q

The five electrical busses of the 767-300

A

STBY (AC)
STBY (DC)
LEFT (AC)
LEFT (DC)
BAT BUS (DC)

97
Q

How many batteries are installed in the 767-300

A

Two (Main and APU)

98
Q

The main electrical battery is located ….

A

in the front of the aircraft

99
Q

The APU battery is located ….

A

Located aft (Only used for APU start)

100
Q

What is the purpose of the HMG. (Hydro mechanical Generator)

A

To convert hydraulic fluid motion to DC and AC power in non-normal conditions

101
Q

Where is the location of the HMG. (Hydro mechanical Generator)

A

Left wheel well

102
Q

The standby power selector ‘AUTO’ function …

A

In case no to generator power available, battery power will be supplied to the busses.

103
Q

Hot battery bus powers

A
  • Right AC bus via GND service bus
  • Provides DC to fire protection
104
Q

Battery bus powers

A
  • Fire detection Eng / APU
  • Alternate gear
  • Fuel valves
    (FAF)
105
Q

The 767-300 has ______ hydraulic system

A

three

106
Q

The Ram Air Turbine powers the ______ system

A

Center

107
Q

Hydraulic fluid is cool by ___________ located in the ___________

A

Heat exchanger located in the fuel tank

108
Q

The Left and Right hydraulic systems has, demand pumps. Theese are ______ powered

A

AC

109
Q

The center hydraulic system is located in the ____________

A

Right gear well

110
Q

The center hydraulic system is powered by ___________ and _________

A

2 x AC driven pumps & 1 x ADP (air driven pump)

111
Q

Center hydraulic fluid is cooled by ___________ located in the ___________

A

Heat exchanger located in the right fuel tank

112
Q

The tail skid strut is powered by the ____________ hydraulic system

A

Center

113
Q

The RAM air turbine ONLY supplies hydraulic fluid to flight control systems. (True / false)

A

True

114
Q

The hydraulic reservoir is pressurized by _________ psi

A

40 psi bleed air

115
Q

Reserve brakes and steering are powered by the ___________ hyd system

A

Center

(With low quantity, a standpipe level ensures adequate pressure)

116
Q

Main landing gear is tilted _______ with ________ degrees

A

Forward with 17 degrees

117
Q

Normal brakes are powered by the ___________ hydraulic system

A

Right

118
Q

Landing gear doors are powered by the ___________ hydraulic system

A

Right

119
Q

The right yaw damper is powered by the ___________ hydraulic system

A

Left

120
Q

The left yaw damper is powered by the ___________ hydraulic system

A

Right

121
Q

Left electric demand pump is inhibited on ground with one enginge running (True / false)

A

True.

This is due to load shedding during engine start.

122
Q

Landing gear is powered by the ___________ hydraulic system

A

Center

123
Q

Nose wheel is powered by the ___________ hydraulic system

A

Center

124
Q

The PES (Pitch enhancement system) is powered by the ___________ hydraulic system

A

Right

125
Q

The normal brakes are powered by the ___________ hydraulic system

A

Right

126
Q

The nose gear doors are hydraulically actuated by the center hydraulic system. (True / false)

A

False

127
Q

Aircraft Ground Mode is sensed by

A
  • Nose gear strut compression
  • Main gear tilt
128
Q

Nose gear turns _________ degrees with the tiller

A

65 degrees

129
Q

Nose gear turns _________ degrees with the rudder

A

7 degrees

130
Q

Nosewheel steering is disconnected by

A

By an actuating lever located on the nose gear strut

131
Q

The alternate brakes are powered by the ___________ hydraulic system

A

Center

132
Q

How will and antiskid module fail affect antiskid?

A

Wheels brake in pairs

133
Q

RTO system needs three prerequisites for operation

A
  • On GND
  • Both thrustlevers idle
  • Above 85 kts
134
Q

Cargo smoke detected utilizes __________ for operation

A

pneumatics (bleed)

135
Q

Bleed air is pressure regulated by a ______________

A

Pressure relieve valve

136
Q

Bleed air is temperature regulated by a ______________

A

Fan air precooler

137
Q

´Cabin altitude´ panel warning light comes on

A

10.000´ cab alt

138
Q

´Cabin altitude´ panel warning light extinguishes

A

Cabin descending below 8500´

139
Q

The 767-300 has ______ packs installed

A

Two

140
Q

The 767-300 has ______ pack controllers

A

Two.

141
Q

Maximum APU bleed altitude

A

17.000 MSL

142
Q

Max APU start attepmts

A

3 starts in any 60 minutes

143
Q

Minimum N1 crossbleed start

A

N1 70%

144
Q

Pack control selector in the “OFF” position

A

Pack flow valve closed

145
Q

Pack control selector in the “AUTO” position

A

Temp is automatically controlled by the pack flow valve with sensor input

146
Q

Pack control selector in the “N” position

A

Constant moderate temperatur of 24 degrees

147
Q

Pack control selector in the “C” position

A

Full cold temperature of 18 degrees

148
Q

Pack control selector in the “W” position

A

Temperature is coldtrolled by ram air and is kept at 29 degrees

149
Q

Pack HI FLOW is on under the following two conditions

A
  • Ground ops with APU
  • Inflight with one pack U/S or RECIRC fan inop
150
Q

Pack HI FLOW is inhibited when

A
  • Wing anti ice with only one bleed source
  • Flaps are not up
  • Aft cargo fire switch is armed
151
Q

No enging thrust limits with pack in HI FLOW. (True / false)

A

false

152
Q

In case of pack over heat the following occurs

A
  • EICAS (x PACK TEMP)
  • Pack auto max cooling
153
Q

Forward cargo temp is adjusted to _______ degrees

A

7 degrees

154
Q

Aft and bulk cargo is supplied by _______ and kept at ________ degrees

A

Center APU duct and kept at 4-10 degrees

155
Q

If FWD, AFT and bulk temp exceeds _______ degrees the ________ closes

A

32 degrees the Shutoff valve closes

156
Q

Equipment cooling AUTO mode. On ground with one engine running.
OVBD valve ______
Skin heat exchanger _______

A

Overboard valve is open and skin heat exchanger is closed.

157
Q

Equipment cooling in STBY. (GND)
Cooling exhaust fan ________

A

Cooling exhaust fan: on

158
Q

Equipment cooling in STBY. (AIR)
Cooling exhaust fan ________

A

Cooling exhaust fan: off

159
Q

Equipment cooling AUTO mode. (AIR)
Cooling exhaust valve ______
Skin heat exchanger _______

A

Cooling exhaust valve: On
Skin heat exhanger: open
(Supply vans as back up)

160
Q

Equipment cooling OVRD mode.
Smoke clearance valve ________

A

The smoke clearance valve opens and it creates a bypass flow.

161
Q

Illumination of the ´VALVE´light means

A
  • OVBD valve is not closed in the (air)
  • Fan/Valves are not in the commanded position (gnd)
162
Q

Equipment cooling in OVRD position on GND.

A

A horn will sound

163
Q

During fuel jettison the eqiupment cooling system configures _________ and ________

A

Override and reverts back automatically

164
Q

The 767-300 has _______ outflow valve(s)

A

One located on the aft fuselage.

165
Q

The outflow valve is controlled by _______ power in either AUTO channel

A

AC

Manual: DC (slower movement)

166
Q

In the mode select ´MAN´ the outflow valve is _________ controlled

A

DC controlled and moves slower

167
Q

IF cabin altitude exceedes __________ the __________

A

11000´ the outflow valve closes automatically

168
Q

Landing altitude selector range is from _______ to _______

A

-1000 to 14000

169
Q

Max cabin differential

A

8.6 psi

170
Q

Number of positive relief valve(s)

A

Two

171
Q

The positive relief valves opens at

A

8.95 psi

172
Q

Excess cabin altitude comes at __________ and extinguishes at __________

A

10000´and extuingishes at 8500´

173
Q

Caution messages are inhibited after _______ kts

A

80 kts

Inhibit ends after 20 nose gear liftoff or 400 RA

174
Q

During take off the bell is inhibited from __________ to __________

A

nose gear lift off to 400 RA or 20 seconds

175
Q

excessive cabin alt aural alert is ________

A

A siren

sounds at 10000´cab alt

176
Q

EICAS GEAR NOT DOWN is showed when

A
  • Flight mode
  • Gear not down and locked
  • RA less than 800ø with thrust levers idle
  • Flaps landing
177
Q

Wind shear alert becomes active at __________ and ends at __________

A

Rotation and ends at 1500´

178
Q

Predictive windshear alert becomes active __________ and ends at __________

A

During take off and ends at 1200´

(2300´in flight descending)

179
Q

The GPWS warning system is active between ________ and __________

A

10´- 2450´

180
Q

Fire detection and protection is provided for

A
  • Engine
  • APU
  • Cargo

(DC powered)

181
Q

Fire detection only is provided for for

A

-Wheel well

(AC powered)

182
Q

Pulling a fire handle seperates

A
  • Fuel spar valve
  • Bleed air SOV
  • Trips generator field
  • Disconnects hydraulic
  • Arms squibs
  • Silences aural warning
183
Q

Main gear fire detection consists of

A

single loot detection system

184
Q

There are _________ engine fire extinguisher bottles.

A

Two

Either or both bottles can be
discharged into either engine.

185
Q

There are ________ APU fire extinguisher bottles

A

Two

186
Q

When the APU fire switch is pulled
out, the APU

A
  • fuel is shut off
  • bleed air valve is closed
  • generator is tripped off
  • fire extinguisher bottles are armed
187
Q

Cargo compartment fire protection consists of these systems:

A
  • cargo compartment smoke detection
  • cargo compartment fire warning
188
Q

Lower cargo compartment has ______ bottles and ensures _______ min of firesupression

A

Three bottles and ensures 195 minuts of supression.

Note: Type specific differences between CBT and actual models

189
Q

Lower cargo fire supression sequence

A
  • First bottle immeadiatly discharged
  • Remaining bottles will graduatly flow in to the cargo compartment

If landing happens within 30 minuts, all bottles will discharge

190
Q

Cargo ARM switch does

A
  • Detecto blowers turn off
  • Cargo heat valve closes
  • Recirculation fans reconfigure
  • Arms firebottle squibs
191
Q

767-300 Main fuel tank capacity

A

18.200 kgs

192
Q

767-300 center tank capacity

A

36.400 kgs

193
Q

Number of fuel pumps

A

6 x AC fuel pumps
1 x DC in L main tank (APU)

194
Q

A single pump can supply
sufficient fuel to operate one engine under all conditions. (True / false)

A

True

195
Q

Center pumps are override pumps and are inhibited ____________

A

50% N2

196
Q

Fuel config light comes on under the following conditions

A
  • Main tank quantity is below 1000kgs
  • 900 imballance
    useable fuel in the center tank with pumps off
197
Q

Fuel tempetaur is measured _________ (where)

A

in the left tank

198
Q

The 767-300 has ______ EICAS computer(s)

A

Two

AUTO: Left EICAS in in control

199
Q

The engine EEN controls the Hydromechanical Unit by __________ to prevent __________

A

Trimming fuel to prevent overspeed

200
Q

EEC NORM: The EEC uses _________ to calculate _________

A

Thrustlever angle calculate appropriate N1

201
Q

EEC Alternate mode means

A

Direct thrustlever connection with NO overspeed protection

202
Q

In case of EEC and TMC fail, the _________ window _________

A

N1 window blanks

203
Q

Engine igniters are powered from

A

Right main AC bus

204
Q

Fuel on bug shows

A

minimum N2 RPM for fuel on. (15 RPM)

205
Q

Starter cuts out at ______

A

50% N2

(If starter dosent close by 52% N2- take action)

206
Q

CLB 1 & CLB 2 washout starts at approximately ___________

A

10000´

207
Q

CLB 1 derates ______% and CLB 2 derates ______%

A

10% - 20%

note: Type specific differences

208
Q

The APU has ______ AC Generator

A

one

Frequency governed by APU rpm

209
Q

APU has fire detection AND protection. (True / false)

A

True

210
Q

APU inlet door not fully open will cause APU shut down (True / false)

A

True

211
Q

APU Fire protection panel is located (where)

A

Back side of nose gear strut

212
Q

Max altitude for APU bleed supply

A

17000´

213
Q

Max altitude for APU electric supply

A

43100´

214
Q

APU needs both batteries for start. (True / false)

A

True

215
Q

Apu shut down cycle is ________

A

120 seconds

216
Q

Pitot, static ports, AOA & TAT are heated when _________

A

one engine is operating

217
Q

Wing anti ice includes _______ outboard slaps

A

three

218
Q

One window heat INOP light means

A

Window heat fault

219
Q

Both window heat INOP light means (in flight)

A

Winder heat overheat

220
Q

Engine anti ince must be used when TAT is between _______ and ________

A

+10 degrees and - 40 degrees

221
Q

Traffic advisory is ________ sec and _______ feet

A

45-25 seconds and 1200´

222
Q

Resolution advisory is ________ sec and _______ feet

A

30-20 sec and 900´

223
Q

TCAS detection range is _________ NM and _________ feet

A

30-40 NM and 9900´

Maersk Air Cargo (9 decks)

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