B737 Classic Aircraft Flashcards
What is the maximum North latitude for 737 operations due to the restrictions of the IRS?
73 degrees North
Where are the Cargo Compartment doors, and are both compartments pressurized when in flight?
Doors are on the right side; yes both compartments are pressurized
Which of the primary flight controls will operate through manual reversion?
ailerons and elevators
True/False: the wingspan is the same for the -300, 400 and 500 aircraft.
True, 94’ 9”
What is the overall length of the B737-300; -400?
- 300= 105’ 7”
- 400= 115’ 7”
Which of the blow out panels on the cockpit door can be removed for emergency exit?
Top two
Where are the external light switches and engine start switches located?
Forward overhead panel
How many overwing exit doors are installed on each side of the 737-500?
One
Where is the galley power switch?
Cockpit overhead panel
Where are the cargo door lights?
on the overhead panel
The cargo doors are manually operated and can be opened from ____.
inside or outside the compartment
What is used to pressurize the potable water tank?
bleed air pressure from the APU or left engine
How are the toilets flushed?
An electric flushing motor recirculates blue water for 10 seconds
When using the interior Standby Stair Control switch, the battery switch ___.
must be ON
When using the exterior Standby Stair Control switch, the battery switch ___.
can be ON or OFF
To disarm the slide, move the girt bar from the ___ clips to the ___ clips.
floor; door
Which passenger information sign (switch in auto) illuminates if either the landing gear or the flaps are extended?
fasten seat belts
Which lights automatically illuminate when external power is connected to an otherwise cold aircraft?
entry and lavatory
Where is the light control switch for the cockpit dome lights?
aft overhead panel
Where is the test switch for the majority of the cockpit annunciators and indicating lights?
center instrument panel
Is there an airspeed limitation for the extension of the outboard wing landing lights?
no
Does the nosegear taxi light turn with the nosegear steering?
yes
How many switches are installed to control the emergency lights?
two
With the cockpit emergency lights switch OFF, will the batteries continue to charge?
yes
True/False: Pressing either Master Caution light will reset both Master Caution Lights, the System Annunciator Light, and the System Caution light on the associated System Control Panel.
false
The fire bell can be cancelled by pressing either master FIRE WARN light or by ___.
Pressing the bell cut out switch on the fire control panel
Which mask lever, when squeezed applies oxygen flow to inflate the harness?
right
Can the oxygen system be tested without removal of the mask from the stowage box?
yes
At what cab altitude should the PSU (passenger service unit) doors automatically open?
14,000 feet
How does the flight crew confirm that the PSU door solenoids have been powered?
PASS OXY ON light illuminates on the aft overhead panel
How long does the oxygen generating canister provide oxygen to a passenger?
12 minutes
What action activates an oxygen generating canister?
pulling a mask to pull the lanyard
What is the purpose of the PTU (power transfer unit)?
Provides backup pressure to the LE devices and autoslats when the B system engine pump output is low
What is the normal pressure for systems A and B?
3,000 psi
Which hydraulic system reservoir is larger?
B system
How is head pressure and fluid quantity maintained on the standby system reservoir?
by an interconnecting balance line from the B reservoir
The A hydraulic system’s electric motor pump is powered by generator bus ___.
2
With a leak in the lines associated with the output of the A systems engine driven hydraulic pump how much reservoir fluid is retained?
approximately 1/4 of the total quantity
With a leak in the lines associated with the output of the A systems electric motor driven hydraulic pump, how much reservoir fluid is retained?
zero
The B hydraulic system’s electric motor pump is powered by generator bus ___.
1
If a leak occurs in the hydraulic lines associated with the B hydraulic system’s electric motor pump, the B reservoir will drain so the engine pump and electric motor pump will not operate. However, enough fluid remains to operate the ___.
PTU (power transfer unit)
If the fire switch is pulled, the engine pump LOW PRESSURE light is ___.
inhibited from illuminating
What method will activate the standby hydraulic system?
moving the FLT CONTROL A switch to STBY RUD
What method will activate the standby hydraulic system and shutoff the hydraulic operation of the trailing edge flaps?
moving the ALT FLAPS switch to ARM
Automatic activation of the standby hydraulic system occurs when the A or B system fails inflight with the ___.
flaps extended
Automatic activation of the standby hydraulic system occurs when the A or B system fails on the ground with the flaps extended and the ___.
wheel speed is higher than 60 knots
The PTU only activates inflight. What is the configuration that allows the PTU to activate?
flaps extended to less than 10- but not up
Which of the primary flight controls will operate with loss of all hydraulic pressure through manual reversion?
ailerons and elevators
The flight spoilers will operate through aileron/spoiler mixing when the cockpit control wheels are rotated more than ___.
10 degrees
Concerning the ailerons and spoilers: With a loss of the ___, only the outboard spoilers are rendered inoperative.
B hydraulic system
The ailerons operate normally if the ___ control wheel is jammed.
first officer’s
Pressure from which hydraulic system is used by the elevator feel system?
whichever system produces higher pressure
With a single elevator PCU failure, or a single hydraulic system failure- does the elevator continue to operate by use of a hydraulically powered PCU, or does elevator control revert to manual?
hydraulic PCU operation remains available
What is the maximum airspeed if the MACH TRIM system is inoperative?
0.74 Mach
With a loss of A system pressure and the A flight control switch in the STBY RUD position, the A system LOW PRESSURE light should be ___.
extinguished
Holding the spring loaded Rudder Trim knob in either direction ___ repositions the neutral point of the rudder and rudder pedals.
electrically
If the ___ hydraulic system fails, the Yaw Damper cannot operate.
B
The RPR normally reduces the System A rudder pressure after takeoff when climbing through ___.
1000 feet
True/False: The reduced rudder travel caused by the RPR after takeoff will also cause a reduction in rudder pedal travel.
true
What is the (approximate) maximum amount of rudder travel that can be commanded by the Yaw Damper?
2 degrees from neutral
The SPEEDBRAKE DO NOT ARM light is illuminated. Can the Speedbrakes be deployed manually after landing?
Yes
If the Speedbrake Lever is inadvertently moved to the UP position when the aircraft is inflight ___.
The Flight Spoilers will move to the full up (ground) position
The trailing edge flaps are normally operated by the ___ hydraulic system.
B
When using the Alternate Flaps switch- can the trailing edge flaps be extended and retracted?
yes
The leading edge slats can be ___ by use of the alternate flaps position switch.
extended, but not retracted
Which hydraulic system normally provides the operating pressure for the leading edge flaps and slats?
B
Which trim method provides the largest range of trim?
Manual
If the stabilizer has been manually trimmed passed the range of the Main Electric Trim, can the Main Electric Trim be used to trim back within range?
yes
The SPEED TRIM will operate with the autopilot ___.
disengaged
How many positions are available for the landing gear lever?
three
Where are the controls for the anti-skid and the autobrake system?
to the left of the landing gear lever
Are the outboard main gear wheels exposed when the gear are retracted?
yes
Are lights installed in the cockpit that monitor the position of the main gear doors?
no
What stops the wheel rotation when the nose gear retracts?
snubbers
Is hydraulic pressure required to keep the nose gear in the retract position?
no
Gear retraction is normally provided by the ___ hydraulic system.
A
Which hydraulic system provides pressure to retract the landing gear if the #1 engine N2 RPM is less than 56%?
B
What is the normal position for the landing gear lever during cruise flight?
OFF
Air/ground sensors are connected to which landing gear struts?
nose gear right main
What is indicated by an illuminated red landing gear position indicating light?
Red light comes on when there is a disagreement between gear handle position and actual gear position.
With all gear up, the #1 throttle at idle, the #2 throttle more than 30 degrees forward, and flaps set at 15, can the gear warning horn be silenced by pressing the cutout button?
yes
When performing a manual gear extension, the landing gear lever must be placed in the ___ position.
OFF
Nose gear steering normally receives hydraulic pressure from the ___ hydraulic system.
A
When the aircraft is towed, the ___ system must be depressurized or the steering lockout pin must be installed.
A
Which brake system provides touchdown locked wheel protection through the anti-skid system?
normal brakes
Alternate brakes operate automatically if the A system is pressurized and the ___ has failed.
B system
The parking brake ON light is powered by ___.
battery
What provides the brake pressure when the parking brakes are set on a parked aircraft?
accumulator pressure
To arm an autobrake landing mode, the aircraft must be ___, and the anti-skid must be ON.
inflight
What action activates the RTO autobrake mode during takeoff?
Moving the throttles toward idle.
Which relay actually connects the generator to the generator bus?
generator breaker
Lights are installed to monitor the CSD ___.
oil pressure and oil temperature
Which position of the CSD drive temp switch is used to display the differential temperature of the oil that enters and departs the CSD?
Rise
Does AC power from the engine generators automatically apply to the generator buses when the power is of good quality?
No, it must be selected ON
With ground electrical power connected to the aircraft, movement of the GRD PWR switch to ON will ___.
Apply ground power to both Left and Right AC electrical systems.
Inflight, with the BUS TRANSFER switch in AUTO, a failure of the #1 engine generator will result in a complete transfer of power from the #2 generator to the #1 AC electrical system.
No, the generator bus of the inoperative generator will not be powered.
The TR3 disconnect relay is normally closed. It will open when glideslope capture occurs on a flight director or autopilot ILS approach or when ___.
The bus transfer switch is selected to OFF.
With normal power on the aircraft, what powers the hot battery bus?
battery charger
The voltmeter will normally display ___ when selected to any TR position.
28 volts
Which scale of the AC voltmeter is used by pilots?
outer
How many AC powered fuel pumps are installed for each tank?
2
Can tank #2 provide fuel to the APU?
Yes, if the fuel crossfeed valve is open
Can fuel be transferred or dumped inflight?
no
Why does center tank fuel feed before the main tank fuel?
Center tank check valves open at a lower differential pressure.
True/False: With a loss of normal electrical power- fuel in the center tank is unusable.
True
True/False: With the fuel crossfeed open- the APU can receive fuel from the right pump in the center tank.
True
Does the fuel crossfeed valve have to be open to deliver fuel to the APU from the left pump in the center tank?
no
The engine fuel shutoff valves are DC powered by the ___.
hot battery bus
The engine fuel shutoff valves close when the respective start lever is in the ___ position or the respective fire switch is ___.
cutoff; pulled up
When does the center tank scavenge jet pump begin to operate?
When both center tank pumps are turned OFF.
How long does the center tank scavenge jet pump operate?
20 minutes
What is the purpose of the fuel vent lines?
To allow air to replace space in the tanks as fuel is consumed, and to allow a path for fuel escape in the event of over fueling.
The fuel crossfeed valve is powered by the ___.
battery bus
If one wing tank fuel LOW PRESSURE light comes on- the FUEL annunciator and master caution lights will automatically come on.
only if the recall feature is used
Total fuel weight is displayed on the ___ page of the FMS CDU.
PERF INIT
The fuel temperature indicator displays the temperature of the fuel in the ___ fuel tank.
1
How many fuel quantity measuring sticks are installed for each main wing tank?
5
Which 737 has the type of fuel sticks that drip when they are extended for reading?
non-EFIS
What is the minimum required fuel in the center tank for fuel to be loaded in the auxiliary tank?
10,500 pounds
Which side of the fuel system is directly pressurized by fuel from the auxiliary tank pumps?
left
Transfer of fuel from tank #1 to any other tank requires the ___ to be open..
fuel crossfeed valve
Can the center tank directly be fueled with gravity refueling?
no
What is the maximum APU operating altitude?
FL 350
When over 17,000 feet, the APU can be used to operate one ___.
electrical system
What three things will cause an automatic APU shutdown?
oil temperature high, oil pressure low, APU fire
The APU can suction fuel from tank ___.
1
For extended ground operations using center tank fuel to the APU, the ___ pump in the center tank should be used. This procedure does not require the fuel crossfeed to be open and does not create a fuel imbalance.
left
Illumination of which light on the APU control panel will NOT cause an automatic shutdown?
LOW OIL QUANTITY
What is the maximum continuous EGT limit for the APU?
710 C
The APU shuts down ___ selection of the control switch to OFF.
immediately upon
If the battery switch is turned OFF inflight, the APU ___ shutdown.
will not
What is the minimum battery voltage for APU start?
23 volts DC
The bleed air switch should be ___ before the APU start.
OFF
What is the purpose of the white stripes that are painted on the engine bullet?
visual indication that the engine is running
What determines the N2 operating speed?
The MEC (main engine control)
The engine LOW OIL PRESSURE light illuminates at and below approximately 13 psi., which is the position of the ___ band on the oil pressure gauge.
red
Is it common for the oil pressure to indicate in the yellow band during idle power descents.
yes
The FUEL VALVE CLOSED light illuminates bright when ___.
The associated fuel valve is in transit.
The fuel valves are powered by ___.
the hot battery bus
What is indicated by the red light on the N1, N2 and EGT gauges?
It illuminates while the engine is operating in excess of limits.
What is the purpose of the knob on the N1 gauge?
It allows the pilot to manually set the maximum reference limit.
The PMC (power management control) INOP light will illuminate if the PMC is turned on and has failed with the engine N2 above ___.
46%
The PMC does not move the throttles- it has approximately ___ authority over the throttle input to the MEC.
2%
To dispatch with an inoperative PMC, ___.
the other PMC must be selected OFF.
High idle operates on the engines whenever ___.
the air/ground logic senses the aircraft to be inflight.
Low idle operates on the engines ___.
4 seconds after landing
Which ignitor(s) are normally used for engine start?
alternate use of ignitors between starts
Which ignition position provides power to both ignitors regardless of the position of the ignition switch?
FLT
During engine start, the START switch should automatically move to OFF at ___.
46% N2
The thrust reverser can operate if the air/ground sensor detects the aircraft to be on the ground, or if either radio altimeter senses the radio altitude to be less than ___.
10 feet
If the ___ light remains illuminated for more than 12 seconds, the master caution and ENG annunciator light will illuminate.
REVERSER
The engine oil pressure amber band is:
valid only at takeoff thrust
The REVERSER UNLOCKED light illuminate:
amber to indicate that the respective thrust reverser is unlocked.
True/False: The hydraulic QTY display on the secondary EIS panel provides hydraulic quantity as a percentage of a full reservoir.
True
The EIS engine parameters are depicted with:
limit values as red radials, caution ranges as amber bands and normal ranges as green bands.
Reaching or exceeding an N1 limit:
illuminates a red indicator light above the associated N1 indicator
Which fire agent bottle(s) have blow out disks located on the aft right side of the aircraft?
APU fire agent bottle
Which system cannot be tested until normal AC power is on the aircraft?
wheel well fire detection
When an APU fire warning occurs, what happens when the horn cutout button is pressed on the APU ground control panel?
horn cutout occurs, and the light illuminates steady
What five functions occur when the handle is pulled on the APU ground control panel?
fuel shutoff, bleed air shutoff, inlet door closes, trips the gen control relay, trips the generator breaker
If one fire detector loop is inoperative on the #1 engine, the FAULT light comes on ___.
during a fault/inop test
Pressing either master FIRE WARN switch/light or pressing the ___ will cutout the fire bell.
bell cutout switch
Should the FAULT light normally illuminate during the OVHT/FIRE test?
no
Should the FAULT light normally illuminate during the FAULT/INOP test?
yes
Once the system is installed, can cargo be carried in a compartment if the cargo fire detection/protection system is inoperative for that compartment?
No, cargo cannot be carried in the affected compartment
Can the crew manually arm the DSCH squibs to fight a cargo compartment fire?
Yes, by rotating the function selector
? Click the DISCH switch cap of the discharge switch that is always pressed first…
yes, by rotating the function selector
If the system detects a fire, when should the crew divert for an emergency landing?
Immediately
What is the difference between discharge bottle #1 and bottle #2?
bottle #1 has a fast agent release, bottle #2 has a slow release
After extending the gear to extinguish a wheel well fire, how long should the crew wait before retracting the gear?
Note: max retraction speed is 235 KIAS
20 minutes
After extending the gear to extinguish a wheel well fire, if the WHEEL WELL light remains illuminated, the crew must ___.
land at the nearest suitable airport
What method is preferred to deactivate the early style lavatory smoke detector?
pull the cannon plug
What method is used to deactivate the late style lavatory smoke detector?
pull the call system C.B. for 5 seconds, then reset it…
Which ice and rain components are electrically heated?
cockpit windows
Illumination of an amber COWL ANTI-ICE light indicates ___.
over pressure or over temperature condition
What happens to a COWL VALVE OPEN light during valve transition?
it illuminates bright
Ignition must be selected to ___ prior to and during the operation of engine TAI (thermal anti-ice).
CONT
Do not operate engine or wing TAI when the OAT (on ground)/TAT (airborne) is above ___.
10 degrees C/ 50 degrees F
With the wing anti-ice switch ON inflight, what is indicated by the bright illumination of a WING VALVE OPEN light?
that the associated valve position disagrees with the switch position.
Do the wing anti-ice valves require pneumatic pressure to operate, or are they operated by only AC power?
only electrical AC power is required to operate these valves
Window heat must be turned ON ___ minutes before takeoff.
10
The master caution lights and the ANTI-ICE annunciator light will illuminate with the illumination of ___ pitot/static heater lights.
any
Are the windshield wiper motors powered by the same electrical bus?
no
What normally separates the left and right sections of the pneumatic system?
the closed isolation valve
The APU air is delivered to the ___ side of the pneumatic system.
left
The external air is delivered to the ___ side of the pneumatic system.
right
Is the engine bleed air for engine anti-ice routed through the pneumatic system?
no
Do the engine bleed valves function as reverse flow check valves?
no
An engine bleed valve will open if the bleed switch is ON and ___.
air pressure is available to the bleed valve.
Why does the APU bleed have to be off when on the ground with engine anti-ice operating?
To ensure the APU bleed will not backpressure the 9th stage engine bleed.
With the ISOL VALVE switch in AUTO- when will the isolation valve be open?
When either bleed switch or either pack switch is OFF.
What is the normal position of the ISOL VALVE switch?
AUTO
What is the purpose of the DUAL BLEED light?
To protect from a possible backpressure condition to the APU.
The DUAL BLEED light monitors the position of ___.
The APU bleed valve, isolation valve, engine bleed switches.
When the DUAL BLEED light is on, the engines must remain at ___.
idle power
If excessive temperatures are detected in the pneumatic system, the BLEED TRIP OFF light comes on and ___.
The associated bleed valve closes.
How can the pilot reset a bleed trip off condition?
Press the trip reset button.
What causes a wing body overheat light to come on?
Leak in the pneumatic duct work.
Which wing body overheat light monitors the duct work from the APU?
left
How long should the APU operate after start, before the APU bleed air is used?
1 minute
With the isolation valve switch in AUTO, why is the isolation valve open for engine start?
Because the pack switches are OFF.
Why doesn’t the DUAL BLEED light come on for start using ground air or crossbleed start?
Because the APU bleed air is not used.
For a crossbleed start, the isolation valve allows air from the operating engine to ___.
Operate the starter of the opposite engine.
To receive improved cooling on the ground, the APU may be used to power the ___ pack.
left
What is the normal bleed configuration for takeoff?
Engine bleeds ON, APU bleed OFF.
For a bleeds off improved performance takeoff, the APU supplies air to which pack?
Note: the other pack is not used for the takeoff.
Left
For a bleeds off improved performance takeoff, the ISOL VALVE switch is positioned to AUTO when?
After the engine bleeds are ON and the APU bleed is OFF.
What device normally draws air from the electrical equipment bay and forward cabin, and delivers it to the mix manifold?
recirculation fan
Conditioned air from a ground source is provided to ___.
the mix manifold
The external compressed air is delivered to the ___ side of the pneumatic system.
right
Which pack normally delivers conditioned air to the cockpit?
left
With the recirculation fan switch in AUTO, the recirculation fan operates unless both pack are operating and ___.
either or both packs are selected to high
In addition to providing increased airflow to the mix manifold, the recirculation fan provides ___ the forward cargo compartment when the cabin differential pressure is above 2.5 psid.
warm airflow around
What normally provides heating airflow around the aft cargo compartment?
The natural flow of air from the cabin towards the main outflow valve.
EFIS- Which fan(s) supply cooling airflow to the cockpit control stand and instruments?
supply
EFIS- Which fan(s) draw air through the E/E compartment and normally blow this air around the forward cargo compartment?
exhaust
With the pack switch in the OFF position, the pack air mix valves move to the ___ position.
full cold
Inflight with the flaps retracted, what happens if the #1 pack is in AUTO and the #2 pack is selected to OFF?
Pack #1 operates in the high mode.
Thermal switches will trip the pack off if excessive temperatures are detected at the ___.
compressor discharge or turbine inlet
The automatic temperature controller normally positions the ___ to control pack output temperatures.
cold and hot mix valves
How many actuators are used to control the positioning of the deflector door, the ram inlet door, and the ram exhaust louvers for each pack?
1
There are no cockpit controls for the positioning of the ram air doors. How does the crew know when the ram air doors are full open?
A blue RAM DOOR FULL OPEN light comes on for the associated system.
The temperature in which sidewall riser is monitored when the air temp selector is positioned to SUPPLY DUCT?
left
What is the approximate location of the cabin temperature sensor?
cabin row #3
If a pack trip off occurs due to high duct temperature, will the DUCT OVERHEAT light be illuminated?
yes
If a pack trip off occurs when the DUCT OVERHEAT light is not illuminated, the air mix valves are probably in the ___ position and a thermal sensor in the air cycle machine has caused the pack to trip off.
full cold
Which outflow valve controls the majority of the overboard exhaust for the control of cabin pressurization?
main outflow valve
A cabin altitude horn will sound if the cabin altitude reaches 10,000 feet. Is there a cut-out button for this horn?
yes
Which mode provides the fastest operation of the main outflow valve?
manual AC
On the CPCS (Cabin Pressurization Control System) when does the pilot move the FLT/GRD switch to the FLT position?
after start flow/checklist
The MAN AC mode operates ___, while the MAN DC mode operates ___.
faster than MAN DC; on emergency power
With a FD switch turned ON- but no vertical or lateral AFDS mode selected, the command bars ___.
will not display
Where are the FMA’s located?
top of each EADI
With ALT HOLD engaged, the ALT HOLD “ON” light in the altitude hold selector will not illuminate if ___.
the ALT HOLD button is pressed with aircraft at the selected altitude
When in altitude hold, how does one arm the vertical speed mode before engaging it?
select a new altitude
When in altitude hold, how does one arm and engage the level change mode for a descent?
select a lower altitude, then press the LVL CHG button
When will the overspend symbol appear in the IAS/MACH readout?
When speeds are selected that exceed the placard limit for gear or flaps.
If the actual airspeed falls ___ knots below the selected speed, the LVL CHG mode will automatically engage.
5
If automatic switching of the ___ does not occur, the approach modes are not available.
antenna
With the approach mode armed, the glide slope will capture at ___ displacement form the glide slope beam center line.
2/5
During a dual channel approach, the stabilizer is trimmed nose up at two different times. The first nose up trip is applied at ___.
400 feet
During a dual channel approach with both AP paddle switches armed, the FMA continues to display single channel until below ___.
1,500 feet
