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B737 K&S > B737 Classic Aircraft > Flashcards

B737 Classic Aircraft Flashcards

1
Q

What is the maximum North latitude for 737 operations due to the restrictions of the IRS?

A

73 degrees North

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2
Q

Where are the Cargo Compartment doors, and are both compartments pressurized when in flight?

A

Doors are on the right side; yes both compartments are pressurized

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3
Q

Which of the primary flight controls will operate through manual reversion?

A

ailerons and elevators

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4
Q

True/False: the wingspan is the same for the -300, 400 and 500 aircraft.

A

True, 94’ 9”

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5
Q

What is the overall length of the B737-300; -400?

A
  • 300= 105’ 7”

- 400= 115’ 7”

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6
Q

Which of the blow out panels on the cockpit door can be removed for emergency exit?

A

Top two

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7
Q

Where are the external light switches and engine start switches located?

A

Forward overhead panel

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8
Q

How many overwing exit doors are installed on each side of the 737-500?

A

One

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9
Q

Where is the galley power switch?

A

Cockpit overhead panel

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10
Q

Where are the cargo door lights?

A

on the overhead panel

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11
Q

The cargo doors are manually operated and can be opened from ____.

A

inside or outside the compartment

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12
Q

What is used to pressurize the potable water tank?

A

bleed air pressure from the APU or left engine

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13
Q

How are the toilets flushed?

A

An electric flushing motor recirculates blue water for 10 seconds

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14
Q

When using the interior Standby Stair Control switch, the battery switch ___.

A

must be ON

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15
Q

When using the exterior Standby Stair Control switch, the battery switch ___.

A

can be ON or OFF

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16
Q

To disarm the slide, move the girt bar from the ___ clips to the ___ clips.

A

floor; door

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17
Q

Which passenger information sign (switch in auto) illuminates if either the landing gear or the flaps are extended?

A

fasten seat belts

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18
Q

Which lights automatically illuminate when external power is connected to an otherwise cold aircraft?

A

entry and lavatory

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19
Q

Where is the light control switch for the cockpit dome lights?

A

aft overhead panel

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20
Q

Where is the test switch for the majority of the cockpit annunciators and indicating lights?

A

center instrument panel

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21
Q

Is there an airspeed limitation for the extension of the outboard wing landing lights?

A

no

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22
Q

Does the nosegear taxi light turn with the nosegear steering?

A

yes

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23
Q

How many switches are installed to control the emergency lights?

A

two

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24
Q

With the cockpit emergency lights switch OFF, will the batteries continue to charge?

A

yes

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25
Q

True/False: Pressing either Master Caution light will reset both Master Caution Lights, the System Annunciator Light, and the System Caution light on the associated System Control Panel.

A

false

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26
Q

The fire bell can be cancelled by pressing either master FIRE WARN light or by ___.

A

Pressing the bell cut out switch on the fire control panel

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27
Q

Which mask lever, when squeezed applies oxygen flow to inflate the harness?

A

right

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28
Q

Can the oxygen system be tested without removal of the mask from the stowage box?

A

yes

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29
Q

At what cab altitude should the PSU (passenger service unit) doors automatically open?

A

14,000 feet

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30
Q

How does the flight crew confirm that the PSU door solenoids have been powered?

A

PASS OXY ON light illuminates on the aft overhead panel

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31
Q

How long does the oxygen generating canister provide oxygen to a passenger?

A

12 minutes

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32
Q

What action activates an oxygen generating canister?

A

pulling a mask to pull the lanyard

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33
Q

What is the purpose of the PTU (power transfer unit)?

A

Provides backup pressure to the LE devices and autoslats when the B system engine pump output is low

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34
Q

What is the normal pressure for systems A and B?

A

3,000 psi

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35
Q

Which hydraulic system reservoir is larger?

A

B system

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36
Q

How is head pressure and fluid quantity maintained on the standby system reservoir?

A

by an interconnecting balance line from the B reservoir

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37
Q

The A hydraulic system’s electric motor pump is powered by generator bus ___.

A

2

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38
Q

With a leak in the lines associated with the output of the A systems engine driven hydraulic pump how much reservoir fluid is retained?

A

approximately 1/4 of the total quantity

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39
Q

With a leak in the lines associated with the output of the A systems electric motor driven hydraulic pump, how much reservoir fluid is retained?

A

zero

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40
Q

The B hydraulic system’s electric motor pump is powered by generator bus ___.

A

1

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41
Q

If a leak occurs in the hydraulic lines associated with the B hydraulic system’s electric motor pump, the B reservoir will drain so the engine pump and electric motor pump will not operate. However, enough fluid remains to operate the ___.

A

PTU (power transfer unit)

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42
Q

If the fire switch is pulled, the engine pump LOW PRESSURE light is ___.

A

inhibited from illuminating

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43
Q

What method will activate the standby hydraulic system?

A

moving the FLT CONTROL A switch to STBY RUD

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44
Q

What method will activate the standby hydraulic system and shutoff the hydraulic operation of the trailing edge flaps?

A

moving the ALT FLAPS switch to ARM

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45
Q

Automatic activation of the standby hydraulic system occurs when the A or B system fails inflight with the ___.

A

flaps extended

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46
Q

Automatic activation of the standby hydraulic system occurs when the A or B system fails on the ground with the flaps extended and the ___.

A

wheel speed is higher than 60 knots

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47
Q

The PTU only activates inflight. What is the configuration that allows the PTU to activate?

A

flaps extended to less than 10- but not up

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48
Q

Which of the primary flight controls will operate with loss of all hydraulic pressure through manual reversion?

A

ailerons and elevators

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49
Q

The flight spoilers will operate through aileron/spoiler mixing when the cockpit control wheels are rotated more than ___.

A

10 degrees

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50
Q

Concerning the ailerons and spoilers: With a loss of the ___, only the outboard spoilers are rendered inoperative.

A

B hydraulic system

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51
Q

The ailerons operate normally if the ___ control wheel is jammed.

A

first officer’s

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52
Q

Pressure from which hydraulic system is used by the elevator feel system?

A

whichever system produces higher pressure

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53
Q

With a single elevator PCU failure, or a single hydraulic system failure- does the elevator continue to operate by use of a hydraulically powered PCU, or does elevator control revert to manual?

A

hydraulic PCU operation remains available

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54
Q

What is the maximum airspeed if the MACH TRIM system is inoperative?

A

0.74 Mach

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55
Q

With a loss of A system pressure and the A flight control switch in the STBY RUD position, the A system LOW PRESSURE light should be ___.

A

extinguished

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56
Q

Holding the spring loaded Rudder Trim knob in either direction ___ repositions the neutral point of the rudder and rudder pedals.

A

electrically

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57
Q

If the ___ hydraulic system fails, the Yaw Damper cannot operate.

A

B

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58
Q

The RPR normally reduces the System A rudder pressure after takeoff when climbing through ___.

A

1000 feet

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59
Q

True/False: The reduced rudder travel caused by the RPR after takeoff will also cause a reduction in rudder pedal travel.

A

true

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60
Q

What is the (approximate) maximum amount of rudder travel that can be commanded by the Yaw Damper?

A

2 degrees from neutral

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61
Q

The SPEEDBRAKE DO NOT ARM light is illuminated. Can the Speedbrakes be deployed manually after landing?

A

Yes

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62
Q

If the Speedbrake Lever is inadvertently moved to the UP position when the aircraft is inflight ___.

A

The Flight Spoilers will move to the full up (ground) position

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63
Q

The trailing edge flaps are normally operated by the ___ hydraulic system.

A

B

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64
Q

When using the Alternate Flaps switch- can the trailing edge flaps be extended and retracted?

A

yes

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65
Q

The leading edge slats can be ___ by use of the alternate flaps position switch.

A

extended, but not retracted

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66
Q

Which hydraulic system normally provides the operating pressure for the leading edge flaps and slats?

A

B

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67
Q

Which trim method provides the largest range of trim?

A

Manual

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68
Q

If the stabilizer has been manually trimmed passed the range of the Main Electric Trim, can the Main Electric Trim be used to trim back within range?

A

yes

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69
Q

The SPEED TRIM will operate with the autopilot ___.

A

disengaged

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70
Q

How many positions are available for the landing gear lever?

A

three

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71
Q

Where are the controls for the anti-skid and the autobrake system?

A

to the left of the landing gear lever

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72
Q

Are the outboard main gear wheels exposed when the gear are retracted?

A

yes

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73
Q

Are lights installed in the cockpit that monitor the position of the main gear doors?

A

no

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74
Q

What stops the wheel rotation when the nose gear retracts?

A

snubbers

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75
Q

Is hydraulic pressure required to keep the nose gear in the retract position?

A

no

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76
Q

Gear retraction is normally provided by the ___ hydraulic system.

A

A

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77
Q

Which hydraulic system provides pressure to retract the landing gear if the #1 engine N2 RPM is less than 56%?

A

B

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78
Q

What is the normal position for the landing gear lever during cruise flight?

A

OFF

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79
Q

Air/ground sensors are connected to which landing gear struts?

A

nose gear right main

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80
Q

What is indicated by an illuminated red landing gear position indicating light?

A

Red light comes on when there is a disagreement between gear handle position and actual gear position.

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81
Q

With all gear up, the #1 throttle at idle, the #2 throttle more than 30 degrees forward, and flaps set at 15, can the gear warning horn be silenced by pressing the cutout button?

A

yes

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82
Q

When performing a manual gear extension, the landing gear lever must be placed in the ___ position.

A

OFF

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83
Q

Nose gear steering normally receives hydraulic pressure from the ___ hydraulic system.

A

A

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84
Q

When the aircraft is towed, the ___ system must be depressurized or the steering lockout pin must be installed.

A

A

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85
Q

Which brake system provides touchdown locked wheel protection through the anti-skid system?

A

normal brakes

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86
Q

Alternate brakes operate automatically if the A system is pressurized and the ___ has failed.

A

B system

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87
Q

The parking brake ON light is powered by ___.

A

battery

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88
Q

What provides the brake pressure when the parking brakes are set on a parked aircraft?

A

accumulator pressure

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89
Q

To arm an autobrake landing mode, the aircraft must be ___, and the anti-skid must be ON.

A

inflight

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90
Q

What action activates the RTO autobrake mode during takeoff?

A

Moving the throttles toward idle.

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91
Q

Which relay actually connects the generator to the generator bus?

A

generator breaker

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92
Q

Lights are installed to monitor the CSD ___.

A

oil pressure and oil temperature

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93
Q

Which position of the CSD drive temp switch is used to display the differential temperature of the oil that enters and departs the CSD?

A

Rise

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94
Q

Does AC power from the engine generators automatically apply to the generator buses when the power is of good quality?

A

No, it must be selected ON

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95
Q

With ground electrical power connected to the aircraft, movement of the GRD PWR switch to ON will ___.

A

Apply ground power to both Left and Right AC electrical systems.

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96
Q

Inflight, with the BUS TRANSFER switch in AUTO, a failure of the #1 engine generator will result in a complete transfer of power from the #2 generator to the #1 AC electrical system.

A

No, the generator bus of the inoperative generator will not be powered.

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97
Q

The TR3 disconnect relay is normally closed. It will open when glideslope capture occurs on a flight director or autopilot ILS approach or when ___.

A

The bus transfer switch is selected to OFF.

98
Q

With normal power on the aircraft, what powers the hot battery bus?

A

battery charger

99
Q

The voltmeter will normally display ___ when selected to any TR position.

A

28 volts

100
Q

Which scale of the AC voltmeter is used by pilots?

A

outer

101
Q

How many AC powered fuel pumps are installed for each tank?

A

2

102
Q

Can tank #2 provide fuel to the APU?

A

Yes, if the fuel crossfeed valve is open

103
Q

Can fuel be transferred or dumped inflight?

A

no

104
Q

Why does center tank fuel feed before the main tank fuel?

A

Center tank check valves open at a lower differential pressure.

105
Q

True/False: With a loss of normal electrical power- fuel in the center tank is unusable.

A

True

106
Q

True/False: With the fuel crossfeed open- the APU can receive fuel from the right pump in the center tank.

A

True

107
Q

Does the fuel crossfeed valve have to be open to deliver fuel to the APU from the left pump in the center tank?

A

no

108
Q

The engine fuel shutoff valves are DC powered by the ___.

A

hot battery bus

109
Q

The engine fuel shutoff valves close when the respective start lever is in the ___ position or the respective fire switch is ___.

A

cutoff; pulled up

110
Q

When does the center tank scavenge jet pump begin to operate?

A

When both center tank pumps are turned OFF.

111
Q

How long does the center tank scavenge jet pump operate?

A

20 minutes

112
Q

What is the purpose of the fuel vent lines?

A

To allow air to replace space in the tanks as fuel is consumed, and to allow a path for fuel escape in the event of over fueling.

113
Q

The fuel crossfeed valve is powered by the ___.

A

battery bus

114
Q

If one wing tank fuel LOW PRESSURE light comes on- the FUEL annunciator and master caution lights will automatically come on.

A

only if the recall feature is used

115
Q

Total fuel weight is displayed on the ___ page of the FMS CDU.

A

PERF INIT

116
Q

The fuel temperature indicator displays the temperature of the fuel in the ___ fuel tank.

A

1

117
Q

How many fuel quantity measuring sticks are installed for each main wing tank?

A

5

118
Q

Which 737 has the type of fuel sticks that drip when they are extended for reading?

A

non-EFIS

119
Q

What is the minimum required fuel in the center tank for fuel to be loaded in the auxiliary tank?

A

10,500 pounds

120
Q

Which side of the fuel system is directly pressurized by fuel from the auxiliary tank pumps?

A

left

121
Q

Transfer of fuel from tank #1 to any other tank requires the ___ to be open..

A

fuel crossfeed valve

122
Q

Can the center tank directly be fueled with gravity refueling?

A

no

123
Q

What is the maximum APU operating altitude?

A

FL 350

124
Q

When over 17,000 feet, the APU can be used to operate one ___.

A

electrical system

125
Q

What three things will cause an automatic APU shutdown?

A

oil temperature high, oil pressure low, APU fire

126
Q

The APU can suction fuel from tank ___.

A

1

127
Q

For extended ground operations using center tank fuel to the APU, the ___ pump in the center tank should be used. This procedure does not require the fuel crossfeed to be open and does not create a fuel imbalance.

A

left

128
Q

Illumination of which light on the APU control panel will NOT cause an automatic shutdown?

A

LOW OIL QUANTITY

129
Q

What is the maximum continuous EGT limit for the APU?

A

710 C

130
Q

The APU shuts down ___ selection of the control switch to OFF.

A

immediately upon

131
Q

If the battery switch is turned OFF inflight, the APU ___ shutdown.

A

will not

132
Q

What is the minimum battery voltage for APU start?

A

23 volts DC

133
Q

The bleed air switch should be ___ before the APU start.

A

OFF

134
Q

What is the purpose of the white stripes that are painted on the engine bullet?

A

visual indication that the engine is running

135
Q

What determines the N2 operating speed?

A

The MEC (main engine control)

136
Q

The engine LOW OIL PRESSURE light illuminates at and below approximately 13 psi., which is the position of the ___ band on the oil pressure gauge.

A

red

137
Q

Is it common for the oil pressure to indicate in the yellow band during idle power descents.

A

yes

138
Q

The FUEL VALVE CLOSED light illuminates bright when ___.

A

The associated fuel valve is in transit.

139
Q

The fuel valves are powered by ___.

A

the hot battery bus

140
Q

What is indicated by the red light on the N1, N2 and EGT gauges?

A

It illuminates while the engine is operating in excess of limits.

141
Q

What is the purpose of the knob on the N1 gauge?

A

It allows the pilot to manually set the maximum reference limit.

142
Q

The PMC (power management control) INOP light will illuminate if the PMC is turned on and has failed with the engine N2 above ___.

A

46%

143
Q

The PMC does not move the throttles- it has approximately ___ authority over the throttle input to the MEC.

A

2%

144
Q

To dispatch with an inoperative PMC, ___.

A

the other PMC must be selected OFF.

145
Q

High idle operates on the engines whenever ___.

A

the air/ground logic senses the aircraft to be inflight.

146
Q

Low idle operates on the engines ___.

A

4 seconds after landing

147
Q

Which ignitor(s) are normally used for engine start?

A

alternate use of ignitors between starts

148
Q

Which ignition position provides power to both ignitors regardless of the position of the ignition switch?

A

FLT

149
Q

During engine start, the START switch should automatically move to OFF at ___.

A

46% N2

150
Q

The thrust reverser can operate if the air/ground sensor detects the aircraft to be on the ground, or if either radio altimeter senses the radio altitude to be less than ___.

A

10 feet

151
Q

If the ___ light remains illuminated for more than 12 seconds, the master caution and ENG annunciator light will illuminate.

A

REVERSER

152
Q

The engine oil pressure amber band is:

A

valid only at takeoff thrust

153
Q

The REVERSER UNLOCKED light illuminate:

A

amber to indicate that the respective thrust reverser is unlocked.

154
Q

True/False: The hydraulic QTY display on the secondary EIS panel provides hydraulic quantity as a percentage of a full reservoir.

A

True

155
Q

The EIS engine parameters are depicted with:

A

limit values as red radials, caution ranges as amber bands and normal ranges as green bands.

156
Q

Reaching or exceeding an N1 limit:

A

illuminates a red indicator light above the associated N1 indicator

157
Q

Which fire agent bottle(s) have blow out disks located on the aft right side of the aircraft?

A

APU fire agent bottle

158
Q

Which system cannot be tested until normal AC power is on the aircraft?

A

wheel well fire detection

159
Q

When an APU fire warning occurs, what happens when the horn cutout button is pressed on the APU ground control panel?

A

horn cutout occurs, and the light illuminates steady

160
Q

What five functions occur when the handle is pulled on the APU ground control panel?

A

fuel shutoff, bleed air shutoff, inlet door closes, trips the gen control relay, trips the generator breaker

161
Q

If one fire detector loop is inoperative on the #1 engine, the FAULT light comes on ___.

A

during a fault/inop test

162
Q

Pressing either master FIRE WARN switch/light or pressing the ___ will cutout the fire bell.

A

bell cutout switch

163
Q

Should the FAULT light normally illuminate during the OVHT/FIRE test?

A

no

164
Q

Should the FAULT light normally illuminate during the FAULT/INOP test?

A

yes

165
Q

Once the system is installed, can cargo be carried in a compartment if the cargo fire detection/protection system is inoperative for that compartment?

A

No, cargo cannot be carried in the affected compartment

166
Q

Can the crew manually arm the DSCH squibs to fight a cargo compartment fire?

A

Yes, by rotating the function selector

167
Q

? Click the DISCH switch cap of the discharge switch that is always pressed first…

A

yes, by rotating the function selector

168
Q

If the system detects a fire, when should the crew divert for an emergency landing?

A

Immediately

169
Q

What is the difference between discharge bottle #1 and bottle #2?

A

bottle #1 has a fast agent release, bottle #2 has a slow release

170
Q

After extending the gear to extinguish a wheel well fire, how long should the crew wait before retracting the gear?
Note: max retraction speed is 235 KIAS

A

20 minutes

171
Q

After extending the gear to extinguish a wheel well fire, if the WHEEL WELL light remains illuminated, the crew must ___.

A

land at the nearest suitable airport

172
Q

What method is preferred to deactivate the early style lavatory smoke detector?

A

pull the cannon plug

173
Q

What method is used to deactivate the late style lavatory smoke detector?

A

pull the call system C.B. for 5 seconds, then reset it…

174
Q

Which ice and rain components are electrically heated?

A

cockpit windows

175
Q

Illumination of an amber COWL ANTI-ICE light indicates ___.

A

over pressure or over temperature condition

176
Q

What happens to a COWL VALVE OPEN light during valve transition?

A

it illuminates bright

177
Q

Ignition must be selected to ___ prior to and during the operation of engine TAI (thermal anti-ice).

A

CONT

178
Q

Do not operate engine or wing TAI when the OAT (on ground)/TAT (airborne) is above ___.

A

10 degrees C/ 50 degrees F

179
Q

With the wing anti-ice switch ON inflight, what is indicated by the bright illumination of a WING VALVE OPEN light?

A

that the associated valve position disagrees with the switch position.

180
Q

Do the wing anti-ice valves require pneumatic pressure to operate, or are they operated by only AC power?

A

only electrical AC power is required to operate these valves

181
Q

Window heat must be turned ON ___ minutes before takeoff.

A

10

182
Q

The master caution lights and the ANTI-ICE annunciator light will illuminate with the illumination of ___ pitot/static heater lights.

A

any

183
Q

Are the windshield wiper motors powered by the same electrical bus?

A

no

184
Q

What normally separates the left and right sections of the pneumatic system?

A

the closed isolation valve

185
Q

The APU air is delivered to the ___ side of the pneumatic system.

A

left

186
Q

The external air is delivered to the ___ side of the pneumatic system.

A

right

187
Q

Is the engine bleed air for engine anti-ice routed through the pneumatic system?

A

no

188
Q

Do the engine bleed valves function as reverse flow check valves?

A

no

189
Q

An engine bleed valve will open if the bleed switch is ON and ___.

A

air pressure is available to the bleed valve.

190
Q

Why does the APU bleed have to be off when on the ground with engine anti-ice operating?

A

To ensure the APU bleed will not backpressure the 9th stage engine bleed.

191
Q

With the ISOL VALVE switch in AUTO- when will the isolation valve be open?

A

When either bleed switch or either pack switch is OFF.

192
Q

What is the normal position of the ISOL VALVE switch?

A

AUTO

193
Q

What is the purpose of the DUAL BLEED light?

A

To protect from a possible backpressure condition to the APU.

194
Q

The DUAL BLEED light monitors the position of ___.

A

The APU bleed valve, isolation valve, engine bleed switches.

195
Q

When the DUAL BLEED light is on, the engines must remain at ___.

A

idle power

196
Q

If excessive temperatures are detected in the pneumatic system, the BLEED TRIP OFF light comes on and ___.

A

The associated bleed valve closes.

197
Q

How can the pilot reset a bleed trip off condition?

A

Press the trip reset button.

198
Q

What causes a wing body overheat light to come on?

A

Leak in the pneumatic duct work.

199
Q

Which wing body overheat light monitors the duct work from the APU?

A

left

200
Q

How long should the APU operate after start, before the APU bleed air is used?

A

1 minute

201
Q

With the isolation valve switch in AUTO, why is the isolation valve open for engine start?

A

Because the pack switches are OFF.

202
Q

Why doesn’t the DUAL BLEED light come on for start using ground air or crossbleed start?

A

Because the APU bleed air is not used.

203
Q

For a crossbleed start, the isolation valve allows air from the operating engine to ___.

A

Operate the starter of the opposite engine.

204
Q

To receive improved cooling on the ground, the APU may be used to power the ___ pack.

A

left

205
Q

What is the normal bleed configuration for takeoff?

A

Engine bleeds ON, APU bleed OFF.

206
Q

For a bleeds off improved performance takeoff, the APU supplies air to which pack?
Note: the other pack is not used for the takeoff.

A

Left

207
Q

For a bleeds off improved performance takeoff, the ISOL VALVE switch is positioned to AUTO when?

A

After the engine bleeds are ON and the APU bleed is OFF.

208
Q

What device normally draws air from the electrical equipment bay and forward cabin, and delivers it to the mix manifold?

A

recirculation fan

209
Q

Conditioned air from a ground source is provided to ___.

A

the mix manifold

210
Q

The external compressed air is delivered to the ___ side of the pneumatic system.

A

right

211
Q

Which pack normally delivers conditioned air to the cockpit?

A

left

212
Q

With the recirculation fan switch in AUTO, the recirculation fan operates unless both pack are operating and ___.

A

either or both packs are selected to high

213
Q

In addition to providing increased airflow to the mix manifold, the recirculation fan provides ___ the forward cargo compartment when the cabin differential pressure is above 2.5 psid.

A

warm airflow around

214
Q

What normally provides heating airflow around the aft cargo compartment?

A

The natural flow of air from the cabin towards the main outflow valve.

215
Q

EFIS- Which fan(s) supply cooling airflow to the cockpit control stand and instruments?

A

supply

216
Q

EFIS- Which fan(s) draw air through the E/E compartment and normally blow this air around the forward cargo compartment?

A

exhaust

217
Q

With the pack switch in the OFF position, the pack air mix valves move to the ___ position.

A

full cold

218
Q

Inflight with the flaps retracted, what happens if the #1 pack is in AUTO and the #2 pack is selected to OFF?

A

Pack #1 operates in the high mode.

219
Q

Thermal switches will trip the pack off if excessive temperatures are detected at the ___.

A

compressor discharge or turbine inlet

220
Q

The automatic temperature controller normally positions the ___ to control pack output temperatures.

A

cold and hot mix valves

221
Q

How many actuators are used to control the positioning of the deflector door, the ram inlet door, and the ram exhaust louvers for each pack?

A

1

222
Q

There are no cockpit controls for the positioning of the ram air doors. How does the crew know when the ram air doors are full open?

A

A blue RAM DOOR FULL OPEN light comes on for the associated system.

223
Q

The temperature in which sidewall riser is monitored when the air temp selector is positioned to SUPPLY DUCT?

A

left

224
Q

What is the approximate location of the cabin temperature sensor?

A

cabin row #3

225
Q

If a pack trip off occurs due to high duct temperature, will the DUCT OVERHEAT light be illuminated?

A

yes

226
Q

If a pack trip off occurs when the DUCT OVERHEAT light is not illuminated, the air mix valves are probably in the ___ position and a thermal sensor in the air cycle machine has caused the pack to trip off.

A

full cold

227
Q

Which outflow valve controls the majority of the overboard exhaust for the control of cabin pressurization?

A

main outflow valve

228
Q

A cabin altitude horn will sound if the cabin altitude reaches 10,000 feet. Is there a cut-out button for this horn?

A

yes

229
Q

Which mode provides the fastest operation of the main outflow valve?

A

manual AC

230
Q

On the CPCS (Cabin Pressurization Control System) when does the pilot move the FLT/GRD switch to the FLT position?

A

after start flow/checklist

231
Q

The MAN AC mode operates ___, while the MAN DC mode operates ___.

A

faster than MAN DC; on emergency power

232
Q

With a FD switch turned ON- but no vertical or lateral AFDS mode selected, the command bars ___.

A

will not display

233
Q

Where are the FMA’s located?

A

top of each EADI

234
Q

With ALT HOLD engaged, the ALT HOLD “ON” light in the altitude hold selector will not illuminate if ___.

A

the ALT HOLD button is pressed with aircraft at the selected altitude

235
Q

When in altitude hold, how does one arm the vertical speed mode before engaging it?

A

select a new altitude

236
Q

When in altitude hold, how does one arm and engage the level change mode for a descent?

A

select a lower altitude, then press the LVL CHG button

237
Q

When will the overspend symbol appear in the IAS/MACH readout?

A

When speeds are selected that exceed the placard limit for gear or flaps.

238
Q

If the actual airspeed falls ___ knots below the selected speed, the LVL CHG mode will automatically engage.

A

5

239
Q

If automatic switching of the ___ does not occur, the approach modes are not available.

A

antenna

240
Q

With the approach mode armed, the glide slope will capture at ___ displacement form the glide slope beam center line.

A

2/5

241
Q

During a dual channel approach, the stabilizer is trimmed nose up at two different times. The first nose up trip is applied at ___.

A

400 feet

242
Q

During a dual channel approach with both AP paddle switches armed, the FMA continues to display single channel until below ___.

A

1,500 feet

B737 K&S (4 decks)

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