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Biology Paper 2 > B6: Genetics > Flashcards

B6: Genetics Flashcards

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1
Q

When is mitosis used?

A

In asexual reproduction

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2
Q

Mitosis [definition]:

A

Cell division that forms 2 daughter cells, each identical to the parent cell

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3
Q

Meiosis [definition]:

A

Cell division that forms 4 daughter cells, similar to the parent cell, with half the number of chromosomes than in the parent cell

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4
Q

When is Meiosis used?

A

In sexual reproduction

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5
Q

Gametes:

A

Sex cells

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6
Q

Fertilisation [definition]:

A

The process of reproduction where the nuclei of two gametes fuse to form a zygote

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7
Q

What are the 4 key stuctures of sexual reproduction?

A
  • Cells divide by meiosis
  • Male and female gametes fuse
  • Offspring are non-identical
  • Two parents
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8
Q

What are the gametes in animals?

A

Sperm and egg cells

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9
Q

What are the gametes involved in flowering plants?

A

Pollen and ovum cells contain the gammetes

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10
Q

Asexual reproduction [definition]:

A

The process of reproduction that forms genetically identical offspring from only one parent.

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11
Q

Key features of asexual reproduction [4]:

A
  • Only one parent
  • Offspring are clones
  • Cells divide by mitosis
  • Thre is no gamete fusion involved
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12
Q

What is the name of the cell formed by the fusion of two gametes?

A

Zygote

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13
Q

Asexual reproduction is common in….

A

single-celled organisms

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14
Q

Reproduction….[2]:

A
  • Is neccessary to ensure the survival of a living species

- It is a life process and a characteristics of all living things

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15
Q

Why is it neccessary for organisms to asexually reproduce?

A

For growth and repair of damaged cells

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16
Q

What is the name of the process of when bacteria divivdes?

A

Binary fission

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17
Q

Diploid cell [definition]:

A

A cell that has a full 2 sets of chromosomes (46 chromosomes)

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18
Q

Haploid cell [definition]:

A

A cell that has only 1 set of chromosomes (23 chromosomes)

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19
Q

As soon as the embryo reaches a threshold size…

A

cells begin to differentiate

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20
Q

Stages of Meiosis [4]:

A
  • The 2 pairs of chromosomes found in the parent diploid cell replicate
  • The diploid cell then divides twice to give 4, genetically distinct, gametes (they are all haploid)
  • During sexual reproduction,fertilisation occurs, restoring the normal number of chromosomes
  • Once the gametes combine the new cells divide by mitosis, which increases the number of cells
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21
Q

Advantages of sexual reproduction [2]:

A
  • Variation in offspring

- Artificial selection (selective breeding in plants and animals speeds up artififcial selection)

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22
Q

Which organisms can produce both sexually and asexually? [3]:

A
  • Fungi
  • Malaria parasites
  • Strawberry plants
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23
Q

What are the 4 genetically different gametes produced during sexual reproduction called?

A

Haploid cells

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24
Q

Advantages of Asexual reproduction [3]:

A
  • Asexual reproduction is faster
  • Many identical offspring
  • There is no second parent is recquired
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25
Q

Why is variation in offspring an advantage?

A

It increases the chances of a population being able to survive environmental change by natural selection

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26
Q

If an organism can reproduce sexually or asexually, it often…

A

reproduces asexually when conditions are good

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27
Q

Genome [definition]:

A

The genome is the entire genetic material of an organism

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28
Q

What are the levels of organisation in a genome?

[3]:

A
  • DNA
  • Genes
  • Chromosomes
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29
Q

DNA [definition]:

A

A double helix polymer of nucleotides that contains genetic information and makes up genes

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30
Q

Gene [definition]:

A

A small section of DNA that codes for a sequence of amino acids, which combine to give a specific protein.

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31
Q

What does DNA stand for?

A

Deoxyribonucleic acid

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32
Q

Chromosome [definition]:

A

Long, coiled up strands of DNA that contain many genes

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33
Q

How many pairs of chromosomes are in a healthy human cell?

A

23

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34
Q

What is a Polymer?

A

A large molecule that is made of many repeating subunits

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35
Q

Organisation of genetic material in Eukaryotic cells [3]:

A
  • The nucleus of eukaryotic cells contains chromosomes made of DNA molecules.
  • Each chromosome contains a large number of genes.
  • Each gene tells how a specific protein should be made.
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36
Q

Mutagen [definition]:

A

Anything that causes a mutation (A change in the DNA of a cell)

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37
Q

Types of Mutagens [4]:

A
  • Exposure to radiation (radiation)
  • Different chemicals
  • UV rays
  • Free radicals
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38
Q

When was the human genome project published?

A

2003

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39
Q

What was the purpose of the human genome project?

A

To successfully map out all the genetic information in the chromosomes of a human being

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40
Q

Potential effects of Genome sequencing [3]:

A
  • The investigation of human evolutionary and migratory history
  • Improving understanding of inherited diseases
  • Identifying genes linked to different disorders
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41
Q

How could the completion of the Human Genome Project, and subsequent research on the human genome, be beneficial in tackling Cystic Fibrosis?

A
  • The knowledge we have gained from the Human Genome Project and subsequent research can help us in identifying Cystic Fibrosis genes, allowing those carrying it to be made aware
  • It could also further our understanding of the disorder and how we should be treating it.
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42
Q

Nucleotide [definition]:

A

Small units that repeat throughout the structure of the DNA

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43
Q

What holds the 2 strands of DNA together?

A

Attraction between opposite bases

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44
Q

What pairs with base T?

A

Base A

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45
Q

What pairs with base G?

A

Base C

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46
Q

What pairs with base A?

A

Base U

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47
Q

What pairs with base A?

A

Base U

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48
Q

What forms the long strands in DNA?

A

The sugar and phosphates

49
Q

Protein Synthesis [definition]:

A

The process in which our body makes protein

50
Q

Codon [definition]:

A

A sequence of three bases in DNA or RNA that codes for a single amino acid

51
Q

What does the order of bases in amino acids tell us?

A

The order for combining amino acids to create particular proteins

52
Q

What happens to a gene when a sequence of bases in the gene is altered?

A

The protein changes

53
Q

The steps in proteinsynthesis [7]:

A
  • DNA is unzipped so that the information is exposed
  • MRNA nucleotides match up to their complimentary pair
  • The MRNA detaches from the DNA and moves out of the nucleus into the cytoplasm
  • The RNA joins to the ribosome in a cell
  • A carrier molecule with a complimentary base brings the RNA with an amino acid
  • Another carrier molecule arrives with another amino acid which attaches to the first one
  • The amino acid chain continues until all the RNA has been matched up
54
Q

What is a key feature of the structure/shape of a protein?

A

It is specific

55
Q

What is a protein?

A

A chain of amino acids?

56
Q

What happens to the amino chains directly after proteinsynthesis? [3]:

A
  • The amino acid chain folds and formsbonds to determine its final structure
  • These bonds are determined by the sequence of amino acids
  • The final structure determines the function of the protein
57
Q

If the order of bases on DNA changes, what happens to the proteins made using the DNA?

A

The amino acid sequence may change

58
Q

Allele [definition]:

A

The name given to one gene in a pair

59
Q

Genes exist in….

A

pairs

60
Q

Heterozygous [definition]:

A

When an individual carries 2 different alleles for a gene

e.g Bb

61
Q

Homozygous [definition]:

A

When an individual carries 2 copies of the same allele for a gene (e.g BB)

62
Q

Mutation [definition]:

A

A permanent change in the nucleotide sequence of DNA

63
Q

Mutation [definition]:

A

A permanent change in the nucleotide sequence of DNA

64
Q

Mutations [2]:

A
  • Mutations that happen continuously and normally only slightly affect proteins or don’t affect them at all
  • Occasionally, a mutation may change the structure or shape of a protein
65
Q

The outcome of mutations [3]:

A
  • The outcome of a mutation is almost always detrimental to protein function.
  • In enzymes, the substrate may no longer be able to bind to the active site.
  • In structural proteins, their strength may be reduced.
66
Q

survival advantages of mutations [2]:

A
  • More rarely, a mutation may give a survival advantage, such as resistance to an antibiotic in bacteria.
  • These mutations can be beneficial and represent the foundation of evolution by natural selection.
67
Q

Mutation is…

A

Random

68
Q

What is the function of non-coding DNA?

A

It is important for gene expression

69
Q

What is a possible cause for mutation?

A

Genes being switched on and off

70
Q

A dominant allele is…

A

always expressed, regardless of the identity of the other allele

71
Q

How are dominant alleles represented?

A

With capital letters

72
Q

When is a recessive allele expressed?

A

Only when the other allele is recessive

73
Q

Recessive alleles are represented by…

A

lower case letters

74
Q

What causes characterististics

[2]:

A
  • In most cases, a characteristic results from multiple genes interacting
  • However, sometimes, a single gene is responsible for a characteristic. such as red-green colour blindness
75
Q

Genotype [definition]:

A

The combination of alleles an individual has for a particular gene (e.g BB, Bb or bb)

76
Q

Phenotype [definition]:

A

The physical expression of the genotype/ an observed characteristic of the individual

77
Q

What is an example of a phenotype?

A

Earlobes being attached or free. The alleles present will determine a characteristic unless the environment interferes.

78
Q

Monohybrid inheritance [definition]:

A

Refers to the inheritance of traits determined by a single gene

79
Q

What are Punnett squares?

A

They are diagrams that help us to visualise the outcome of a monohybrid cross

80
Q

Punnett square structure [2]:

A
  • The alleles of the parents are drawn along the top and side of a grid
  • The pairs of alleles that the offspring could have are then filled into the grid
81
Q

What type of allele causes cystic fibrosis?

A

A recessive allele

82
Q

Cystic fibrosis [3]:

A
  • It is an inherited disorder
  • It s a disorder of cell membranes
  • It causes thick, sticky mucus to build-up in the lungs and digestive system.
83
Q

What is the genotype of a cystic fibrosis sufferer?

A

ff

84
Q

Polydactyly [4]:

A
  • Inherited disorder
  • Polydactyly is a disorder where the sufferer has extra fingers or toes
  • It is caused by a dominant allele
  • It is suffered by heterozygotes
85
Q

What type of allele causes polydactyly?

A

A dominant allele

86
Q

If a sufferer of cystic fibrosis has non-suffering parents, what are the parents?

A

Heterozygotes

87
Q

What can family trees be used to visualise?

A

The transmission of inherited disorders from one generation to the next

88
Q

Different types of embryonic screening [3]:

A
  • Pre-natal screening
  • IVF with PGD
  • Artificial insemination
89
Q

Embryonic screening is a form of…

A

genome screening

90
Q

Pre-natal screening is at…

A

foetal stage

91
Q

IVF with PGD is at the…

A

embryonic stage

92
Q

What does IVF stand for?

A

In Vitro Fertilisation

93
Q

What does PGD stand for?

A

Pre-implantation genetic diagnosis

94
Q

Advantages of Pre-natal screening [2]:

A
  • Relatively accurate procedure

- May prevent the birth of children with severe disabilities

95
Q

Disadvantages of Pre-natal screening [5]:

A
  • Healthy embryos may be terminated
  • Invasive/ painful procedure
  • Risk of miscarriage
  • Very expensive
  • Goes against religion
96
Q

Advantages of IVF with PGD [4]:

A
  • The embryo can be screened before it goes into the mother
  • Not invasive at all
  • No risk of miscarriage due to screening
  • Prevents the birth of a child with serious disabilities
97
Q

Disadvantages of IVF with PGD [3]:

A
  • Goes against religion
  • All embryos that aren’t used are destroyed/ disposed of
  • Expensive
98
Q

Advantages of artificial insemination [3]:

A
  • No risk of miscarriage due to screening
  • Not invasive or painful procedure
  • Prevents the possibility of recessive disorders
99
Q

Disadvantages of artificial insemination [3]:

A
  • Rise in demand of ‘designer babies’
  • You only know about the father’s genes
  • Mutations could happen at fertilisation
100
Q

What is different about artificial insemination and the other screening procedures?

A

Artificial insemination is the screening of the sperm whilst the others screen the embryo or foetus

101
Q

Why do we screen embryos?

A

To find out if there will be a specific disorder

102
Q

What are the 2 types of pre-natal screening?

A
  • Amniocentesis

- Chronic villus sampling

103
Q

What is the difference between amniocentesis and chorionic villus sampling?

A

In CVS a small sample of the placenta, after birth, is taken for testing, whereas in amniocentesis a small amount of amniotic fluid (the water around the baby inside the uterus)

104
Q

What is the advantage of not having any screening done?

A

Prevents any difficult decisions that may have to be made

105
Q

What type of screening is embryonic screening?

A

Genome screening

106
Q

What are the genes for a female?

A

XX

107
Q

What are the genes for a male?

A

XY

108
Q

What chromosome does a female egg have?

A

X

109
Q

What chromosome does sperm have?

A

Either one X chromosome or one Y chromosome

110
Q

How many chromosomes in a cell are responsible for sex determination and what are they called? [2]:

A
  • One

- Sex chromosomes

111
Q

What do we call the monomers that DNA strands are made of?

A

Nucleotides

112
Q

What are nucleotides made up of? [3]:

A
  • Pentose sugar
  • Base
  • A Phosphate
113
Q

How many nitrogenous bases can be found in DNA?

A

4

114
Q

What are the nitrogenous bases found in DNA?

A
  • Adenine (A)
  • Thymine (T)
  • Cytosine (C)
  • Guanine (G)
115
Q

How can a mutation in a gene result in a protein not carrying out its role correctly?

A
  • The mutation may code for a different amino acid
  • Different amino acids could alter the structure of a protein
  • The altered structure means that the protein is the wrong shape to transport water
116
Q

If a couple has multiple children, why can we not know for certain how many of their children would suffer from a disorder?

A

Punnett squares only work out the probabilities of having a certain phenotype

117
Q

How many bases make up a codon when coding for an amino acid?

A

3

118
Q

Sexual reproduction of malaria

A

still need to do this flashcard

119
Q

What is base U?

A

Uracil

Biology Paper 2 (4 decks)

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