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B747400 > B747skv > Flashcards

B747skv Flashcards

1
Q
A
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2
Q
A
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3
Q

What turns on emergency lighting systems

A

Loss of power to DC bus 4

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4
Q

Fully charge emergency lighting battery should be provide light for how long

A

15 minutes

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5
Q

What is the wingspan of the beast 747 400

A

21 1’5”

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6
Q

When are the landing lights at their main max intensity

A

Lenny gear down

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7
Q

What is the purpose of the flight deck

A

To gain access to the flight deck with ground handling bus powered

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8
Q

When do the no smoking and fasten seatbelt signs automatically eliminate regardless of switch

A

When supernumerary oxygen is ar when supernumerary oxygen is on

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9
Q

What is the advantage of selecting LWR on the beacon light switch

A

Won’t flash during low visibility

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10
Q

What is the turning radius with the body gear steering arm

A

153 feet

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11
Q

Where is the emergency equipment located for the BC where is the emergency equipment located for the BCF’S

A

Bulkhead just four of left upper deck door

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12
Q

Escape rope at door L one is located where

A

In the Upper door sill

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13
Q

Bleed air is used in what system

A

Air conditioning pressurization wing and engine anti-ice engine start leading edge flaps aft cargo heat cargo smoke detection hydraulic reservoir pressurization portable water tank pressurization air driven hydraulic demand pumps thrust reverser’s

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14
Q

Can the APU provide bleed air in-flight up to what altitude

A

Yes for one pack up to 15,000 feet

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15
Q

Turning an engine bleed air switch off does white

A

Engine bleed air valve PRV an HP bleed valve close Engine bleed air valve PRV anHP bleed valve closed,PRV opens when they sell any ice on unless PRV close by prior or present bleeder overhead heat or start valve not closed or HP bleed valve filled open HP bleed valve and PRV open for thrust reverser unless PRV closed by prior or present bleed air overheat or start valve not close

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16
Q

If the switch is off is an AC anti-icing available for the engine

A

Yes provide there is not a fault present

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17
Q

What will illuminate the system fault light

A

Bleed air overheat or bleed air over pressure or HP bleed valve open when commanded closed or PRV open when commanded closed

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18
Q

With the Light system fault illuminated reversing available on landing

A

Not if light is on due to an overhan not if light is on due to an overheat

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19
Q

What unit in the bleeder system reduces bleed air temperature

A

Fan air precooler

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20
Q

With an L duct overheat what systems are no longer available

A

Wing anti-ice demand pump hydraulic reservoir pressure pack LED will be in secondary

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21
Q

Where is the duck pressure displayed

A

Primary eicas,ECS synoptic page

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22
Q

What areas receive anti-ice protection

A

Engine nacelle wing ,pro heat and windshield.

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23
Q

Under what weather conditions is NAC anti-ice required to be on

A

When the OA tea on the ground and for takeoff for the tea a tea in-flight is 10° C or below and visible moisture is present
Such as clouds fog with visibility of 1 mile or less rain snow sleet and ice crystal such as clouds fog with visibility of 1 mile or less rain snow sleet and ice crystals
On ramps taxiways runways were surfer snow a standing water or slush may be ingested by those engines or freeze on engines the cells or engine sensor probes

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24
Q

Are the TAT probes heated

A

Yes in-flight only

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25
Q

What indications do we have that NAC anti-ice is o what indications do we have that NAC anti-ice is on?wing?

A

NAI/WAI icon displayed on primary ICAS & ECS page

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26
Q

What section of the wing is antichris what section of the wing is anticed

A

Leading edge with leading edge flaps retracted

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27
Q

At flaps five what portion of the leading edge is being deiced with WAI on

A

None

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28
Q

Which windows are provided anti-ice and anti-fog in protection

A

The four windows have exterior surface anti-icing and interior surface anti-fogging protection the side windows have interior surface anti-fogging protection only

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29
Q

When is anti-fogging available to the windows

A

Air for anti-fogging is drawn from the flight deck conditioned air supply and directed across the windshield windshield air switches on the captain and first officer’s auxiliary panels turn on anti-foggy near to the related windshields and any time the aircraft is powered

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30
Q

How do we reset a windshield heat controller fault

A

Turn the wind the heat switch is off for 10 seconds then back on

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31
Q

Where is the windshield washer fluid reservoir located

A

The washer fluid reservoir is located behind the door in the book storage area on the captains iPa The washer fluid reservoir is located behind the door in the book storage area on the captains side panel.

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32
Q

What is the purpose of the OBS audio system switch on the overhead panel

A

Connects OBS ACP to either Captains OrFO’s.

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33
Q

When illuminated what does the offsite tuning light indicate

A

The radio to the panel is being used to tune a radio not normally associated with this radio tuning pane The radio tuning panel is being used to tune a radio not normally associated with this radio tuning panel
The radio normally associated with this panel is being tuned by another radio tuning panel
l

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34
Q

How many VHF radios are installed

A

Three

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35
Q

With 121 decimal five selected in the RV HF Ken the receiver volume control for that radio be turned off

A

No

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36
Q

How can you monitor for an IM signal during a cat II approach

A

On a CP select MKR and push volume knob

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37
Q

How can we tune data into the CDH how can we tune data into the C VHF?

A

Dial pass 136 decimal 000 and select transfer switch or below 118 decimal 000

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38
Q

How is the oxygen mask microphone operation verified during preflight

A

Slut FLT on the ECP speaker on select push to test on O2 panel along with EMER knob simultaneously push enter phone switch on a C slut FLT on the ECP speaker on select push to test on O2 panel along with EMER knob simultaneously push enter phone switch on ACPP

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39
Q

What should be seen when pushing the cockpit voice recorder test button

A

Push test switch and observe pulsating indications on meter

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40
Q

How PTT switches are in the cockpit

A

Thre three. 7 or 8 depends e

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41
Q

Selecting a SERV interphone switch to on those what

A

Provides voice calm between ground crew stations at various locations around the plane

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42
Q

What does I DG stand for

A

Integrated drive generator

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43
Q

How many AC power sources are available to the AC

A

8

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44
Q

What turns on and IDG drive light

A

Hi oil temp low oil pressure uncorrectable frequency fault

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45
Q

What is the purpose of the utility buses

A

Each utility bus is controlled by electrical control unit and protects the electrical system from utility bus fault and provides load management throughout automatic load shedding

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46
Q

What buses are powered with number one and number two external power available but not on

A

Ground handling and main deck cargo handling

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47
Q

What bus normally powers the service bus is there an alternate means to power the bus

A

AC bus one is normal source and ground handling is alternate source Via switch at door one L

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48
Q

The APU and Main standby buses are normally powered from which buses

A

AC bus three is normal source APU mean hot battery bus Via inverters APU captains transfer bus then if loss of one and three

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49
Q

With the loss of number three AC bus the APU stand by bus is powered from which source

A

AC bus one captains transfer bus AC bus one captains transfer bus
APU hot battery bust through inverter this is only one AC bus one is not powered

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50
Q

How can I isolate the number for DCIR

A

Deselect number 4 buss tie switch

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51
Q

What will power the cargo bus with number2external avail and number 2 apu generator available

A

Number 2 external power

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52
Q

What is the minimum oil quantity for dispatch

A

16 quarts

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53
Q

If the EGT limit is exceeded what is indicated on takeoff

A

Inhibited from changing color to Amber during takeoff or go around for five minutes after the takeoff go around switch is pushed even though EGT reaches the continuous limit takeoff limit displayed by a red line the indication changes color to red if EGT reaches the takeoff limit

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54
Q

The amber line on the end one indicator represents what? As generated by the EEC this is the max

A

Max and one E EC over boost protection allowable thrust available

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55
Q

What valves are controlled by the fuel control switch

A

Spar an engine fuel valve

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56
Q

When will standby ignition turn on if the switch is in Noorman

A

Loss of AC power

57
Q

When will continues ignition come on automatically

A

NAI Selected o selected on
Flaps out of up specifically trailing edge flaps
N2 below 50%

58
Q

What protection are provided by the EEC

A

Overspeed overboost

59
Q

What Is active in approach idol

A

NAI on
Flaps in landing position
Continuous ignition on

60
Q

With the APU running Turning off the APU selector does What

A

Closes APU bleed air valve
Initiates normal shut down with 60 second cool down.
Reset auto shut down fault logic except when shutdown due to APU bleed duct leak

61
Q

What are the five thrust reference selectable from CDU

A

To
CLB
CRZ
CON
GA

62
Q

How many fire bottles are on the BCF

A

11

63
Q

After a fire test passes but two systems are no longer being monitored by the AC

A

Lee Duct and wheel well

64
Q

With the engine fuel switch and run in the fire switch be polled

A

Yes if there’s a fire or the manual release of the engine fire switch

65
Q

Pulling the number one engine fire switch does what

A

Trips Jenn field closest Jenn and spar fuel valve closes bleed air valve closes hydraulic SOV depressurizes hydraulic pump arms squid

66
Q

With a main cargo fire arm in the main deck fire switch does white

A

Enables main deck fire for suppression turns off two packs other pack reduced to 600 CFM to flight deck configures equipment going to close the loop and turns off all airflow to Main deck and airflow and heat into the lower cargo compartment closest master trim air valve

67
Q

With a lower Ford cargo fire pressing the cargo fire discharge switch does white how many minutes of protection is provided

A

Discharges two bottles then after 30 minutes or upon landing meters flow from the other four bottles total 334 minutes of protection and a ERF it’s 180

68
Q

Are the engine fire loops in or are they or logic system

A

Engines and because both loops must detect unless single loop a few or because either Lou passed the set off alarm

69
Q

What fire protection do we have in the wheel well

A

None

70
Q

How many overheat loops are installed in the APU

A

None

71
Q

Where is the APU ground control panel located

A

Right body gear wheel well

72
Q

The stabilizer is powered from what hydraulic systems

A

Two and three

73
Q

What is the auto position of the stab trim cut out switch for

A

Allows auto cut out of respective system if unscheduled stab trim is detected

74
Q

When are the stab trim switch is on the control wheel inhibited

A

Multiple auto pilots engaged

75
Q

When do the outboard Elronds unlock

A

235 Kts

76
Q

With the speed breaking arm when do the speed breaks deploy on landing not arme with the speed breaking arm when do the speed breaks deploy on landing not armed.?d

A

Thrust lever one and three closed main gear touchdown with speed brakes not armed thrust lever one and three closed main gear touchdown . with speed brakes not armed
Thrust levers one and three closed main gear touchdown two or four reverse lever pull to reverse idle

77
Q

What flat protection is provided in secondary mode

A

Asymmetry only

78
Q

What will occur if trailing edge flap group is in secondary mode with hydraulic pressure available

A

If trailing edge flap group is driven in secondary mode with hydraulic pressure available the group remains in secondary mode until fully retracte if trailing edge flap group is driven in secondary mode with hydraulic pressure available the group remains in secondary mode until fully retracted

79
Q

In the alternate control mode how is flap extension sequence

A

Extended all at the same time
Retract trailing first then leading edgee

80
Q

What is the maximum altitude for flap extension

A

Fl200

81
Q

When is the pitch limit indicator displayed on the PFD and what is its purpose

A

Slaps out of up and is stick shaker activation point

82
Q

What is the input sources for the commanded speed display on the PFD

A
83
Q

What identifies active waypoint on the ND

A

Magenta star

84
Q

The altitude range arc green arc displays what information

A

Indicates where the MCP altitude will be reached based on vertical in ground speed

85
Q

The WXR, STA, WPT, ARPT, DATA, POS, TERR switch is on the EFIS control panel display what information would push

A

WXR- Powers radar transceivers selected on WX radar control panel
STA- Displays high and low VOR’s win in the range is in 40 NM or less and displays hi VOR when Andy range is 80, 160, 320, 640 nautical miles.
WPT- In M a P and MAP CTR modes Displays waypoints when in the range is selector is 40 nautical miles or less displays waypoints when in the range is selector is 40 nautical miles or less.
ARPT- In MAPNMAPCTR modes Displays airports in all ranges that have runways 7500 feet or longer.
DATA- INPLAN, MAP, and MAP CTR modes displays FMC ETA altitude at each waypoint and altitude constraints at each waypoint.
POS- In M a P space and, MAPCTR modes displays VOR space raw data radials extended from nose of the airplane to the VOR stations displayed on CDU NAVE RAD space PAGE. When Cole located DME data received checkmark displayed at DME distance. Radios extend to edge of display if no valid DME data receive displays IRU space and GPS positions E distance. Radios extend to edge of display if no valid DME data receive displays IRU space and GPS positions.
TERR-Displays the train information on the ND.

86
Q

If the captains I NBD space and LWR TICAS CRT is in operative, how and where could the HYD space synoptic information be displayed

A

NFO, SND by selecting EICAS space on I NBD CRT knob

87
Q

What indie mode will the weather radar not be displayed

A

PLAN, VOR space CTR, APPR CTR

88
Q

What indicates a route modification on the ND

A

White dashed line

89
Q

The standby horizon is powered from What source

A

Main battery bus

90
Q

When will the G/S space and space LOC indicators/scales display and when they fill to a solid magenta.

A

Both indicators display when frequency is turned and fills in solid win within 2 1/3 dots from the center both indicators display when frequency is turned and fills in solid win within 2 1/3 dots from the center.

91
Q

What is the maximum amount of fuel we can carry in pounds with a field density of 6.7 pounds per gallon

A

359,414

92
Q

With the AC completely full of fuel, discuss the difference field configurations beginning with engine start through landing.

A

All boost pump switches are on center one tank feeds all engines.
When flaps reached 10° crossfeed valves two and three close.
Over a jet pumps two and three are armed.
CWT pumps are providing fuel to engines one and four, and main tank pumps are providing fuel to engines two and three respectfully.
After takeoff when flops are up crossfeed valves two and three are commanded open.
The CWT pumps provide fuel to all engines.
Incline you feel low center L/our message is displayed, tank quantity is approximately 7000 pounds CWT pumps selected off.
In cruise when fuel OVD CTR space L/R is displayed and take quantity is 4000, or more, CWT space pumps should be selected back on.
With a proximately 40, 200 pounds in Maine tanks two and three, the reserve tank transfervalves Open and feel gravity transfers to maintains two and three.
When fuel low CTR is displayed and CWT space is less than 3000 pounds pumps should be selected off fuel scavenge pump activates in the CWT space and scavengers fuel to maintain two.
Override jet pumps two and three activate when CWT pumps are selected off. Override jet pumps to provide fuel to engines one and two and override jet pump three provides fuel to engines three and four when all tanks are in equal

Override jet pumps two and three activate when CWT pumps are selected off. Override jet pumps to provide fuel to engines one and two and override jet pump three provides fuel to engines three and four.
When all things are equal in quantity approximately 29000 pounds fuel tank/engine is displayed override/jet pumps should be selected off and crossfeed valves one and for clothes. All main pumps are now feeding respective engines.

93
Q

How do we and what happens when we jettison fuel.

A

Jettison is initiated by rotating jettison selector knob a or B. When a or B is selected feel temperature is replaced to feel remain.
If failure occurs in one channel you must like the other channel.
Jettison time to dump is displayed on fuel synoptic.
Low 90 seconds for system to calculate dump time.
Rotating feel knob decreases or increases quantity.
Pushing either jettison valve switch on activates all over I just pumped in the tanksContaining fuel pump switches must be on.
Jellison control system controls feel bouncing between tanks two and three
If balancing is required or a jet pumps in low tank deactivate until tanks for balance.
Reserve transfer valves open and maintains two or three quantity is decreased to 40,000 pounds field transfers from reserve tanks two and three to respective main tanks.
When either maintain two or three quantity decreases to 20,000 pounds during jettison both maintains one and four transfer valves open Jason terminates Winfield to remain has been reached fuel to remain quantity changes color magenta to white and flashes for five seconds Jellison control system deactivate all operating pumps.

94
Q

What is the difference between total fill in calculated fuel when are the values different

A

Total fuel is the fuel on board as indicated by the fuel quantity system.
Calculated field prior to engine start displays fuel quantity calculated by fuel quantity processor after engine start it displays feel quite a calculated by decreasing fuel on board at engine start at E I see a S space fuel flow signal rate.
Fuel leak.

95
Q

Pride engine start with usable fill in the CWT, after fuel pump configuration are the two and 3/8 pumps on or arms

A

If CWT pumps are on only override two and three can arm

96
Q

What is the purpose of the one and four transfer valve

A

Valve opens and gravity transfers from outboard to inboard main tank at approximately 7000 pounds remaining in each outboard main tank.
During jettison valves open when either maintain two or three field decreases to 20,000 pounds.
Valves may be open manually using the fuel transfer main one and four switch on overhead panel.

97
Q

Do the flow bar disappear in the crossfeed two and three valve switches when the flaps are selected to the takeoff position

A

No

98
Q

After position in the field Jefferson select or two a or B where does the fuel jettison Dave display

A

Replace fuel temp on primary Eicas

99
Q

Once activated how long will the scavenge pump operate

A

120 minutes or until CTR tank low pressure sense

100
Q

What three things will illuminate the system fault light

A

Low system pressure and quantity.
Excessive temp

101
Q

What will turn on the number 4 demand pump if the switch is an auto

A

Fuel control switch selected off
Low EDP pressure.
Flops in transit on ground or out of up in flight one and 4 only

102
Q

On descent into KLAX, the number for hydraulic quantity goes to zero. What systems will be effective for the approach and landing?

A

Outboard TE flaps.
Normal brakes.
Wing gear actuation.
Spoilers 567 and eight. Next line right outboard elevator and auto brakes

103
Q

With the loss of number one hydraulic quantity what systems will be affected for the approach and landing

A

Inboard TE space flops.
Nose/body gear actuation.
Nose/gear body steering
Center auto pilot.
Left outboard elevator and alternate brake source

104
Q

With the loss of systems two and three why is there a speed additive for the approach

A

For stab trim loss per QRH also Lose elevator feel auto pilots two and three, eight spoilers, alternate number to break source

105
Q

On landing the brakes or slight illuminates what does this mean

A

Loss of normal and alternate brake hydraulic systems 4,1 and 2

106
Q

The demand pumps are powered how.

A

1and 4 are pneumatic
2 and 3 are Electric

107
Q

The aux pumps are powered from witch power source.

A

Ground handling bus

108
Q

With the number for ox pump on and providing pressure, will the hydraulic system fault light be off or on?

A

Off

109
Q

What is the minimum hydraulic quantity for dispatch where do you read the value

A

.80 on the stat page

110
Q

How many tires do we have and what are their numerical order

A

18

111
Q

Selecting value three on the other breaks select or does Watson? From which source does the auto brake system receive the acceleration inputs?

A

Maintains the selected airplane deacceleration rate selected by the captains IRU.
Auto brake pressure is reduce as the other controls, such as thrust reverser’s and spoilers, contribute to the total deacceleration the system provides breaking to a complete stop or until it is disarmed

112
Q

What does the EICAS message dear tilt mean

A

Maingear trucks not in full tilt position

113
Q

How do we alternately extend the gear , where are the switch is located

A

Selection of alternate nose/body and wing gear switch is located on the landing gear panel

114
Q

Do you have a wheel well fire, what speed do you be at before extending the gear

A

270/.82

115
Q

On takeoff roll when does RTO arm what kind of breaking his provided

A

85kts
Max braking

116
Q

What does a white hashed box displayed on the expanded gear position indicator indicate

A

gear in transit

117
Q

How long does the gear up in the case remain on the EICAS

A

10 sec

118
Q

At what speed does the body gear steering disarm

A

> 20kts

119
Q

What does the brake torque limiting system do

A

Sensors detect excessive torque during breaking to prevent damage to the landing gear. When excessive torque is detected, a signal is sent to the anti-skid valve to release brake pressure to that wheel.

120
Q

What are the three levels of EICAS alerting

A

Warning caution and advisory

121
Q

Can a warning E I see a S message be canceled

A

No And nor can a memo message be canceled

122
Q

When are the fire bell in master warning light inhibited

A

The one space till 400 feet are a space or 25 seconds after V1

123
Q

What items will activate take off configuration warning

A

And one at 70% and on ground, all cut off switches to run both E1 and thrust lever two and three in takeoff range.
Parking brake set, body gear steering not centered, stab trim not in green band, flops not to take off position, speedbrake not stowed.

124
Q

When is the wind shear alert system active

A

Vr -1500ft

125
Q

What phase of flight when you get a GPWS sink rape warning

A

L2 loss with flaps and or gear up after takeoff or go round

126
Q

What is the purpose of the event record switch how many events can be recorded

A

Pushing Meeeeeeee I see a S event RCD switch records currently displayed engine indications and additional EICAS maintenance information. Up to five events may be recorded by the first five pushes. The system also records out of limit parameters and related conditions automatically win system primer is exceeded.

127
Q

What is the status message

A

Indicates equipment faults/requiring Emile references/for dispatch

128
Q

What does the TCAS space alert space traffic, traffic mean

A

ETA is a prediction another craft or enter the conflict space and 25 to 45 seconds Teays assist a flight crew establishing visual contact with the other

129
Q

What switch turn on TCAS advisors on the ND

A

TFC space button on the EFIS control panel.

130
Q

What is the wind speed loud when operating the main cargo door

A

When opening max wind is 40 and open 65

131
Q

What is the max zero feel weight of the BC F

A

610,000

132
Q

What is the max tailwind for takeoff and landing

A

15kts

133
Q

Max takeoff crosswind component for a dry runway. And landing

A

40/36kts

134
Q

Max depth of slush for Landing

A

.5

135
Q

What is max landing weight ERF

A

653,000

136
Q

What is the minimum crew oxygen dispatch pressure

A

1400psi

137
Q

What is the minimum TCH

A

40ft

138
Q

Max N1

A

117.5

139
Q

Max eng start EGT

A

750

B747400 (6 decks)

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