B2 Flashcards

1
Q

Define thrombosis

A

A pathological process which denotes the formation of a blood clot in intact vessels due to inappropriate activation of normal haemostatic process

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2
Q

State the cause of thrombosis

A

VIRCHOW’s TRIAD :
I) Endothelial injury
- over loss of endothelium exposes subendothelial ECM —> leads to platelet adhesion , release of tissue factor ( factor III , procoagulant ) and reduces local production of PGI2 ( anticoagulant ) and plasminogen activators ( anticoagulants )
- may be induced by hypertension, bacterial products , radiation injury , hypercholesterolemia, homocystinuria , toxins of cigarette smoke.

2) Abnormal blood flow
-turbulence contributes to arterial & cardiac thrombosis by causing endothelial injury or dysfunction
- stasis contributes to development of venous thrombi
- How?
I) turbulence & stasis promotes endothelial cell activation & enhanced procoagulant activity by altering endothelial gene expression
II) stasis allows platelets & WBC to come into contact with endothelium when the flow is sluggish
III) stasis also prevents washout of activated clotting factors & inhibits inflow of clotting factor inhibitors
- example : hyperviscosity syndromes eg polycythemia; sickle cell anemia which cause vascular occlusion resulting in stasis

3) Hypercoagulability
- defined as the alteration of coagulation pathways that predispose affected person to thrombosis
- may be genetic ( example : Factor V mutation , prothrombin gene mutation ) or acquired ( oral contraceptive use , hyperestrogenic state of pregnancy , tumors , smoking & obesity )

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3
Q

Describe the Pathogenesis of arterial & venous thrombosis

A

Arterial
- due to formation of atheromatous plaque on the intimal surface of any artery —>enlarges —> protrudes into lumen —> causes turbulence in blood flow & loss of intimal endothelial cells ->exposure to subendothelial ECM —> cause fibrin deposition & platelet clumping with RBCs —> thrombus formation

Venous

  • occurs at valves which protrude into the vessel lumen & produces a degree of turbulence
  • veins can get damaged by trauma , stasis & occlusion
  • coralline / laminated growths are seen

Atheromatous —> accumulation of macrophages ( foam cells ) , lipids , debris , calcium and CT

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4
Q

Venous thrombosis are more serious than arterial thrombosis as they can embolize & leads to ( ……………..)

A

Venous thrombosis are more serious than arterial thrombosis as they can embolize & leads to ( pulmonary infarction & death (pulmonary embolism) )

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5
Q

Compare and contrast arterial & venous thrombosis

A

Arterial thrombosis

  • formed in areas of active blood flow
  • caused by atherosclerosis & turbulent blood flow
  • appearance : alternating lighter layers of platelets & fibrins with darker red cell rich layer

Venous thrombosis

  • formed in areas of sluggish / static blood flow
  • caused by venous stasis
  • appear dark-red with greater concentration of red cells
  • Ill-defined laminations (lines of Zahn )

: lines of Zahn
—> pale : platelets
—> dark red : fibrin , RBCs , Leucocytes

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6
Q

Describe the possible fates of thrombus

A

1) Propagation
- thrombus grows in size —> expand to obstruct the entire lumen

2) Embolization
- thrombus dislodges to distal sites in the vasculature & form embolus
- arterial thrombus leads to systemic embolism
- venous thrombus leads to pulmonary embolism ( most dangerous )

3) Dissolution
- thrombi is removed by fibrolytic activity , typically occurring within the first day or two
- as the thrombi ages , it becomes more resistant to fibrinolysis due to continued polymerisation

4) Recanalization
- older thrombi get organised by ingrowth of endothelial cells , SMC & fibroblast
- capillary channels form within the old thrombi, creating conduits along the length of the thrombus & reestablishing the continuity of the original lumen .

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7
Q

Describe the clinical effects of thrombi

A

1) Obstruct arteries & veins
2) Acts as possible source of emboli ( others bring amniotic fluid , gases & fat )

Arterial thrombi

  • can embolize & cause tissue infarction
  • can also obstruct critical vessels (eg : coronary & cerebral )

Venous thrombi

  • most occur in the superficial or deep veins of the leg
  • leads to local congestion & swelling predisposing the overlying skin to infection & ulcers
  • deep venous thromboses ( DVTs) occur in the larger leg veins above the knee joints ( eg : popliteal, femoral & iliac veins ) — more prone to embolize
  • may embolize to lung & cause death ( pulmonary embolism )
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8
Q

Define the term embolus

A

An embolus is a detached , intravascular solid , liquid or gaseous mass that is carried by blood to a site distant from the point of origin.

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9
Q

Describe thromboembolism ( aetiopathogenesis , clinical effects , consequences )

A
  • may be pulmonary or systemic

Pulmonary thromboembolism’s
I) aetiopathogenesis
- commonly ( 95%) originate from the deep vein of the leg ( DVT ) proximal to the popliteal fossa -> travel to right side of heart —> lodge in main truck of pulmonary artery or the bifurcation of pulmonary arteries ( saddle embolus ) —> pulmonary infarct & death

II) significance

  • most emboli are small —> get reorganized
  • if >60% pulmonary circulation is blocked , right heart failure & sudden death will occur
  • emboli obstruction of medium sized arteries leads to haemorrhage due to anoxia , but will not cause infarction due to dual bronchial circulation
  • multiple small emboli can cause pulmonary hypertension with right heart failure ( Cor pulmonale)

II) systemic

  • commonly arise from intracardiac mural thrombi ( 80% ) , aortic aneurysm , fragmented valvular vegetations, thrombi overlying ulcerated atherosclerotic plaques ( basically in the arteries )
  • lodges anywhere in blood circulation eg lower extremities (75%) , CNS ( 10%) , organs — whereas venous emboli typically lodge in the lungs
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10
Q

Describe air/gas embolisms

A

I) Aetiopathogenesis

  • may be caused by IV infusion of air bubbles , chest wall injuries , obstetric or laparoscopic procedures
  • causes gas bubbles to form in the circulation —> coalesce to form frothy masses to obstruct vascular flow
  • Examples :
    I) Decompression sickness / the bends —> in areas of great pressure examples : underwater , gases dissolved in tissue & fluid . Upon rapid resurfacing , gases expand in the tissue & bubbles out of the solution in the blood to form gas emboli which can lead to tissue ischemia ;

II) Caissons disease —> more chronic form of decompression sickness —> persistence of gas emboli in skeletal system leads to multiple foci of ischemic necrosis , common sites are the femoral heads , tibia & humeri.

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11
Q

Describe amniotic fluid embolism

A

I) Aetiopathogenesis

  • A complication of labor & immediate post-partum period
  • ruptured uterine vessels or placental membrane —> causes amniotic fluid to enter into maternal circulation

II) Clinical signs & symptoms

  • dyspnoea , cyanosis , seizure , shock & coma
  • pulmonary edema & DIC may occur after due to release of thrombogenic substances in amniotic fluid
  • diffuse alveolar damage occur later
  • squamous cells , hair , fat and mucin may be found in maternal circulation
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12
Q

Describe fat embolism & fat embolism syndrome ( aetiopathogenesis , clinical symptoms )

A

I) Aetiopathogenesis

  • due to trauma to long bones ( eg : vigorous CPR ) , soft tissue crush trauma & burns
  • cause release of microscopic fat globules into blood vessels —> leads to mechanical obstruction & biochemical injury of endothelium ( fat embolism syndrome )

I) Mechanical obstruction
- due to presence of fat emboli itself & also associated RBC & platelet aggregation , causing the occlusion of cerebral & pumonary microvasculature
II) biochemical injury
- due to release of fatty acids —> cause local toxic injury to endothelium
- platelet aggregation & granulocytes recruitment ( with release to proteases , ROS & eicosanoids ) —> futher damaged to vascularity.

** usually fat embolism ( 90% ) are cleared away with little clinical manifestations but 10% develop fat embolism syndrome

II) Clinical symptoms

  • anemia due to increase in phosphatidase A enzyme & RBC aggregation
  • thrombocytopenia
  • neurological symptoms
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13
Q

Define infarction

A

An area of ischemic necrosis caused by occlusion of either arterial supply or venous drainage in a particular tissue

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14
Q

State the causes of infarcts

A

1) Thromboembolism’s ( 99%)
2) Tumors causing compression of a vessel

3) Twisting of vessel
- eg : testicular , ovarian torsion , bowel volvulus

4) Local vasospams

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15
Q

State the classification of infarcts

A

1) Based on Color
I) red infarcts
II) white infarcts

2) Based on presence of microorganism
I) bland - No m/o
II) septic - m/o present

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16
Q

Red infarcts commonly occur in :
I) ( …………..)
II) (………….)
III) (…….)

White infarcts commonly occur in :
I) (…………….)

A

Red infarcts commonly occur in :
I) ( venous occlusion ( testicular , ovarian torsions ) )
II) ( loose tissue ( lungs ) , in which blood can collect in infarcted zones )
III) ( tissue with dual circulation ( lungs , SI ) )

White infarcts commonly occur in :
I) ( arterial occlusion in solid organs ( heart , kidney , spleen ) in which the tissue density limits the seepage of blood from adjacent patent vascular beds )

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17
Q

Describe the morphology of an infarct

A

( applies to both red and white infarct )

1) Gross
- wedges shape with the occluded vessel located at the apex and serosal surface of the organ forming the base.
- serosal surface may have overlying fibrinous exudates
- margins of the infarct defined by a narrow rim of hyperaemia

2) Histological
- coagulative necrosis
- areas of inflammation ( IF cells , edema ) followed by tissue repair ( granulation tissue ) which is ultimately replaced by scar tissue
- neutrophils present within 12 hrs, followed by macrophages within 3 days then fibroblasts & scar tissue formation by 1st week
- in brain it is liquefactive necrosis

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18
Q

Describe the factor that influence infarct development

A

1) Nature of blood supply to the organ
- organs with dual blood supply are less susceptible to infarcts ( lungs , pulmonary & bronchial arteries ; liver hepatic artery & portal vein; hand & forearm , radial & ulnar arteries )

2) Rate of occlusion
- slowly developing occlusion are less likely to cause infarction as there is enough time for development of collateral blood supplies
- example : small interarteriolar anastamoses that interconnect the 3 major coronary arteries, if 1 major artery is slowly occluded ( eg : encroaching atherosclerosis plaque ) , blood flows is increased in the collateral sufficient to prevent infarction

3) Vulnerability of tissue to ischemia
- how long the tissue can withstand a lack of blood supply
- neurons —> more susceptible to infarction when deprived of blood supply ( 3-4 min )
- myocardial cells - die after 20-30 mins of ishchemia
- fibroblasts within myocardium — remains viable after many hours of ischemia

4) O2 content of blood
- conditions like cyanosis , hypoxia , anemia increases likelihood of infarction , especially if blood flow is occluded.

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19
Q

Define shock

A

A state of systemic tissue hypoperfusion resulting from decreased cardiac output and or decreased effective circulating blood volume

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20
Q

Classify the types of shock

A

1) Hypovolemic
- due to decrease blood or plasma volume
- ex: massive haemorrhage , burns , vomiting , diarrhea

2) Cardiogenic
- due to decreased cardiac output
- ex: myocardial infarction , cardiac tamponade , cardiac arrhythmia , pulmonary embolism

3) Septic
- sepsis cause the massive outpouring of inflammatory mediators
- systemic vasodilation and pooling of the blood is seen
- flushing of the skin is seen — in all other forms of shock vasoconstriction ( pallor ) is seen so as to preserve blood supply to vital organs.
- ex: bacterial infections

4) Neurogenic
- loss of vascular tone
- due to anaesthesia, spinal cord injury

5) Anaphylactic
- due by IgE mediated hypersensitivity reactions
- causes systemic vasodilation & increased vascular permaebility

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21
Q

Describe the pathogensis of shock

A

1) Initial , non progressive stage
- reflex compensatory (neurohormonal ) mechanism are activated to increase BV & BP ( eg baroreceptor reflex, ADH release , sympathetic stimulation, release of catecholamine, activation of RAAS system )
- blood is routed to vital organs ( brain , kidneys , heart )
- net effect : tachycardia, peripheral vasoconstriction leading to pallor , renal conservation of fluid

2) Progressive stage
- tissue experience significant hypoxia —> ATP depletion —> anaerobic respiration takes over —> lactic acid buildup —> pH of blood decrease & impairs vasomotor responses —> causes vasodilation & pooling of the blood
- this leads to decreased effective circulatory blood volume & favours anoxic injury to endothelial cells , leading to DIC
- can be reversed by proper treatment
- effects : oliguria , mental confusion

3) Irreversible stage
- occurs following severe cellular & tissue injury
- death usually occur even if hemodynamic defects are corrected
- widespread cell injury —> leakage of lysozymes leads to necrosis —> multi organ failure

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22
Q

Describe the organ changes in shock ( morphology )

A

** hypoxic tissue injury is seen due to lack of perfusion to tissue

1) Kidney
- gross :
I) Cortex : enlarged , pale & widened
II) medulla : red congested & cyanotic
iii) Corticosteroids-medullary junction : well defined
- histology : necrosis of tubular epithelial cell are seen ( ischemic acute tubular necrosis )

2) Brain
- gross :
I) overall it become enlarged , swollen , with muddy discolouration
II) Gyri are widened , sulci are narrowed
III) demarcation between gray & white matter are I’ll defined in cut section

3) Heart
- subendothelial haemorrhage & necrosis is seen

4) Lungs
- gross : heavy , firm , red , boggy
- histology : accumulation of pale pink fluid in alveolar space , fibrin deposition , presence of alveolar hyaline membrane ( composed of fibrin & necrotic epithelial cells )

5) Adrenal gland
- cortical cell lipid depletion

6) GIT
- Petechial haemorrhage on serosal surface is seen

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23
Q

Define edema

A

Abnormal accumulation of fluid in the tissue space (edema ) or body cavities ( effusion )

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24
Q

Describe the Pathogenesis of edema

A

4 reasons :

1) Due to increased hydrostatic pressure
- results from impaired venous return (CCF , constrictive pericarditis , venous thrombosis , lower extremity inactivity ) and arteriolar dilation ( heat , neurohumoral dysregulation )
- for ex : in CCF , CO is reduced —> renal hypoperfusion —> RAAS system activated to increase salt & H2O retention —> but CO does not increase to compensate for extra blood volume in CCF —> lead to severe edema

2) Due to decreased colloidal oncotic ( osmotic ) pressure
- plasma proteins ( albumin ) responsible for colloidal oncotic pressure
- loss of plasma protein eg : glomerulopathies , malnutrition , liver cirrhosis , protein-losing gastroenteropathy leads to edema

3) Due to decreased lymphatic drainage
- lymphoedema occur due to localised obstruction of lymphatic drainage which can be caused by neoplasia , inflammation or radiation therapy

4) Due to salt & H2O retention
- excessive retention of salt by activation of RAAS system leads to edema as hydrostatic pressure in vessel increase ( due to increased BV ) and also reduced plasma oncotic pressure
- sodium retention occurs in scenarios like m renal hypoperfusion ( activates RAAS system ) , excessive salt intake with renal insufficiency , increased tubular reabsorption of sodium

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25
Q

Classify edema

A

Local edema

1) Acute inflammatory edema
2) Hypersensitivity (allergic ) edema
3) Edema of venous obstruction
4) Lymphatic edema

Generalised edema

1) Cardiac edema
2) Renal edema
3) Nutritional edema
4) Hepatic edema

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26
Q

Describe the clinical features of renal edema & its possible causes

A

1) Periorbital edema
2) Pitting edema

Causes

1) Acute chronic glomerulonephritis
2) Nephrotic syndrome

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27
Q

Describe the causes & morphology of pulmonary edema

A

Causes

  • left ventricular failure
  • renal failure
  • ARDS
  • Pulmonary infection
  • Hypersensitivity reaction
Morphology 
- Gross : 
I) lungs 2-3 times larger 
II) edema confined to lower lobes 
III) upon section , escape of frothy , serosanguinous fluid presenting a mixture of air , edema fluid & extravasated red cells 
  • Histology :
    I) accumulation of fluid about the septal arteries with widening of septa
    II) granular pink coagulate ( proteinaceous fluid ) within the alveolar spaces
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28
Q

Papilledema refers to the swelling of the ( ………. )
It is a sign of increased ( ……….. )

(………… ) problem may arise , including ( ………………………………………………………………..)

A

Papilledema refers to the swelling of the ( optic disc )
It is a sign of increased ( intracranial pressure )

( Vision )problem may arise , including ( short flickers of gray vision , blurred or double vision , decreased FOV or ability to see colors )

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29
Q

Describe the morphology of cerebral edema

A

Gross

  • wide gyri with flattened surface
  • narrow sulci
  • on section , white matter may appear soft & gelatinous
  • on section , peripheral gray matter is also widened
  • On section , ventricles are compressed
30
Q

In cardiac edema , the most common cause is ( ……………………. )

It is characterised by ( ………………………………………………………………………………………………… )

A

In cardiac edema , the most common cause is ( congestive heart failure )

It is characterised by ( dependent edema , which is the accumulation of edema in the subcutaneous tissue of the lower parts of the body also sacral edema )

31
Q

Compare and contrast exudate and transudate

A

Exudate

  • Oedema associated with increased vascular permaebility
  • Inflammatory edema
  • High protein content ( > 4g/dl ) , has high fibrinogen
  • high specific gravity
  • > 7.3 pH
  • High LDH
  • Highly cellular ; rich in polymorphs
  • pus seen in pyogenic infections
Transudate 
- Filtrate of blood of plasma ; no increased in permaebility 
- Non - inflammatory edema 
- Low protein content , mainly albumin 
-  <7.3pH 
- Low LDH 
X Few cells , mainly mesothelioma cells 
- Fluid in congestive cardiac failure
32
Q

Define amyloidosis

A

A condition associated with a number of hereditary and inflammatory disease in which extracellular deposits of fibrillation proteins are responsible for tissue damage and functional compromise

33
Q

Describe the Pathogenesis of amyloidosis

A
  • results from the misfolding of proteins , causing them to become insoluble , aggregate and deposit as fibrils in the extracellular tissue
  • they can be normal proteins that have an inherent tendency to misfold OR mutant proteins that are prone to misfolding & subsequent aggregation
  • normally , misfolded proteins are degraded intracellular lay in proteosome or extracellular lay by macrophages
34
Q

State the classification of amyloidosis with their associated amyloid proteins & associated disease

A
35
Q

Describe the non-specific and organ specific ( kidney , heart ,GIT , BV ) clinical manifestations of amyloidosis

A

Non specific
- weakness , weight loss , light-headedness & syncope

Organ specific

1) Kidney
- proteinuria , nephrotic syndrome , renal failure & uremia

2) Heart
- present as restrictive cardiomyopathy or conduction disturbance ( leads to arrhythmia )

3) GIT
- may be asymptomatic
- macroglossia & inelasticity of tongue —> dysarthria & dysphagia
- depositions in stomach & intestine may leads to malabsorption , diarrhea & digestion problems

4) Vascularity
- fragile BV
- sometimes AL amyloid can bind to factor X & inactivated it —> massive bleeding

36
Q

Describe the diagnosis of amyloidosis

A

Congo red

  • fat aspirates can be stained with Congo red & viewed under polarised microscope — yellow green birefringence is seen
  • pink-red-deposits seen under light microscopy

Bone marrow
- bone marrow aspirates show monoclonal plasmacytosis

Serum & urine electrophoresis and immuneelectrophoresis

Commonly biopsies site
A) Kidney
B) rectal tissue
C) gingival tissue

37
Q

Define pathologic calcification

A
  • the abnormal tissue deposition of calcium salts together with smaller amounts of iron , magnesium and other mineral salts.
38
Q

Describe the types of pathological calcification

A

1) Dystrophic
- occur in areas of necrosis of all types ( caseous , coagulative , liquefactive )
- Not related to calcium levels
- Deposition of calcium is localised
- ex: calcification of heart valves leading to aortic stenosis , atherosclerosis , tuberculous lymph nodes

2) Metastatic
- occurs in normal tissue secondary to hypercalemia
- deposition of calcium occur throughout the body but principally affects the interstitial tissues of the vasculature , kidneys ( nephrocalcinosis) , lungs and gastric mucosa
- hypercalcemia may be due to :
I) excess PTH ( tumours)
II) Excess bone resorption ( Paget’s disease , immobilisation , tumors )
III) Vitamin D related disorder ( Vit D intoxication and sarcoidosis )
IV) renal failure — phosphate retention leads to secondary hyperparathyroidism in order to elevate Ca levels in serum

39
Q

Describe the morphology of pathological calcification

A

Gross
- calcium salts appear as fine , white granules or clumps

Histological

  • basophillic , amorphous , granular deposits that may be intra or extracellular
  • heteroecious bone may sometimes be seen
  • psammoma bodies : single necrotic cells deposited with calcium in layers having laminated appearances
40
Q

Define neoplasia

A

An abnormal mass of tissue , the growth of which exceeds and is uncoordinated with that of normal tissue and persists in the same excessive manner after cessation of the stimuli which evoked the change

41
Q

Describe the components of neoplasm

A

1) Parenchyma
- consists of the proliferating neoplastic cell
- determines the nature of the tumours
- If parenchyma is excessive , neoplasm is soft & fleshy
- ex : oral carcinoma — squamous cell present , liver cancer — hepatocytes present

2) Stroma
- consists of blood vessels , CT and immune cells
- If stroma is excessive ( desmoplasia ) , tumor is stony hard (scirrhous)

42
Q

Compare benign & malignant tumors

A

Benign tumours

  • Slow growth rate
  • Low mitotic activity
  • No invasion
  • Never metastases
  • Circumscribed or encapsulated border
  • Expansile ( expand in size but not invasive )

Malignant tumours

  • rapid growth rate
  • high mitotic activity
  • have invasion
  • frequent metastases
  • poor defined or irregular
  • invade into surrounding structure
43
Q

Anaplasia is a ( ………….. ) — malignant neoplasms that are composed of ( ………… ) cells are said to be anaplastic . It is hallmark of malignancy

The morphologic features of anaplasia are :
( ……………………………)

A

Anaplasia is a ( lack of differentiation ) — malignant neoplasms that are composed of ( poorly differentiated ) cells are said to be anaplastic . It is hallmark of malignancy

The morphologic features of anaplasia are :
( I) Pleomorphism ( variation in nuclear size & shape )
II) Increased mitosis
III) Hyperchromatism
IV) Tumor giant cells formation
V) Abnormal nuclear morphology )

44
Q

Describe the morphology of tumors ( gross , histological )

A

Gross
- tumors can be :
I) sessile
II) Fungatingg/ exophytic / cauliflower- like
III) Ulcerative / excavative
IV) Annular / encircling / napkin-ring like growths
V) Sessile
VI) Polyp
- in malignant tumours , the tumours is irregular , poorly -circumscribed and may be seen invading other while in benign tumors they are usually well- circumscribed with a capsule

***** sessile & pedi curated tumou - benign tumours usually , the rest are all malignant tumours.

Histology 
I) Hyperchromasia 
II) Pleomorphism 
III) presence of giant tumor cells 
IV) abnormal ( increased ) mitosis 
V) malignant tumors — anaplastic , benign tumours — well differentiated
45
Q

Benign tumours of mesenchymal origin usually end with the suffix (………… )
Example ( ……………………)

Malignant tumors arising from mesenchymal origin are usually called ( ……………)
Example ( …………….. )

Malignant tumours arising from epithelial origin are usually called ( ………….. )
Example ( ………………….. )

A

Benign tumours of mesenchymal origin usually end with the suffix ( -oma )
Example ( fibroma , osteoma , squamous cell papilloma ) except : hematoma , melanoma , lymphoma )

Malignant tumors arising from mesenchymal origin are usually called ( sarcomas )
Example ( chondrosarcoma , leiosarcoma )

Malignant tumours arising from epithelial origin are usually called ( carcinomas )
Example ( squamous cell carcinoma , basal cell carcinoma , transitional cell carcinoma )

46
Q

Mutations in these classes of genes can cause cancer. Mention theses genes

A

1) Growth -promoting proto-oncogenes
2) Growth-suppressing tumors suppressor genes
3) Apoptosis regulating genes
4) DNA repair genes

47
Q

Describe the models that are used to explain the heterogenecity of tumor cells ( cancer stem cell model and the clonal evolution model )

A

Cancer stem cell (CSC) model

  • tumors consists of cells that can initiate tumors (CSC) and cells that arise from CSCs but cannot form tumors
  • cancer stem cells are a rare subset of tumors cells that have the ability to self renew & generate diverse tumor cells
  • CSCs may have different sensitivities to radiation or chemotherapy

Clonal evolution model

  • mutant tumor cells with a growth advantage ( cause by mutations ) are selected and expanded
  • different tumors cells can get different mutation which give rise to different sub population which can further mutate & divide , causing heterogencity.
  • all cells in the dominant populations have a similar potential for initiating tumor growth ( No CSC-like ability )
  • hence neoplasms are said to be clonal proliferation due to their presumed single cell origin

** Bith are not mutually exclusive as CSCs themselves can undergo clonal evolution — hence more dominant CSCs can emerge if a mutation confers if a mutation confers more aggressive properties

48
Q

State & briefly describe the hallmark of cancer

A

1) Sustaining proliferative signalling
- cancer cells produce their own growth factor which they are responsible to — unlimited proliferation + cell growth ( eg : glioblastoma secrete PDGF and also express PDGF receptor )
- cancer cell can also activate nearby normal cells in the stroma to release GF

2) Evading growth suppressor
- due to mutation of tumor-suppressor genes

3) Activation invasion & metastasis
- local invasion of ECM
- Spread to distant sites via lymph & circulatory system ( vascular dissemination )

4) Enabling replicative immortality
- most cells have limited number of cell division due to shortening of telomeres
- cancer cells can maintain the length of telomeres with help of telomeres

5) Resisting cell death
- caused by mutation in apoptosis regulating genes

6) Inducing angiogenesis
- tumors require blood supply to ensure adequate O2 and nutrients for growth

7) Avoiding immune destruction
- tumor cells downregulate tumor antigens on cell membrane

8) Deregulating cellular energetic
- cancer cells switch from oxidative phosphorylation to aerobic glycolysis
- all glucose used instead for nucleic acid & lipid synthesis at the expense of ATP production

9) Genome instability and mutation
10) Tumor - promoting inflammation

49
Q

State the classification of proto-oncogenes based on their function

A

A) Genes coding for growth factors
- eg : sis gene coding for PDGF

B) Genes coding for growth factor receptor
- eg : erb-b gene coding for epidermal growth factor receptor ( EGFR)

C) Genes that code for intracellular signal transduction molecule
- eg : ras gene coding for Ras protein

D) Genes that code for nuclear-binding transcription factors

  • transcription factors binds to DNA to stimulate transcription for gene
  • eg : C-myc gene

E) Genes that codes for cell cycle regulator
- eg m cycling & cdks , kinase inhibitor

F) Genes that code for apoptosis inhibitor
- eg : bcl2

50
Q

Describe the oncogene activation by gene amplication with an example

A
  • seen in neuroblastoma
  • ~200 copies of MYCN gene is seen within a neuroblastoma
  • MYCN is a oncogenic transcript or factor
51
Q

Describe the oncogene activation by chromosome rearrangement with example

A

1) Follicular lymphoma
- translocation of IgH enhancer from chromosome 14 to chromosome 18 , induces massive transcription of bcl2 ( anti-apoptotic ) ( t (14:18) IgH: Bcl2 )

2) Chronic myeloid leukaemia
- result in formation of Philadelphia chromosome
- formed by the fusion of BCR gene of chromosome 22 and ABL gene of chromosome 9, resulting in production of hybrid protein which has constitutively active tyrosine kinase — increase cell division
- treated with tyrosine kinase inhibitor — imatinib

52
Q

State some examples of tumor suppressor genes

A

RB: codes for retinoblastoma protein

P53: guardian of genome

  • APC
  • BRCA1
53
Q

Describe the mechanism of action of RB protein and how it’s mutation can lead to cancer

A
  • tumor suppressing protein
  • when cell proliferation is inactive , RBC is in non-phosphorylated / activated form , it binds E2F , preventing the expression of S phase genes
  • when cell proliferation occurs , binding of cyclin D1 to cdk4 leads to formation of a protein-kinase complex , which cause phosphorylation of Rb, causing it to disassociate with E2F .
  • When E2F is unbound , S phase genes can be expressed / transcribed , leading to cell proliferation.
  • Hence mutation of Rb gene ( leads to inactivation ) will cause uncontrolled cell division
54
Q

Describe p53 and how it’s mutation can lead to cancer

A
  • tumor suppressor gene ( guardian of genome )
  • wild type ( normal ) p53 gene detect DNA damage and stops cell cycle progression , giving time for the cell to repair any DNA damage before they divide
  • if DNA damage is too severe -p53 remains high —> apoptosis
    • if DNA damage is repaired , p53, & p21 decrease -> cyclin-CD4 can phosphorylase RBC to release E2F —> S phase genes turned on & cell proliferation occurs

MOA :
p53 is a tumour suppressor that is induced in response to DNA damage.
p53 activation -> induction of p21 -> inhibition of Rb phosphorylation -> suppression of E2F activity

-Mutation of p53 gene -> no p21 -> phosphorylation of Rb occurs ( gets inactivated ) -> E2F unbound -> transcription of S-phase gene -> uncontrolled cell division

55
Q

Define Carcinogenesis

A

Carcinogenesis is the process that results in the transformation of normal cells to neoplastic cells by causing permanent genetic alterations

56
Q

Describe oncoviruses

A

Viruses that can cause cancer

  • 2 types : DNA & RNA viruses
  • DNA viruses :
    I) Epstein -Barr virus — associated with nasopharyngeal cancer , Burkitt’s lymphoma
    II) hepatitis B&C virus — associated with hepatocellualr carcinoma

2) RNA virus
- retrovirus like human T cell lymphotrophic virus-1 ( HTLV-1 ) — associated with adult T cell leukaemia
III) human papilloma virus ( HPV) — associated with cervical carcinoma and common warts

57
Q

Describe how DNA and RNA viruses can cause cancer

A

DNA virus

  • upon entering the host cell , genome (DNA) gets integrated into host genome
  • results in host cell expression of viral mRNA coding for viral protein

RNA virus

  • upon entering host cell , a DNA copy of RNA genome is formed via reverse transcription with reverse transcriptase enzyme
  • get incorporated into host genome —> expression of viral mRNA -> viral protein formed
58
Q

Describe the mechanism of action of chemical Carcinogenesis

A

Initiation stage

  • involves reaction b/w a carcinogen and DNA
  • carcinogens include : chemicals , radiation or viruses
  • 2 or more carcinogens can acts together as cocarcinogens

Promotion stage

  • involves promoters ( hormones , drugs , which stimulate cell proliferation , creating more clonal proliferation of the initiated cell & enhances the carcinogenic process )
  • a promoter itself is not carcinogenic
  • accumulation of mutations in the clones can leads to development of malignant tumours
59
Q

Radiation Carcinogenesis involves ( ……………………. ) and ( ………………………)

  • Exposure to UV rays is associated with increased incidence of ( ……………………………..)
  • The degree of risk depends on the ( …………………..) , (……………….) and (………………) ( darker has lower risk of cancer )
A

Radiation Carcinogenesis involves ( electromagnetic ( UV , X-ray , y-ray ) and ( particulate ( protons , neutrons , a and B particles ) radiation )

  • Exposure to UV rays is associated with increased incidence of ( squamous cell carcinoma , basal cell carcinoma and melanoma )
  • The degree of risk depends on the ( wavelength of UV rays ) , ( intensity of exposure ) and ( skin pigmentation ) ( darker has lower risk of cancer )
60
Q

Hormone such as ( …………….) can leads to mammary and endometrial carcinoma , while ( ………………………. ) can leads to hepatocellular carcinoma.

Bacteria such as ( …………………. ) causes gastric adenocarcinoma and MALT lymphomas

Mycotoxins ( ………………… ) produced by ( …………………… ) causes hepatocellular carcinoma

Parasites like ( …………………. ) causes bladder cancer , while liver flukes — ( ……………………) and (…………………….) causes cholangiocarcinoma

A

Hormone such as ( exogenous estrogen ) can leads to mammary and endometrial carcinoma , while ( androgenic and anabolic steroids) can leads to hepatocellular carcinoma.

Bacteria such as ( Helicobacter pylori ) causes gastric adenocarcinoma and MALT lymphomas

Mycotoxins ( aflatoxins ) produced by ( Aspergillus flavours ) causes hepatocellular carcinoma

Parasites like ( Schistossoma haematobium ) causes bladder cancer , while liver flukes — ( Opisthorcis viverrini) and (Clonorchris sinensis ) causes cholangiocarcinoma

61
Q

Describe the multistep theory of Carcinogenesis

A
  • more than 1 carcinogen and 6-7 DNA changes required for the complete neoplastic transformation of a cell
  • usually involves at least one active oncogenes and loss of function of several tumor suppressing genes
  • involves initiation , promotion which causes the cell to transform and a progression stage that results in the malignant phenotype due to acc of mutations
  • once the mutations is established , neoplastic behaviour does not require the continued presence of the carcinogen— hit and run situation
  • evidence of the causative agent is usually not identified in the tumor

Theories that account for heterogeneity & differences in regenerative capacity of tumours :
I) Clonal evolution model
II) Cancer stem cell (CSC) model

62
Q

State the definition of metastasis

A

It is spread of tumors from a primary sites and their establishments at distant secondary locations

63
Q

Metastases of epithelial tumors ( carcinoma ) are easier to identify because ( ……………………………………………….. )

Metastases of CT tumors ( sarcomas ) are more difficult to identify because there is a lack of (…………. ) Instead , evidence of ( ………………. ) ; or other histological features such as ( …………….. ) are used to assess metastases.

A

Metastases of epithelial tumors ( carcinoma ) are easier to identify because ( the basement membrane serves as a line of demarcation between the tissue boundaries. if the BM is broken , it means that the epithelial tumours has metastasized )

Metastases of CT tumors ( sarcomas ) are more difficult to identify because there is a lack of( basement membrane ) Instead , evidence of ( vascular or lymphatic permeation ) ; or other histological features such as ( mitotic activity ) are used to assess metastases.

64
Q

List the pathway of spread of cancer

A

1) Seeding of body cavities
2) Lymphatic spread
3) Hematogenous spread

65
Q

Describe the spread of cancer through seeding of cavities & surfaces

A
  • occurs when a malignant neoplasm penetrates a natural ‘ open fields ‘ lacking physical barrier such as the peritoneal , pleural and peepricardial cavities , subarachnoid & joint spaces
  • eg , transcoelomic spread which is the dissemination of malignant tumors throughout the surface & organs of the abdominal & pelvic cavities h which are covered by the peritoneum )
  • characterised of ovarian carcinomas which can spread to the peritoneum causing a heavy cancerous
66
Q

Describe the hematogenous spread of cancer & the commonest sites involved

A
  • commonest method of spread by sarcomas — but also seen in carcinomas
  • involves are usually small veins due to their thinner walls

Commonest site (LLBB)

  • liver
  • Lung
  • brain
  • bone
67
Q

Hypercalcemia can result from squamous cell carcinomas due to production of ( ……………. ) ,( ……………….) , (………… ) ,( ………)

A

Hypercalcemia can result from squamous cell carcinomas due to production of ( parathyroid hormone related protein ) ,( TGF-a) , ( TNF ) ,( IL-1)

68
Q

Explain the clinical effect of tumors

A

1) Mass effect
- the effects of a growing mass that results in secondary pathological effect by pushing on or displacing surrounding tissue
- eg : pituitary adenoma -> compresses the pituitary gland —> leads to destruction —> hypopitutarism
- eg : thyroid adenoma —> compression of larynx —> blockage of airway ; compression of laryngeal nerves —> affected speech ; hyperthyroidism
- eg ; neoplasms of the guts —> enlarge -> obstruction of GIT ; telescoping of neoplasm & its affected segment into the downstream segment — intussusception

2) hormone production
- more typical of benign tumors as they are well diffentiated
- eg : adenoma of pancreatic islets —> insulin production increase —> fatal hypoglycaemia
- non-endocrine tumors may give rise paraneoplastic syndrome
- - eg : sq cell carcinoma of lung —> hypercalcemia

3) Ulceration
4) Tumor rupture & infarction

5) Cachexia
- the progression loss of body fat & lean body mass accompanied by profound weakness , anorexia , & anemia

69
Q

Describe cancer cachexia & its mechanism of action

A
  • a clinical effect of cancer
  • it is the progression loss of body fat & lean body mass accompanied by anemia , anorexia and weakness
  • anemia is caused by an anemia-inducing substrate (AIS) which binds to the cell membrane of RBCs & lowers the influx of glucose & pyrivate kinase activity —> haemolytic anemia
  • hampers chemotherapeutic treatment

Mechanism of action

  • due to action of cytokines produced by tumor
  • eg : TNF , IL-1 , IFN-y
  • TNF at high concentration mobilize fat from tissue store & suppress appetite
  • IL-1 , IFN-y synergies with TNF
  • other factors : proteolysis - inducing factor , lipid mobilising factor increase catabolism of adipose & muscle tissue
  • imbalance between factors that regulate muscle Hypertrophy ( IGF ) muscle catabolism —> cachexia
70
Q

A specimen meant to be biopsied should be immersed in a fixative of ( ………………….. )

The fixative used for Pap smears is ( ……………….. )

A

A specimen meant to be biopsied should be immersed in a fixative of ( 10% formalin )

The fixative used for Pap smears is ( absolute alcohol )

71
Q

Describe the immunohistochemistry & its uses and state some immunohistochemistry marker

A
  • use of specific Ab to detect antigens

Uses

1) To categorise undifferentiated malignant tumors
- eg : breast tissue contains of blood vessels , fat and tissue — breast tumors can either angiosarcoma , liposarcoma or breast cancer itself, hence immunohistochemistry can be used distinguish between them

2) To identify the site of origin of metastatic tumors
- IHC detection of organ-specific or tissue specific Ag in a biopsy specimen can help determine the tumor source.
- eg : prostate-specific antigen & thyroglobulin are markers of carcinoma of prostate & thyroid respectively

3) Detection of molecule that have prognostic or therapeutic significance
- eg : IHC detection of hormones receptor ( estrogen / progestorone ) in breast cancer shows good prognosis because they will be responsive to anti-estrogen therapy ( chemotherapy )

IHC markers
I) carcinomas -cytokeratin
II) sarcoma - desman , vimentin
III) lymphoma - CD45 , LCA