B4 Flashcards

1
Q

Define the leukocytosis

A

Increase in the number of leukocytes in the peripheral blood

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

Define the leukopoenia

A

Decrease in number of leukocytes

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

Explain about the hematopoietic neoplasms

A
  • A single cell in the marrow or peripheral lymphoid tissue undergoes genetic alteration.
  • Genetic alteration causes the increased activation of oncogenes or decreased activity of tumour suppressor genes.

A)Genetic mutation accumulate
B) Malignant transformation of pluripotential stem cells
C) Clonal expansion of stem cells
D) Blocks in differentiation of abnormal cells
E) Accumulation of blasts in acute leukaemia

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

Define leukaemia

A
  • Group of disorder characterised by the accumulation of malignant white cells in bone marrow.
  • Neoplastic proliferation of WBC precursors
  • Characterised by > 20% blasts in the blood and bone marrow
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

State the classification of Acute Myeloid / Myeloblastic Leukaemia (AML)

A
M0- Undifferentiated AML 
M1 - AML without maturation 
M2 - AML with maturation 
M3 - Acute promyelocytic leukaemia 
M4 - Acute myelomonocytic leukaemia 
M5 - Acute Monoblastic leukaemia 
M6 - Erythroleukaemia 
M7 - Acute megakaryoblastic leukaemia
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

Classify Acute Lymphoblastic Leukaemia ( ALL ) based on FAB ( morphology of blasts )

A

L1- Small homogenous blasts
L2 -Heterogenous blasts
L3 - Large homogenous blasts

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

Describe the clinical features of AML & ALL

A

AML
Age : Young adult

Features
Anemia , Infection , Bleeding ( AML M3 ) , Gum Hypertrophy ( AML M4 , M5)

ALL Age : Children or old age Features : Anemia , Infection ( fever + low WBC ) , Bleeding ( Low platelets )
: Generalised lymphadenopathy , Meningeal infiltration

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

Explain the lab diagnosis of AML & ALL (include peripheral smear )

A
  • Hb low ( 4 -5gm% )
  • Normocytic , normochromic anemia
  • Total leukocyte count - increase ( 10-30000/mm3 )
  • Normal granulocytes are reduced
  • Platelet count - decreased

Peripheral smear :
AML :
Myeloblast ++ ( > 20%)
Maturation according to subtype ( M0 - M7 ) * contain Auer rod

Acute lymphoblastic leukaemia (ALL)
Lymphoblast ++ (20%)
Granulocyte decreased
Morphology according to subtypes (L1,L2, L3)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

Explain the cytochemical stain of AML & ALL

A

AML. ALL

Myeloperoxidase +ve -ve
Sudan. +ve. -ve
PAS. -ve. +ve
Nonspecific- +ve in M5 —
enterase

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

Explain the cell changes in ALL based on FAB classification

A

L1 - Homogenous small blasts , scanty cytoplasm , regular round nuclei , inconspicous nucleoli

L2 - Heterogenous blasts , variable cytoplasm , irregular nucleus , large nucleoli

L3 - Large homogenous blasts , basophillic cytoplasm , round nucleus , prominent nucleoli , cytoplasmic vacuolation , Burkitt’s lymphoma

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

Explain the prognosis of Acute Myeloid Leukaemia & ALL

A

AML : poor , with treatment modalities in the young it is improving

ALL : overall , >85%of children can now expect to be cured .
: The cure rate in adults is 5% over the age of 70years

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

Describe the pathophysiology of Chronic Myeloid Leukaemia (CML)

A
  • due to gene mutation in a pluripotent stem cell & clonal proliferation
  • characterised by presence of Philadelphia chromosome due to t(9:22 ) forming a BCR-ABL fusion gene
  • produces a mutant tyrosine kinase protein which mimic the effects of activation of growth factor receptor , hence causing uncontrollable proliferation of granulocytic , megakaryocytic and erythroid precursors.
  • leads to leukaemia ( accumulation of WBC in bone marrow and blood)
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

Describe the clinical features of CML

A

Massive splenomegaly : slow progressive , discomfort , pain or ingestion due to spleen

Hypermetabolic state : Weight loss , lassitude , anorexia

Anaemia : Pallor , dyspnoea & tachycardia

Bleeding tendencies : Bruising , epistaxis , menorrhagia or other sites because of abnormal platelet function

Gout or renal impairment caused by Hyperuricemia from excessive purine breakdown

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

Explain the blood findings and peripheral smear of CML

A

Blood findings

  • Normal / decreased of haemoglobin
  • Increased in total leukocyte count
  • Increased Platelet
Peripheral smear 
RBC - Normocytic / Normochromic anemia 
WBC - Leukocytosis 
Increase in all stages of myeloid precursor 
           I) Myelocytes , Metamyelocytes , bands are predominant 
          II) Blasts < than 10% 
          III) increase eosinophilia
          IV) Increase Basophilia

2) BM changes
- cellularity increased ( increase in myeloid precursors )
- blasts <10%
- eosinophilia , basophilia , megakaryocytosis

3) Staining
- staining do not get stained by neutrophil alkaline phosphatase in CML

4) Cytogenetic analysis , PCR
- Presence of Philadelphia chromosome ( ABL-BCR fusion gene )

5) Biochemical test
- elevated uric acid due to increased purine breakdown

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

Describe the prognosis of CML

A

Clinical course of CML depends on stages of disease

1) Chronic phase
2) Accelerated phase
3) Blast crisis

Blast crisis:

  • Increasing anemia
  • Thrombocytopenia
  • Increased Basophilia
  • Increased blasts (>20%)
  • Myelobalstic / Lymphoblastic crisis
  • New chromosome abnormalities
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

Define the thrombocytopenia

A
  • platelet count below the lower limit of normal ( < 150,00 / microL ) for adults
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

Classify 4 possible process leading to thrombocytopenia

A

I) Failure of marrow production
- bone marrow failure of haematological disease ( example : aplastic anemia , leukaemia ) usually causes pancytopenia . However, thrombocytopenia may be the only sign of intrinsic marrow disease or marrow suppression associated with infection or chemotherapy

2) Shortened lifespan
- Platelets can be destroyed in the circulation
- Most common mechanism in clinical syndromes such as immune thrombocytopenia.

3) Sequestration : Splenomegaly can cause low platelet counts because of pooling in the enlarged organ
4) Dilution. Normal platelets are diluted by massive blood transfusion

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

Explain the Pathogenesis of Idiopathic thrombocytopenia (ITP)

A
  • Antiplatelet antibodies ( mostly IgG directed against surface glycoproteins ( ex: GPIIb/IIIa , Gl Ib/IX ) bind to surface protein in platelets. &raquo_space;> in autoimmune thrombocytopenic purpura , platelets are mainly destroyed in the reticuloendothelial system , especially the spleen&raquo_space;> premature removal of platelets from the circulation by macrophages of the reticuloendothelial system resulting In thrombocytopenia.
  • Normal lifespan of platelet is 10 days but in ITP is few hours
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

Explain the Difference of Acute ITP & Chronic ITP

A

Acute ITP

  • Childhood
  • Frequently previous viral infection
  • Platelet count often <20
  • Occur few weeks long
  • Around 90% spontaneous remission

Chronic ITP

  • Adult life
  • Unusual previous viral infection
  • Variable platelet count
  • Insidious onset
  • Years / lifelong duration
  • Rare spontaneous remission
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

Explain the clinical feature of Idiopathic thrombocytopenia purpura ( ITP )

A
Any kind of mucocutaneous bleeding 
A) Epitaxis 
B) Menorrhagia 
C) Gum bleeding 
D) Petechiae 
E) Purpura 
F) Echymoses
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

Explain the laboratory diagnosis of ITP

A
  • diagnosis of exclusion
  • decreased platelet count ( < 100,000/microL)
  • Increased bleeding time
  • normal PT and APTT
  • Presence of autoantibodies in serum
  • Normal erythrocytes and leukocytes
  • Increases megakaryocytes on bone marrow biopsy
  • platelets reduced in number and increased in size
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

Define Thrombotic Thrombocytopenia purpura ( TTP) and its Pathogenesis

A
  • due to deficiency of protease enzyme ADAMTS
  • ADAMTS 13 is responsible to rate production of normal functional vWF.
  • It does this by cleaving ultra high weight multimer of vWF as it is released from endothelial cells.
  • In the absence of enzyme activity , these u,tra large multimer bind platelets and occlude the microcirculation
  • Decrease platelet count
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

Describe primary haemostasis

A

1) Platelet adhesion
- platelets adhere to injured endothelium via binding GPIb to vWF in sub endothelial matrix

2) Platelet activation
- Platelets changes from rounded disc to flat plates with spiky protrusion which greatly increase the SA
- Platelet also release secretory granules containing TXA2 and ADP

3) Platelet aggregation
- released TXA2 & ADP induce platelet aggregation through platelet GPIIb-IIIa receptor binding to fibrinogen
- primary haemostatic plug is formed

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

Describe secondary hemostasis

A
  • Coagulation cascade which leads to conversion of soluble fibrinogen into insoluble fibrin to strengthen the platelet plug & facilitate clot formation.

( Refer the picture )
Intrinsic
( extrinsic : 7 )
12 —>11 —> 9 —> 8 —> 10 —> 5 —> 2 —> 1

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
Q

State the classification of bleeding disorder w/ examples

A

1) Vascular defects
- scurvy : lack of Vit C impair collagen synthesis —> fragile BV —> bleeding
- Cushing syndrome : hypercortisolemia —> abnormal collagen —> bruising

2) Platelet defects :
I)Thrombocytopenia : BM suppression , megaloblastic anemia , hypersplenism , dengue fever , thrombotic microangiopathies , SLE
II)Bernard- Soulier disease : mutation in GPIb / IX/V complex , leads to giant sized platelets
III) Glanzmann thrombasthenia : mutation in GPIIb-IIIa complex
IV) Afibrinogenemia
V) Von-Willebrand disease
VI) Aspirin use : lowers TXA2 levels —> impair platelet aggregation

3) Defects in coagulation cascade
I) Hemophilia A : lack of factor VIII
II) Hemophilia B / Christmas disease : lack of factor IX
III) Hemophilia C: factor XI deficiency
IV) Vit K deficiency : inactivated factor II, VII , IX , X

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
26
Q

Describe the differences between platelet / vessel wall disease and coagulation disease

A

Platelet/ vessel wall disease

  • Mucocutaneous bleeding is more common
  • Petechiae , purpura and ecchymoses are seen
  • Sex patients are equal

Coagulation disease

  • Deep bleeding ( organs , muscle , joints ) is more common
  • Rarely seeen Petechiae , purpura & ecchymoses
  • Sex of patients >80% male ( X-linked disease )
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
27
Q

Describe the Pathogenesis of disseminated intravascular coagulation

A

Too much clotting —> occlusion of microvasculature + too little clotting —> prolonged bleeding

1) DIC is triggered widespread endothelial damage & collagen exposure or entry of procoagulant material into the circulation
( ex: septicemic , obstetric procedure , major trauma , carcinomas)

2) Leads to release of tissue factor which causes widespread micro vascular thrombosis
3) Microvascular thrombosis leads to tissue ischemia , necrosis and organ failure
4) At the same time , platelet and clotting factor are consumed , leading to prolonged bleeding
5) Fibrinolysis ends to release of fibrin degradation products which inhibit hemostasis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
28
Q

List the causes of DIC

A

1) Obstetric complications
- Abruptio placentae
- Retained dead fetus
- Septic abortion
- Amniotic fluid embolism
- Toxemia

2) Infections
- Sepsis , Malaria , Aspergillosis

3) Neoplasms
- Carcinomas of pancreas , prostate , lung and stomach

4) Massive tissue injury
- Trauma , Burns , Extensive surgery

5) Miscellaneous
- Acute intravascular Hemolysis , snakebite , giant hemangioma

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
29
Q

Describe the lab diagnosis of DIC

A

1) Thrombocytopenia <150k cells / uL
2) Low fibrinogen concentration
3) Prolonged prothrombin , APTT and thrombin time
4) high levels of fibrin degradation products eg D- dimers in serum and urine

5) Presence of haemolytic anemia & RBC fragmentation
- due to damage caused when passing through fibrin strands in vessels

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
30
Q

Define Lymphadenitis

A
  • Enlargement in one or more lymph nodes , usually due to infection
  • Reactive lymphadenitis is nonspecific response which may be acute or chronic
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
31
Q

Explain the example and changes seen in acute lymphadenitis

A
  • Due to microbial infections
  • Example :
    A) Cervical ( infection of oral cavity )
    B) Axillary ( Infection of arm )
    C) Inguinal ( Infection of lower extremities )
Changes seen 
A) Nodes enlarge 
B) Nodes become tender 
C) Nodes are soft or matted together 
D) Area / Skin around node become red 
E) Nodes may fill with pus ( an abscess )
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
32
Q

List the causes of lymphadenopathy ( non neoplastic)

A
Localised 
A) Bacteria 
I) Pyogenic infections : pharyngitis , tonsillitis , dental abscess , otitis media 
II) Tuberculosis 
III) Cat scratch fever

Generalised
1) Infection
Viral : Infectious mononucleosis, HIV , CMV , adenovirus
Bacteria : Syphilis , Brucellosis , Salmonella , Tuberculosis
Fungal : Histoplasmosis
Protozoa : Toxoplasmosis

2) Non infectious inflammatory disease
- Sarcoidosis , Rheumatoid arthritis , SLE Crohn Disease

3) Miscellaneous
I) Rossi Dorfman syndrome : Sinus histiocytosis with massive lymphadenopathy
II) Reaction of drugs ( Hydantoin )

33
Q

List the causes of lymphadenopathy ( neoplastic )

A

Localised
A)Lymphoma : Hodgkin lymphoma, Non Hodgkin lymphoma
B) Metastatic carcinoma

Generalised
A) Leukaemia : ALL , CLL
B) Lymphoma : Hodgkin lymphoma , Non Hodgkin lymphoma
C) Metastatic carcinoma ( rarely )

34
Q

Explain about infectious mononucleosis and human immunodeficiency virus infection ( HIV)

A

Infectious Mononucleosis
- Caused by Acute infection , self-limited disease of adolescents and young adults that is caused with Epstein Barr virus

HIV
- cause by immunodeficiency state as the virus bind and destroy of CD4 bearing cells

35
Q

Explain the Pathogenesis of lymphoid neoplasms

A

A) Hematopoietic stem cells form myeloid and lymphoid cells which undergo further differentiation and maturation to B, T cells and NK cells in lymph nodes , thymus and spleen

B) Lymphoid malignancies arise from the neoplastic transformation of these cells

C)Malignancies from lymphoid cells in the blood are called leukaemia that is ALL and CLL

D)Malignancies from lymphoid tissue in the lymph node or other lymphoid tissue which form discrete tissue masses are called lymphomas

36
Q

Describe the lymphoid neoplasms based on WHO

A

1) B- cell neoplasms :
Precursor B - lymphoblastic leukaemia / lymphoma
Mature B - cell neoplasms , NonHodgkin’s Lymphoma , Plasma cell neoplasms

2) T- cell and NK cell neoplasms
- Precursor T - lymphoblastic leukaemia
- Mature T & NK cell neoplasms

3) Hodgkin’s lymphoma
4) Histiocytic and dendritic cell neoplasms
5) Malignant mastocytosis

37
Q

Describe Hodgkin lymphoma

A
  • is a distinctive group of lymphoid neoplasms that are characterised by the presence of a tumour giant cell called Reed Sternberg cell ( RS cell )
38
Q

Describe the classification of Hodgkin lymphoma based on WHO

A
Classical Types 
A) Nodular sclerosis 
B) Mixed cellularity 
C) Lymphocyte - rich 
D) Lymphocyte depletion 

E) Lymphocyte predominance
- Immunophenotyping : CD15 & CD30 positive in all types except lymphocyte predominant type which is CD20 positive

39
Q

In ( ……..) AML , the characteristics feature is bleeding / DIC.

In (………) AML , the characteristics feature is gum Hypertrophy.

A

In ( M3 ( promyelocytic ) ) AML , the characteristics feature is bleeding / DIC.

In ( M4 ( myelomonocytic ) , M5 ( monoblastic) ) AML , the characteristics feature is gum Hypertrophy.

40
Q

Acute myeloid leukaemia mainly affects ( ………. ) and it has a ( ………) prognosis

Acute lymphoblastic leukaemia mainly affects ( ……… ) and it has a ( …….. ) prognosis

A

Acute myeloid leukaemia mainly affects ( young adults ) and it has a ( poorer ) prognosis

Acute lymphoblastic leukaemia mainly affects ( children or elderly ) and it has a ( better curable ) prognosis

41
Q

Classify Diabetes Mellitus

A

A) Type 1 Diabetes : autoimmune diabetes characterised by pancreatic beta- cell destruction and an absolute deficiency of insulin.

B) Type 2 Diabetes : Combination of peripheral resistance to insulin action and inadequate secretory response by pancreatic beta cells ( relative insulin deficiency )

42
Q

State the aetiology of Diabetes Mellitus

A
  • Genetic defects of beta cell function
  • Genetic defects of insulin action
  • Exocrine pancreatic defects
  • Infections : CMV
  • Endocrinopathies :Growth hormone excess ( acromegaly )
43
Q

State the clinical features of Diabetes

A

A) 3P : polyuria , polydipsia and polyphagia

B) Lethargy

C) Recurrent infections

D) Diabetic ketoacidosis

44
Q

Explain the complications of Diabetes mellitus

A

A) Diabetic ketoacidosis ( DKA )
- Severe Acute metabolic complication of T1D
- release of catecholamine epinephrine -> blocks residual action -> increased synthesis of ketone bodies
Clinical manifestations:
- Fatigue , Nausea and vomiting , severe abdominal pain

2) Hyperosmolar Hyperglycemic state (HHS)
- Patients in T2D
- due to severe dehydration resulting from sustaining osmotic diuresis
-

45
Q

Explain the aetiology of the pyogenic osteomyelitis

A

A) Staphylococcus aureus : ( 80% to 90% ) : Bacteria cell wall protein bind to bone matrix components , collagen , which facilitate adherence to bone.

B) Escherichia coli , Pseudomonas and Klebsiella : more frequent in genitourinanry tract infections or IV drug users.

C) Haemophilus influenza and group B stepcocci : common in neonates

D) Salmonella infection : in person with sickle cell disease

  • No specific organism is identified in nearly 50% of patients
46
Q

Explain the Pathogenesis of pyogenic osteomyelitis

A

1) Bacteria infection of the bone —> spread within the shaft of the bone & through Haversian system to reach periosteum
2) Leads formation of subperiosteal abscess
3) Lifting of the periosteum impairs blood supply to the affected region —> ischemia
4) Suppurative + ischemic injury —> necrosis of bone ( sequestrum )

5) Rupture of the subperiosteal abscess —> soft tissue abscess which forms a draining sinus tract that drain into the skin
- pieces of sequestrum may get expelled via these sinus tracts

6) After 1 week of infection , chronic IF cells release cytokines stimulate :
I) Osteoclastic resorption of dead bone
II) ingrowth of fibrous tissues
III) deposition of reactive bone in the periphery

  • involucrum is a tissue that formed at newly deposited bone around the segment of devitalises infected bone.
  • Brodie abscess is a small intraosseous abscess that frequently involves the cortex and is walled off by reactive bone
47
Q

Explain the clinical feature of pyogenic osteomyelitis

A

A) Acute systemic illness with

 - fever , chills , leukocytosis 
 - throbbing pain in affected region 

B) Acute flare ups
- mark up the clinical course of chronic infection

48
Q

Describe the hemophilia A & B ( inheritance , defects and clinical manifestations )

A

Defects

  • Hemophilia A : defect in factor VIII
  • Hemophilia B : defects in factor IX

Inheritance

  • both are X-linked recessive disorder
  • Females are carriers

Clinical manifestations

  • deep bleeding ( haemarthrosis , soft tissue haemorrhage , muscle hepatomas )
  • intracranial haemorrhage ( rare )
49
Q

Describe how haemophilia A and B are diagnosed

A

Hemophilia A

  • bleeding time normal ( platelet count & function normal )
  • clotting time increased
  • aPTT increased
  • PT normal
  • Factor VIII clotting assay : decreased factor VIII

Hemophilia B

  • same as above except for decreased factor IX
  • less common
50
Q

State the functions of von Willebrand factor

A

1) Aid in platelet adhesion

2) Involved in transport & stabilisation of factor VIII

51
Q

Describe the lab diagnosis of von Willebrand disease

A

1) prolonged bleeding time
: due to abnormal platelet aggregation

2) Normal platelet count

3) APTT slightly prolonged
- due to loss of factor VIII
- as vWF involved in stabilisation & transport of factor VIII

4) PT normal
5) RIPA normal ( riscocetin induced platelet aggregation test )
6) Slightly decreased factor VIII
7) Decreased vWF

52
Q

State the classification of vWD

A

1) Type I
- partial quantitative deficiency of vWF

2) Type II
- qualitative deficiency of vWF

3) Type III
- complete deficiency of vWF

53
Q

Describe the aetiopathogenesis of Hodgkin’s lymphoma

A
  • believed to arise from neoplasm of germinal centre B- cells ( Reed- Sternberg cells )
  • associated with Epstein Barr virus
  • RS cell release cytokines ( IL-5 , TGF , IL-13 ) which generates non neoplastic inflammatory infiltrates
54
Q

Describe the appearance of Reed - Sternberg cells and its variant.

A
  • Tumour giant cell w/ bilobed nucleus appearing as mirror image to each other
  • nucleus has a large, prominent, eosinophilia nucleolus w/ a clear halo around it giving it an owl’ eye appearance
  • cytoplasm is abundant & amphophilic
- variants : 
I) classical RS cell 
II) lacunar-type RS cell 
III) polyploid all / popcorn type RS cell 
IV) pleomorphic RS cell 
V) mummified variant 
VI) Mononuclear variant ( Hodgkin cell )
55
Q

Describe the nodular sclerosis Hodgkin’s lymphoma

A
  • most common histological form ( 65 -70% of cases )
  • Lacunar- type RS cells are seen
  • Presence of eosinophilia collagen bands which divide the lymphoid tissue into nodules
  • Cellular infiltrate contains lymphocytes, eosinophils , histiocytes and lacunar cells
  • Excellent prognosis
56
Q

Describe mixed cellularity Hodgkin’s lymphoma

A
  • second commonest
  • presence of typical RS cells w/ variants
  • presence of cellular infiltrates ( eosinophils , lymphocytes , plasma cells , neutrophils , histiocytes )
57
Q

Describe the lymphocytes- rich , lymphocyte- depleted and lymphocyte- predominant HL

A

1) Lymphocyte rich
- predominant cells are reactive lymphocytes
- bilobed or mononuclear RS cells seen

) Lymphocyte- depleted

  • least common form & worst prognosis
  • paucity of lymphocytes
  • abundance of pleomorphic RS cells

3) Lymphocyte- predominant
- comprised of small lymphocytes & macrophages
- popcorn RS cell or lymphohistiocytic cells variant are seen.

58
Q

Describe the clinical features of Hodgkin’s lymphoma

A

1) Occurs in 20-40 yrs , >50 yes ( bimodal age distribution )

2) Lymphadenopathy in upper 1/2 of body
- involves cervical , axillary sites

3) Lymph nodes are enlarged , discrete & Mobile
- mediastinal involvement in 50 %of pt
- may lead to respiratory difficulties

4) Fever
5) Night sweat
6) Weight loss
7) Reed-Sternberg cell

59
Q

Describe the Pathogenesis Burkitt’s lymphoma

A
  • associated w/ translocation b/w chromosome 8 and 14
  • myc gene on CH 8 translocates to CH14 resulting in fusion of Myc & IgH causing overexpression of the myc transcription factor
  • also associated with EBV
60
Q

Describe the histological features of Burkitt’s lymphoma

A

1) Low power
- starry - sky appearance — macrophages surrounded by a clear space
- sheets of neoplastic lymphoid cell

2) High power
- tumor cells of intermediate size w/ rounds oval nuclei & 2-5 distinct nucleoli
- moderate amt. of basophillic/ amophillic cytoplasms
- cytoplasms contains lipid-filled vacuoles
- very high mitotic activity and apoptosis

61
Q

A complication which may arise in Hemophilia A patients received infusion treatment is (………………)

A

A complication which may arise in Hemophilia A patients received infusion treatment is ( the development of IgG autoantibodies which neutralise the foreign infused component )

62
Q

Classify the osteoporosis

A

Primary :

  • Post menopausal
  • Senile ( aged )
  • Idiopathic

Secondary
I) Endocrine discorder : hyperparathyroidism , hyperthyroidism , hypothyroidism, hypogonadism

II) Neoplasia : multiple myeloma

III) GIT : malnutrition , malabsorption , hepatic insufficiency , Vitamic C & D deficiency

IV) Drugs : anticoagulants , chemotherapy , corticosteroids

V) Miscellaneous : osteogenesis imperfecta , immobilisation

63
Q

Explain the Pathogenesis of osteoporosis

A

A) Age related changes
: osteoblasts from elderly reduced proliferation and biosynthetic potential
: Proteins bound to the extracellular matrix lose their biological punch overtime
- causes diminished capacity to make bone

B) Reduced Physical Activity
- Increase rate of bone loss because mechanical force stimulate normal bone remodelling

C)Genetic factor

  • 60%- 80% of variation in bone density is genetically determined
  • Associated gene : RANKL , OPG & RANK ( key regulator osteoclast )

D) Nutritional state
- calcium deficiency , increase PTH , reduces vitamin D

E)Menopause :

  • Decreased serum estrogen
  • Increased IL-1 , IL-6 , TNF levels
  • Increased expression of RANK , RANKL
  • Increased osteoclast activity
64
Q

Explain the clinical features of osteoporosis

A

Major affect major weight bearing and stress areas :

I) Vertebral bodies : changes in shape , decreased height , compression fractures

II) Decreased in overall height of the individual and abnormal vertebral curvature ( Kyphosis )

III) Femoral neck : predisposes to pathological fractures ( Fracture from minimal trauma )
IV ) Osteoporotic vertebral body : character loss of horizontal trabecular and thickened vertical trabeculae

V)Complications : pulmonary embolism and pneumonia

65
Q

Paget disease can divided into 3 phases : ( ………) , (……….) , (………)

A

Paget disease can divided into 3 phases : ( osteolytic phase) , ( mixed phase ), ( osteosclerotic phase )

66
Q

Explain the pathological features of paget disease ( osteitis deformans )

A
  • Serum calcium concentration normal
  • Alkaline phosphatase elevated —> reflecting the osteoblastic activity

Gross : Characteristic thickening and deformity

Histology :

  • Irregular treabecular bone
  • Hallmark is Mosaic Pattern of lamellar bone
  • jigsaw puzzle appearance is produced by prominent cement lines that anneal haphazardly oriented units of lamellar bone
67
Q

Describe the complications of Paget Disease

A

A) Deformities ( although bone is thick , it lacks strength ; fractures can lead to deformity )

B) Bone pain

C) Fractures

D) Nerve or spinal cord compression

E) Deafness ( hearing loss is caused by narrowing auditory foramen or direct involvement of the bones of middle ear )

F) Osteosarcoma

G) Heart failure ( high output cardiac failure can result from multiple functional arterioveneous shunts within highly vascular early lesions )

68
Q

Classify bone tumours

A

1) Benign tumours :
I) Osteochondroma ( exostosis)
II) Osteoma
III)Osteoid osteoma

2) Borderline tumours ( locally aggressive or recurrent )
I) Giant cell tumour ( osteoclastoma )
II) Osteoblastoma

3) Malignant tumours ( locally aggressive , frequently metastasise )
I) Osteosarcoma
II) Chondrosarcoma
III) Ewing’s sarcoma

4) Metastases commonly from :
- breast , lung , prostate , kidney , thyroid

5) Myeloma ( multiple myeloma )

69
Q

Name the site of origin of Osteosarcoma

A
  • End of long bones ( classically around the knee )

- Mostly in the metaphysis of long bone

70
Q

Name the site of origin of Chondrosarcoma

A
  • Predominantly affect the axial skeleton : pelvis , ribs , scapula , sternum , and spine
  • In tubular bone mainly arise from proximal metaphyseal region
71
Q

Name the site of origin of Giant cell tumour ( osteoclastoma )

A
  • Epiphyseal ends of long bones

- 50% are around knee joint ( distal femur , proximal tibia , distal radius , and proximal humerus )

72
Q

Name the site of origin of Ewing sarcoma

A

Diaphysis of long bones

73
Q

Explain the morphology and radiograph of osteosarcoma

A

Gross : Bulky , Gritty , gray-white with areas of haemorrhage , and cystic degeneration . Destroy surrounding cortex and produce soft tissue mass. May penetrate the epiphyses plate or enter the joint.

Histology : Neoplastic tumour cells/ sarcoma cells with lace like formation of osteoid around them

: tumours composed of malignant mesenchymal cells that produce osteoid , often in an irregular , lace like pattern

: tumour cells have large , hyperchromatic nuclei , bizarre giant cells , atypical mitosis , vascular invasion

Radiograph

: Mixed lytic & blastic mass with infiltration margins

: Codman Triangle - Triangular shadow btw the cortex and raised periosteum ends.

  • Tumour breaks through the cortex and lifts the periosteum with reactive periosteum bone formation ( a sunburst appearance )
  • It is an indicative of aggressive tumour
74
Q

Explain the Clinical course of OS

A

Clinical features : Tenderness / pain of affected region.
: With or without a palpable mass
: Fractures
: Distant metastasis ( lung )

  • OS is treated by multimodality methods - pre operative CHEMOTHERAPY followed by surgery

Poor prognosis ( 5 years survival is about 60% without metastasis ; <20 % 5 years survival with secondary OS )

75
Q

Explain the morphology and radiograph of Chondrosarcoma

A

Morphology :
Microscopy : conventional Chondrosarcoma

  • Malignant cartilage infiltrates the marrow space and surrounds the bony trabeculae.
  • Lobules of cartilage with anaplastic chondrocytes in the lacunae with focal ossification and calcification.
  • The tumors vary in cellularity, cytologies atypia, and mitotic activity & assigned Grade 1-3

Grade 1 : low cellularity ,chondrocytes have plump vesicular nuclei with small nucleoli.
Grade 3 : high cellularity , extreme pleomorphism with bizarre tumor giant cells and mitoses.

Radiology :

  • Lytic lesion with blotchy calcification
  • Calcified cartilage appears as foci of flocculent densities that may destroy the cortex and form a soft tissue mass.
76
Q

Explain the morphology and radiology of Osteoclastoma

A

Morphology :

Gross : Chocolate brown , soft spongy , and friable with cystic cavities filled with blood

Microscopic : Stromal cells and multinucleated osteoclast-like giant cells
- Multinucleate giant cell are plenty against a mononuclear cell background which may be round , oval or spindle shape cells

Radiology
- soap-bubble appearance on x-ray

77
Q

Explain the clinical course of osteoclastoma

A

-locally aggressive

Complication

  • Transformation to sarcoma ( appearance of soft tissue shadows , demarcations with the healthy bone is lost, tumor looks hazy )
  • Lung metastasis ( Chest X ray )

Prognosis

  • Good
  • Death mainly due to lung metastasis
78
Q

Explain the morphology and radiology of Ewings Sarcoma

A

Gross
- Grey white soft and friable

Microscopic
-Small round cell tumor with fibrous septa dividing the tumor into lobules .These tumor cells are arranged around capillaries. ( pseudorosette pattern )

  • cytoplasmic glycogen is positive for PAS

X-ray
- cortical widening and thickening of the medullary canal.

-Reactive periosteum bone may be deposited in layers parallel to the cortex ( onion-skin appearance ) or at right angles to it ( sun-ray appearance )

79
Q

Explain the clinical feature and clinical course of Ewing’s Sarcomas

A

Features : Fever , pain , history of trauma , tenderness , swelling , warm and tender

Diagnosis

  • Integration of clinical , radiographic, immunohistochemical and molecular information
  • Small round cell morphology
  • CD99 diffuse membranous expression
  • leukocytosis

Clinical course
Metastasis
- By hematogenous route to brain , lungs , liver and other bones

  • poor prognosis