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AWS Architect Exam > AWS Practitioner > Flashcards

AWS Practitioner Flashcards

1
Q

What would you use to get automatic notifications if your account spending goes over a certain amount?

A

A Billing Alarm will notify you if your account spending goes over a certain amount.

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2
Q

What is IAM used for?

A

Identity Access Management (IAM) is used for assigning roles and permissions to users

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3
Q

What is an API Gateway?

A

An API Gateway acts as a reverse proxy that accepts all API calls and aggregates them to the various services.

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4
Q

What is Athena?

A

Athena is a query service allowing you to analyse and query data located in S3 buckets.

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5
Q

What is Macie?

A

Macie is a security service that uses Machine Learning and NLP (Natural Language Processing) to discover, classify and protect sensitive data stored in S3.

It provides dashboards, reports and alerts and can also analyse and query Cloudtrail logs.

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6
Q

What is AWS Cognito?

A

Cognito provides authentication, authorisation and user management for web and mobile apps.

It allows users to sign-in either directly or through a 3rd party such as Facebook, Amazon, Google or Apple.

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7
Q

What are the two main components of AWS Cognito?

A

User pools and Identity pools are the main components of AWS Cognito

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8
Q

What are Cognito user pools?

A

User pools is a user directory for SaaS applications.

It provides sign-up and sign-in to web and mobile applications for your users

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9
Q

What are Cognito identity pools?

A

Identity pools enable you to grant your users access to other AWS services.

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10
Q

What is AWS Config?

A

AWS Config is a service that enables you to assess, audit and evaluate the configurations of your AWS resources.

Config allows you to identify changes to various resources over time

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11
Q

What are AWS Organisations?

A

AWS Organisations is an account management service that enables you to consolidate multiple AWS accounts into an organisation that you create and manage centrally

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12
Q

What is AWS Security Hub?

A

AWS Security Hub gives you a view of your high-priority security alerts and security posture across all your AWS accounts

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13
Q

What is AWS Transit Gateway?

A

Transit Gateway connects VPCs and on-premises networks through a central hub.

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14
Q

What is CloudFront?

A

CloudFront is a fast content delivery network (CDN) that delivers data and applications globally with low latency.

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15
Q

What is Cloudwatch?

A

Cloudwatch monitors your AWS resources and the applications that run on it.

Cloudwatch allows billing alarms to be created if your total cost exceeds a certain value

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16
Q

What does Cloudwatch use to notify in the event of an alarm being triggered?

A

Cloudwatch uses SNS topics to notify in the event of an alarm being triggered

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17
Q

What is the key difference between Cloudwatch and Cloudtrail?

A

Cloudwatch is about performance and Cloudtrail is about auditing

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18
Q

What is EBS?

A

EBS (Elastic Block Store) is a high-performance, block-storage service to store data on the cloud.

It can be seen as a virtual hard disk in the Cloud.

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19
Q

How can you use an EBS volume to create an image?

A

You can take a snapshot of your volumes to create images to provision new EC2 instances.

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20
Q

What is EC2?

A

EC2 is a web service that provides resizeable compute capacity in the Cloud.

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21
Q

What is a security group?

A

A security group acts as a virtual firewall that controls traffic into an instance allowing different types of traffic into named port numbers

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22
Q

What is a Network Access Control List (NACL) ?

A

A Network Access Control Lists work on subnets and allow you to block/blacklist certain ports or ip addresses

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23
Q

What are AMIs?

A

AMIs (Amazon Machine Image) are images that provide all the information required to launch an instance.

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24
Q

What are the two types of volumes that back AMIs?

A

The two storage types are Instance Store and EBS backed volumes.

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25
Q

What are EBS volumes?

A

EBS volumes are stores that are created from an Amazon EBS snapshot.

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26
Q

What is an ENI?

A

ENI is an Elastic Network Interface - essentially a virtual network card.

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27
Q

What is EN?

A

EN is Enhanced Networking.

EN uses single root I/O virtualisation to provide high-performance networking on supported instance types.

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28
Q

What is Elastic Fabric Adapter?

A

Elastic Fabric Adapter is a network device that can be attach to your EC2 instance to accelerate High Performance Computing (HPC) and machine learning applications.

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29
Q

What are Spot Instances?

A

Spot Instances let you take advantage of unused EC2 capacity in the Cloud.

Spot instances are available at uptown a 90% discount.

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30
Q

What are Spot instances useful for? (examples)

A

Spot instances are useful for:

  • Big data and analytics
  • Containerised workloads
  • CI / CD testing
  • Web services
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31
Q

What are Spot Fleets?

A

Spot Fleets are a collection of Spot Instances.

Spot Fleets attempt to launch the number of Spot Instances and On-Demand instances to meet the target capacity specified.

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32
Q

What is Grafana?

A

Grafana is an open source visualisation tool that can be used on top of a variety of data stores providing dashboards.

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33
Q

What does IAM use to manage access?

A

IMA uses Groups (to which users can be assigned), and Roles to manage access.

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34
Q

What is Kinesis Firehose?

A

Kinesis Firehose is a tool to load streaming data into data lakes, data stores and analytics tools.

Firehose can capture, transform and load data enabling real-time analytics.

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35
Q

What is Lambda?

A

Lambda is a serverless compute function that runs code in response to events and requests without managing servers

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36
Q

What are Load Balancers used for?

A

Load Balancers are used to balance load across internet-facing web servers.

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37
Q

What are the three types of Load Balancers?

A

The three types of Load Balancers are:

  • Application Load Balancers
  • Network Load Balancers
  • Classic Load Balancers
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38
Q

What are Application Load Balancers?

A

Application Load Balancers are best suited for http and https traffic.

They are application aware and send specific requests to specific web servers.

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39
Q

What are Network Load Balancers?

A

Network Load Balancers are best suited for load balancing of TCP traffic where extreme performance is required.

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40
Q

What are Classic Load balancers?

A

Classic Load balancers are used to balance http and https traffic but are not application aware.

Classic Load balancers are typically used as a cheap option when you don’t care how the load is distributed.

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41
Q

What is a NAT Gateway?

A

NAT Gateways allow your private subnets to communicate out to the internet without becoming public.

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42
Q

What are AWS Regions?

A

An AWS Region is a geographical area

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43
Q

What are AWS Availability Zones?

A

Availability Zones are close proximity, but separate, data centres within AWS Regions.

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44
Q

What are Edge Locations?

A

Edge Locations are endpoints that are used for caching content.

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45
Q

What do Edge Locations consist of to enable content caching?

A

Edge Locations uses CloudFront (which is Amazons CDN) to cache content.

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46
Q

What is a VPC?

A

A VPC is a Virtual Private Cloud - a virtual data centre where you can deploy your Cloud assets.

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47
Q

What is Amazon RDS?

A

Amazon Relational Database Service is a managed service to setup and operate a relational DB in the Cloud.

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48
Q

What is Quicksight?

A

Quicksight is a business analytics service to build visualisations and perform ad-hoc analysis from your data.

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49
Q

What is S3?

A

S3 is secure, durable and highly scaleable object storage.

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50
Q

What are the S3 tiers?

A

The S3 tiers are:

  • S3 standard
  • S3 IA (infrequently accessed)
  • S3 one zone IA
  • S3 intelligent tiering (moves objects around based on how you use/access your data)
  • S3 glacier
  • S3 glacier deep archive
    -S3 Outposts
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51
Q

What can you use to restrict bucket access?

A

You can restrict S3 bucket access in the following ways:

  • Bucket policies (that apply across the whole bucket)
  • Object policies (that apply to individual files)
  • IAM policies to users and groups
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52
Q

What is AWS DataSync?

A

DataSync is used to move large amounts of data from on-premise to AWS. Replication can be done hourly, daily or weekly

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53
Q

What is Snowball?

A

Snowball is a petabyte-scale transport solution to get data in / out of AWS

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54
Q

What are Snowball Edge and Snowmobile?

A

Snowball Edge is a 100TB data transfer device with compute capabilities. It can act as either a transport vehicle or support work in offline locations because it can run lambda functions etc.

Snowmobile is for data transfer 100PB and is a shipping container on a truck.

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55
Q

What is Storage Gateway?

A

Storage Gateway is a device used to transfer data from your on premise site to AWS Cloud-based storage to provide seamless integration.

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56
Q

What are the different types of Storage Gateways?

A

The different types of Storage Gateway are:

  • File Gateway
  • Volume Gateway
  • Tape Gateway
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57
Q

What are File Gateways?

A

File Gateways are used to store your on-premise data as files within S3. Once uploaded the files are treated as native S3 objects.

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58
Q

What are Volume Gateways?

A

A Volume Gateway provides cloud-backed storage volumes that you can mount as Internet Small Computer System Interface (iSCSI) devices from your on-premises application servers.

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59
Q

What are Taped Gateways?

A

Tape Gateway enables you to replace using physical tapes on premises with virtual tapes in AWS

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60
Q

What are VPC Endpoints?

A

A VPC Endpoint is essentially a configuration that allows your services in your VPC to access a service made available to you via PrivateLink.

A VPC endpoint creates a private connection between your VPC and another AWS service without requiring access over the Internet, through a NAT device, a VPN connection, or AWS Direct Connect.

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61
Q

What are the two types of VPC endpoints?

A

The two types of VPC endpoints are:

  • Interface endpoints
  • Gateway endpoints
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62
Q

What are Interface endpoints?

A

Interface endpoints are a type of VPC endpoint that creates an ENI with a private IP address in the subnet to serve as an entry point for traffic destined to another AWS service.

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63
Q

What is a Gateway endpoint?

A

Gateway endpoints are a type of VPC endpoint that you specify as a target for a route in the route table for traffic destined to a supporting AWS service

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64
Q

What is WAF?

A

WAF (Web Application Firewall) allows the monitoring of the http and https requests.

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65
Q

What are the four primary services that deal specifically with storing data in AWS?

A

The four primary services for storing data in AWS are:

  • Elastic Block Store (EBS)
  • Elastic File System (EFS)
  • Amazon FSx
  • S3
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66
Q

What is a key use case of EBS?

A

A use case maybe for large enterprise apps to use EBS to store self-managed relational and NoSQL databases.

They may then run big data analytics engines against this information that work at lightning speed.

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67
Q

Does Block Storage contain metadata?

A

No, block storage contains no metadata. Object-based storage has metadata

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68
Q

When would you use EBS?

A

EBS’s biggest strengths are its reliable performance and flexibility.

It’s ideal for apps that need low latency with many IO operations like database servers. It’s scalable, so you can add extra block storage volumes without dropping performance.

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69
Q

What is EFS?

A

(EFS) is a fully managed and scalable NFS file system (for Linux) that can be mounted to EC2 instances and on-premises compute resources.

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70
Q

What is Guard Duty?

A

Amazon GuardDuty is an intelligent threat detection service that continuously monitors for malicious activity and unauthorised behaviour to protect your AWS accounts, workloads, and data stored in Amazon S3.

GuardDuty analyzes tens of billions of events across multiple AWS data sources, such as AWS CloudTrail event logs, Amazon VPC Flow Logs, and DNS logs.

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71
Q

What is AWS Direct Connect?

A

AWS Direct Connect is a cloud service solution that makes it easy to establish a dedicated network connection from your premises to AWS.

Using AWS Direct Connect, you create a private connection between AWS and your data center, office, or colocation environment.

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72
Q

What is AWS PrivateLink?

A

AWS PrivateLink is a highly available, scalable technology that enables you to privately connect your VPC to services as if they were in your VPC.

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73
Q

What are the 6 advantages to Cloud Computing?

A

The advantages to Cloud Computing are:

  • Go global in minutes
  • Stop spending money on running and maintaining data datacentres
  • Benefit from massive economies of scale
  • Increase speed and agility
  • Stop guessing capacity
  • Trade capital expenses for variable expenses
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74
Q

What are the 4 benefits of Cloud Computing?

A

The 4 benefits are:

  • High Availability
  • Elasticity
  • Agility
  • Durability
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75
Q

What are the 3 common cloud computing models?

A

The 3 common Cloud computing models are:

  • IaaS
  • PaaS
  • SaaS
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76
Q

What are the 3 common Cloud deployment models?

A

The 3 common Cloud deployment models are:

  • Private Cloud
  • Public Cloud
  • Hybrid Cloud
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77
Q

What is another term for Private Cloud?

A

Another term for Private Cloud is ‘on-premises’

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78
Q

What are the characteristics of Availability Zones?

A

Availability Zones are:

  • Physically separated
  • Connected through low-latency links
  • Fault tolerant
  • Allow high availability
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79
Q

What is AWS CLI?

A

AWS Command Line Interface (CLI) is a service that allows you to programmatically access your AWS account through a terminal or command window

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80
Q

What are SDKs?

A

Software Development Kits (SDKs) allow you to access AWS Services from popular programming languages

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81
Q

What is the Lambda pricing model?

A

Using Lambda you are charged based on the duration and number of requests.

You have access to 1 million free Lambda calls each month.

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82
Q

What is Fargate?

A

Fargate is a serverless compute engine for containers.

Fargate allows you to manage containers. It is serverless and scales automatically

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83
Q

What is Lightsail?

A

Lightsail is a service that allows you to quickly launch all the resources needed for small projects.

Lightsail enables the deployment of preconfigured applications such as WordPress websites and comes with a VM, a static IP, SSD based storage and more.

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84
Q

What is AWS Outposts?

A

AWS Outposts allows you to run cloud services in your internal data center.

Outposts support workloads that need to remain on-premise for latency or data sovereignty needs. AWS delivers and installs the servers in your data center.

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85
Q

What is AWS Batch?

A

AWS Batch allows you to process large workloads in smaller chunks (or batches).

AWS Batch can run hundreds / thousands of smaller batch processing jobs and can dynamically provision instances based on volume.

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86
Q

When using Lambda, what are you responsible for ?

A

You are only responsible for your application code. AWS manages servers, coding environment, and language support

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87
Q

What are S3 access logs used for?

A

S3 Access logs are used to track the access to your buckets and objects

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88
Q

Is S3 a global or regional service?

A

S3 is a regional service but bucket names must be globally unique

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89
Q

What is durability in regards to Data Accessibility and S3?

A

Durability means your objects are never lost or compromised.

Amazon S3 Standard
is designed for 99.999999999%
(11 9’s) of durability.

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90
Q

What is availability in regards to Data Accessibility and S3?

A

Availability means you can access your data quickly when you need it.

Amazon S3 Standard is designed for 99.99% availability.

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91
Q

What is S3 Standard recommended for?

A

S3 Standard is recommended for frequently accessed data

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92
Q

What is S3 Intelligent Tiering is recommended for?

A

S3 Intelligent Tiering is recommended for data with unknown or changing access patterns

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93
Q

What is S3 Infrequent Access (IA) recommended for?

A

S3 Infrequent Access is recommended for long-lived data that is not frequently accessed yet gives millisecond access when needed

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94
Q

What is S3 One Zone Infrequent Access (IA) recommended for?

A

S3 One Zone IA is recommended for re-creatable data, infrequently accessed with millisecond access but where availability and durability is not essential

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95
Q

What is S3 Glacier recommended for?

A

S3 Glacier is recommended for long term backups and cheaper storage options

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96
Q

What is S3 Glacier Deep Archive recommended for?

A

S3 Glacier Deep Archive is used for long-term data archival accessed once or twice a year, or retaining data for regulatory compliance needs.

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97
Q

What is S3 Outposts recommended for?

A

S3 Outposts is recommended for data that needs to be kept local or has demanding application performance needs.

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98
Q

What are 4 common real world usage scenarios for S3?

A

4 common real world usage scenarios include:

  • Static websites (deploy to S3 and distribute with Cloudfront)
  • Data archival ( store in S3 Glacier)
  • Analytics systems (store in S3 and use analytic services like Redshift and Athena)
  • Mobile applications (App users can upload to S3 buckets)
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99
Q

What are the storage options for EC2 instances?

A

The supported storage options are :

  • Elastic Block Store (EBS)
  • Elastic File System (EFS)
  • Instance Store
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100
Q

What are the key attributes of EBS?

A

The key attributes of note for EBS are:

  • The data persists when the instance is not running
  • It is tied to one AZ
  • It can only be attached to 1 instance in the same AZ
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101
Q

What is EBS recommended for?

A

EBS is recommended for
- Quickly accessible data
- Running a database on an instance
- Long-term data storage

102
Q

What is EC2 instance store?

A

EC2 instance store is local storage that is physically attached to the host computer and cannot be removed.

103
Q

What are the key attributes of EC2 instance store?

A

The key attributes of note for EC2 instance store are:

  • Storage on disks physically attached to an instance
  • Storage is temporary with the data being lost when the EC2 is stopped
  • EC2 instance store is fast with high I/O speeds
104
Q

What is EC2 Instance Store recommended for?

A

EC2 instance stores are recommended for:

  • temporary storage data needs
  • data replicated across multiple instances
105
Q

What are the key attributes of Elastic File System (EFS)?

A

The key attributes of note for EFS are:

  • It only supports the Linux file system
  • It is accessible across different AZ’s in the same region
  • It is more expensive than EBS
106
Q

What is EFS recommended for?

A

EFS is recommended for:

  • Main directories for business-critical apps
  • Lift and shift existing enterprise apps
107
Q

What are the key attributes of Storage Gateway?

A

The key attributes of note for storage gateway are:

  • That it connects on-premise and cloud data
  • and that it is a hybrid storage model
108
Q

What is Storage Gateway recommended for?

A

Storage gateway is recommended for:

  • Moving backups to the cloud
  • Reducing costs for hybrid cloud storage
  • Low latency access to data
109
Q

What is AWS Backup?

A

AWS Backup is a service that lets you manage data backups across multiple AWS Services.

110
Q

To what does AWS Backup integrate?

A

AWS Backup integrates with EC2, EBS, EFS and more.

Backup plans can include both frequency of backup and retention period

111
Q

What are 4 key attributes of CloudFront?

A

4 key attributes of CloudFront are:
- makes content available globally or restricts it based on location
- provides security features like DDoS protection and geo-restriction
- speeds up delivery of static and dynamic web content
- uses edge locations to cache content

112
Q

What is Amazon Global Accelerator?

A

Global Accelerator sends your users through the AWS global network when accessing content, speeding up delivery.

Global Accelerator provides low latency.

113
Q

What are the benefits of Global Accelerator?

A

Global Accelerator provides:

  • improved latency and availability of single-region applications
  • 60% performance boost
  • sending traffic through AWS infrastructure
  • re-routing of traffic to healthy available regional endpoints
114
Q

What is Amazon S3 Transfer Acceleration?

A

S3 Transfer Acceleration improves content uploads and downloads to and from S3 buckets.

115
Q

What are the benefits of S3 Transfer Acceleration?

A

S3 Transfer Acceleration provides:

  • improved speed in the transfer of files over long distances
  • enables customers worldwide to upload to a central bucket
  • uses CloudFronts globally distributed edge locations
116
Q

What are the methods to access an EC2 instance?

A

EC2 instances can be accessed by:

  • AWS Management Console
  • Secure Shell (SSH)
  • EC2 Instance Connect (EIC)
  • AWS Systems Manager
117
Q

What is EIC?

A

EC2 Instance Connect allows you to use IAM policies to control SSH access to your instances, removing the need to manage SSH keys

118
Q

What is AWS Systems Manager?

A

Systems Manager allows you to manage your EC2 instances via a web browser or the AWS CLI

119
Q

What are the steps in connecting to an EC2 using SSH?

A

The steps to connect to an EC2 using SSH are:

  • generate a key pair
  • use the private key to connect to the EC2 (public key)
120
Q

When should you use On-Demand EC2 instances?

A

You should use on-demand instances when:

  • you care about low cost without upfront payment or long-term commitment
  • your applications have unpredictable workloads that can’t be interrupted
  • your applications are under development
  • your workloads will not run any longer than a year
121
Q

When should you use Spot instances?

A

You should use Spot instances when:

  • you are not concerned about the start or stop time of your application
  • your workloads can be interrupted
  • your application is only feasible at very low compute prices
122
Q

How much can you save using Spot instances?

A

You can save up to 90% by using Spot instances

123
Q

When should you use EC2 Reserved Instances?

A

You should use EC2 Reserved Instances when:

  • your application has a steady state usage and you can commit to 1 - 3 years
  • you can pay money upfront in order to receive a discount on on-demand prices
  • your application requires a capacity reservation

(you need to sign a contract)

124
Q

How much can you save using EC2 reserved instances?

A

You can save up to 75% on on-demand prices using reserved instances.

125
Q

When should you use EC2 Dedicated Hosts?

A

You should use EC2 Dedicated Hosts when:

  • you want to bring your own server-bound software licences
  • you have regulatory or corporate compliance requirements around tenancy models
126
Q

How much can you save using EC2 Dedicated Hosts?

A

You can save up to 70% on on-demand prices using dedicated hosts.

127
Q

When should you use EC2 Savings Plans?

A

You should use EC2 Savings Plans when:

  • you want to lower your bill across multiple compute services.
  • you want the flexibility to change compute services, instance types, OS’s or regions
  • savings can be shared across various compute services like EC2, Fargate and Lambda
128
Q

How much can you save using EC2 Savings Plans?

A

You can save up to 72% on on-demand prices using EC2 Savings Plans.

129
Q

What is Elastic Load Balancing?

A

Elastic Load Balancing automatically distributes your incoming application traffic across multiple EC2 instances.

130
Q

What is EC2 auto-scaling?

A

EC2 auto-scaling adds or replaces EC2 instances automatically across AZs based on need and changing demand.

131
Q

What is the difference between horizontal and vertical scaling?

A

Horizontal scaling (or scaling out) adds or replaces instances, while vertical scaling (or scaling up) upgrades existing instances.

132
Q

What is Lambda?

A

Lambda is a sever less compute service that lets you run code without managing servers.

133
Q

What are the key features of Lambda?

A

The key features of Lambda are:

  • the support of popular programming languages such as Java, Powershell and Python
  • coding via IDEs or in the console
  • Lambda can execute in response to events
  • Lambda functions have a 15 minute timeout
134
Q

What is S3 versioning?

A

S3 versioning allows you to create multiple versions of your file in order to protect against accidental deletion or to use previous versions.

135
Q

What are S3 access logs?

A

S3 access logs allow you to track the access to your buckets and objects.

136
Q

What is a Content Delivery Network (CDN)?

A

A CDN is a mechanism to deliver content quickly and efficiently based on geographic location.

137
Q

What is latency?

A

Latency is the time it takes to respond to a request.

138
Q

What does CloudFront do?

A

CloudFront:

  • makes content available globally or restricts it based on location
  • uses edge locations to cache content
  • speeds-up delivery of static and dynamic web content
139
Q

What are 3 use cases for CloudFront in the real world?

A

3 use cases for CloudFront are:

  • S3 Static websites
  • Prevent attacks (can stop DDOS attacks)
  • IP address blocking (geo-restrictions prevents users in certain areas accessing content)
140
Q

What is a Network ACL (NACL)?

A

A Network ACL is an access control list to ensure that the proper traffic is allowed into a subnet.

141
Q

What is an internet gateway?

A

An internet gateway allows public traffic to the internet from a VPC.

142
Q

What is DNS?

A

DNS stands for Domain Name System and directs internet traffic by connecting domain names with servers.

143
Q

What is Route 53?

A

Route 53 is a DNS service that routes users to applications.

144
Q

What are the key features of Direct Connect?

A

Direct Connect provides:

  • a dedicated physical network connection
  • a means for data to travel over a private network
  • connects on premise and AWS
  • supports a hybrid model
145
Q

What is AWS VPN?

A

AWS VPN creates a secure connection between your internal networks and your AWS VPCs.

146
Q

What are the key features of AWS VPN?

A

AWS VPN provides:

  • connectivity between your on-premise data to AWS
  • similar features to Direct Connect but the data travels over the public internet
  • encrypted data
  • support for a hybrid model
147
Q

What is a Virtual Private Gateway?

A

A Virtual Private Gateway is a VPN connector on the AWS side.

148
Q

What is a Customer Gateway?

A

A Customer Gateway is a VPN connector on the customer side.

149
Q

What is an API Gateway?

A

An API Gateway is a mechanism to build and manage APIs.

150
Q

What is RDS?

A

RDS is Amazon Relational Database Service that makes it easy to launch and manage relational databases.

151
Q

What are the key features of RDS?

A

The key features of RDS are:

  • it supports popular database engines
  • AWS manages the databases with automated patching, backups and maintenance etc
  • it offers high availability and fault tolerance using multi-AZ deployment options
  • Read replicas can be used across regions to provide enhanced performance and durability.
152
Q

What is Amazon Aurora?

A

Amazon Aurora is a relation db compatible with MySQL and PostgreSQL created by AWS.

153
Q

What are the key features of Aurora?

A

The key features of Aurora are:

  • it supports MySQL and PostgreSQL
  • it scales automatically while providing durability and high availability
  • its is 5x faster than normal mySQL and 3x faster than PostgreSQL
  • it is managed by RDS
154
Q

What is DynamoDB?

A

DynamoDB is a fully managed NoSQL key-value and document database

155
Q

What are the key features of Amazon DynamoDB?

A

The key features of DynamoDB are:

  • it is a NoSQL key-value database
  • it is non-relational
  • it is fully managed and serverless
  • it scales automatically to massive workloads and fast performance
156
Q

What is Amazon DocumentDB?

A

Amazon DocumentDB is a fully managed document database that supports MongoDB.

157
Q

What are the key features of DocumentDB?

A

The key features of DocumentDB are:

  • it is a document database
  • it is fully managed and serverless
  • it is MongoDB compatible
  • it is non-relational
158
Q

What is Amazon Elasticache?

A

Elasticache is a web service to deploy, operate and scale an in-memory cache in the Cloud.

The service improves the performance of web applications by retrieving information from managed in-memory caches, instead of relying entirely on slower disk-based databases

159
Q

What are the key features of Elasticache?

A

The key features of Elasticache are:

  • it is an in-memory datastore
  • it is compatible with Redis or Memcached engines
  • it offers high performance and low latency
160
Q

What is Amazon Neptune?

A

Amazon Neptune is a fully managed graph database that supports highly connected datasets.

161
Q

What are the key features of Neptune?

A

The key features of Neptune are:

  • it is a graph database service
  • it is fully managed and serverless
  • it supports highly connected datasets like social media networks
  • it is fast and reliable
162
Q

What is the best database to use to migrate an on-premise Oracle database to the cloud?

A

RDS is the best choice to migrate an on-premise Oracle db to the cloud

163
Q

What is the best database to use to migrate an on premise PostgreSQL database to the cloud?

A

Either RDS or Aurora are the best choices to migrate an on-premise postgreSQL db to the cloud

164
Q

What is the best database to use to alleviate database load for data that is accessed often?

A

Elasticache is the best choice to alleviate database load for data that is accessed often

165
Q

What is the best database to use to process large sets of user profiles and social interactions?

A

Neptune is the best choice to process large sets of user profiles and social interactions

166
Q

What is the best database to use for a NoSQL db fast enough to handle millions of requests per second?

A

DynamoDB is the best choice for a NoSQL db that can handle millions of requests a second

167
Q

What is the best database to use to operate MongoDB workloads at scale?

A

DocumentDB is the best choice to operate MongoDB workloads at scale

168
Q

What are the RDS supported database engines?

A

RDS supports:

  • Amazon Aurora
  • PostgreSQL
  • MySQL
  • MariaDB
  • Oracle
  • SQLServer
169
Q

What is Database Migration Service (DMS)?

A

DMS helps you to migrate databases to or from AWS.

170
Q

What are the key features of DMS?

A

The key features of DMS are:

  • it migrates on-premise dbs to AWS
  • it supports homogeneous and heterogeneous migrations
  • it provides continuous data replication
  • it has virtually no downtime
171
Q

What is server migration service (SMS)?

A

SMS allows you to migrate on-premise servers to AWS.

172
Q

What is the Snow Family?

A

The Snow family consists of SnowCone, Snowball and Snowball Edge, and SnowMobile

173
Q

What is SnowCone?

A

SnowCone is the smallest member of the data transport devices. It provides up to 8TB of storage and can be shipped offline or uploaded using DataSync.

174
Q

What are Snowball and Snowball Edge?

A

Snowball and Snowball Edge are petabyte scale data transport solutions.

Snowball Edge also supports EC2 and Lambda

175
Q

What is Snowmobile?

A

Snowball is a multi-petabyte or exabyte scale transport solution on a truck. The data can be loaded into S3.

176
Q

What is a data warehouse?

A

A data warehouse is a data storage solution that aggregates massive amounts of historical data from disparate sources.

Data Warehouses support querying, reporting, analytics and business intelligence.

177
Q

What is Amazon RedShift?

A

A
Redshift is a fully managed petabyte scale data warehouse service in the cloud.

Redshift allows you to perform business intelligence operations on historical data to answer business questions.

178
Q

When would you use RedShift?

A

You would use Redshift when you need to consolidate multiple data sources for reporting, or if you want to run a db that doesn’t require real-time transactional updates.

179
Q

What is Glue?

A

Glue prepares your data for analytics.

It extracts the data from different data sources, transforms it, and then saves it in the data warehouse.

180
Q

What is Elastic MapReduce (EMR)?

A

Elastic MapReduce helps you to process large amounts of data.

It works with big data frameworks and allows you to analyse data with Hadoop.

181
Q

What is Data Pipeline?

A

Data Pipeline helps you move data between compute and storage services running on AWS or on-premise.

Data Pipeline moves data at specific intervals and on certain conditions and sends notification of success or failure

182
Q

What is QuickSight?

A

QuickSight helps you to visualise your data.

It lets you build interactive dashboards and embed them within your applications

183
Q

What would you use to query historical data stored in S3 buckets as if they were relational dbs using SQL?

A

You would use Athena to query historical data in S3.

184
Q

What would you use to analyse logs in near real time for application monitoring or fraud detection?

A

You would use Kinesis to analyse logs.

185
Q

What is Rekognition?

A

Recognition is a service that enables the automation of image and video analysis

186
Q

What is Comprehend?

A

Comprehend is a natural language processing service that finds relationships in text.

187
Q

What is Polly?

A

Polly is a service that turns text into speech

188
Q

What is SageMaker?

A

SageMaker is a service that helps you build, train and deploy machine learning models quickly.

189
Q

What is Translate?

A

Translate is a service that provides language translation

190
Q

What is Lex?

A

Lex is a service that lets you build conversational interfaces like chatbots.

191
Q

What is Cloud9?

A

Cloud9 allows you to write code in an IDE within your web browser.

192
Q

What is CodeCommit?

A

CodeCommit is a source control system for private GIT repos.

It is a service similar to GIThub

193
Q

What is CodeBuild?

A

CodeBuild allows you to build and test your application source code

194
Q

What is CodeDeploy?

A

CodeDeploy manages the deployment of code to compute services in the cloud (EC2, Fargate and Lambda) or on-premises

195
Q

What is CodePipeline?

A

CodePipeline automates the software release process.

CodePipeline integrates with CodeCommit to retrieve source code, with CodeBuild to run builds and tests, and CodeDeploy to deploy the changes.

196
Q

What is X-Ray?

A

X-Ray helps you to debug production applications. For example by tracing calls to an RDS database

197
Q

What is CodeStar?

A

CodeStar helps developers work collaboratively on development projects.

CodeStar can manage the development pipeline of CodeCommit, CodeBuild and CodeDeploy

198
Q

What is CloudFormation?

A

CloudFormation is a service that allows you to provision AWS resources using IaC

199
Q

What is Elastic Beanstalk?

A

Elastic Beanstalk allows you to deploy your web applications and web services to AWS.

For example, after you upload your Java code, Elastic Beanstalk deploys it and handles capacity provisioning, load balancing, and Auto Scaling. Elastic Beanstalk even monitors the health of your application.

Elastic Beanstalk deploys to the Cloud only, not on-premises.

200
Q

What is OpsWorks?

A

OpsWorks allows you to use Chef or Puppet to automate the config of your servers and deploy code.

OpsWorks allows you to define software installation scripts and automate configuration for your application servers.

OpsWorks can deploy applications on-premises.

201
Q

What is loose coupling?

A

Coupling defines the interdependencies or connections between components of a system.

Loose coupling helps reduce the risk
of cascading failures between components.

202
Q

What is Simple Queue Service (SQS)?

A

SQS is a message queuing service that allows you to build loosely coupled systems.

SQS works in a FIFO order

203
Q

What is Simple Notification Service (SNS)?

A

SNS allows you to send emails and text messages from your applications.

For example, you can have emails sent when a CPU utilisation goes above 80%. SNS works with CloudWatch when an alarm’s metric threshold is breached to send an email.

204
Q

What is Simple Email Service (SES)?

A

SES is an email service that allows you to send richly formatted HTML emails from your applications

205
Q

What is CloudWatch?

A

CloudWatch is a collection of services that help you to monitor and observe your Cloud resources.

206
Q

What is CloudTrail?

A

CloudTrail tracks user activity and API calls within your account.

CloudTrail can:

  • log and retain account activity
  • identify which user made changes
  • track activity through the console, SDKs and CLI
  • detect unusual activity in your account
207
Q

What things can be tracked with CloudTrail?

A

CloudTrail can track:

  • user name
  • event time and name
  • IP address
  • access key
  • region
  • error code
208
Q

What is Shield?

A

Shield is a managed Distributed Denial of Service (DDOS) protection service

209
Q

What with services does Shield work?

A

Shield provides DDoS protection and works with:

-CloudFront
-Route 53
-Elastic Load Balancing
-AWS Global Accelerator.

210
Q

What is Inspector?

A

Inspector works with EC2 instances (only) to uncover and report vulnerabilities

211
Q

What is Artifact?

A

Artefact offers on-demand access to AWS security and compliance reports

Artifact provides a central repository for AWS’ security and compliance reports via a self-service portal.

212
Q

What does data encryption do?

A

Data encryption encodes data so it
cannot be read by unauthorized users.

213
Q

What is KMS?

A

Key Management Service (KMS) allows you to generate and store encryption keys

214
Q

What is CloudHSM?

A

CloudHSM is a hardware security module (HSM) used to generate and manage encryption keys.

CloudHSM allows you to meet corporate, contractual, and regulatory compliance requirements for data security by using
dedicated hardware in the cloud.

215
Q

What is Secrets Manager?

A

Secrets Manager allows you to manage and retrieve secrets (passwords or keys)

It integrates with services such as RDS, Redshift and DocumentDB and encrypts secrets at rest

216
Q

What is the Application Discovery Service?

A

The Application Discovery Service helps you plan
migration projects to the AWS Cloud.

217
Q

What is the AWS Price List API?

A

The AWS Price List API allows you to query the price of AWS Services

218
Q

What can you use to calculate the TCO?

A

The Pricing Calculator can be used to calculate the TCO

219
Q

What are the 4 support plan levels?

A

The 4 support plan levels are:

  • basic
  • developer
  • business
  • enterprise
220
Q

What are the 3 types of support cases you can open with AWS support?

A

You can open the following types of case with AWS Support:

  • account and billing
  • service limit increase
  • technical support
221
Q

What is Budgets?

A

Budgets allows you to set custom budgets that alert you when your costs or usage exceed your budgeted amount.

222
Q

What are the 3 types of Budget?

A

The 3 budget types are:

  • cost budgets
  • usage budgets
  • reservation budgets
223
Q

What is the Cost and Usage report?

A

The Cost and Usage Report contains the most
comprehensive set of cost and usage data.

The Cost and Usage Report gives you the ability to do a deep dive into your AWS cost and usage data. Once set up, you can download the report using the Amazon S3 console.

224
Q

What is Cost Explorer?

A

Cost Explorer allows you to visualize and
forecast your costs and usage over time.

225
Q

What are Cost Allocation Tags?

A

Cost Allocation Tags allow you to label resources using key value pairs and then report on those labels.

226
Q

What is Reserved Instance Sharing?

A

Organizations allows you to save money using Reserved Instance (RI) sharing. RI sharing allows all accounts in the organization to receive the hourly cost-benefit of RIs purchased by any other account. You can always turn off RI sharing using the master payer (or root) organization.

227
Q

What is Control Tower?

A

Control Tower helps you ensure your accounts conform to company-wide policies by enabling cross-account security audits or preventing or detecting security issues through mandatory or optional guardrails.

228
Q

What is Systems Manager?

A

Systems Manager gives you visibility and
control over your AWS resources.

For example, Systems Manager allows you to auto-patch software running on EC2 instances according to a schedule.

229
Q

What is Trusted Advisor?

A

AWS Trusted Advisor provides recommendations that help you follow AWS best practices.

Trusted Advisor evaluates your account by using checks. These checks identify ways to optimize your AWS infrastructure, improve security and performance, reduce costs, and monitor service quotas.

230
Q

What is Licence Manager?

A

Licence Manager helps you manage software licences.

231
Q

What is Certificate Manager?

A

Certificate manager helps you to provision and manage SSL/TLS certificates

232
Q

What is Managed Services?

A

AWS Managed Services is a set of services and tools that automate infrastructure management tasks for Amazon Web Services (AWS) deployments.

233
Q

What is Professional Services?

A

Professional Services helps enterprise customers
move to a cloud-based operating model.

234
Q

What is the AWS Partner Network (APN)?

A

APN is a global community of approved partners that offer software solutions and consulting services for AWS.

235
Q

What is the MarketPlace?

A

Marketplace is a digital catalog of prebuilt solutions you can purchase or license. You may also sell your own solutions to others via Marketplace.

236
Q

What is the Personal Health Dashboard?

A

Personal Health Dashboard alerts you to events that might impact your AWS environment.

237
Q

Do you instances need public IP addresses in order to communicate with other services using a VPC endpoint?

A

An endpoint enables instances in your VPC to use their private IP addresses to communicate with resources in other services.

Your instances do not require public IP addresses, and you do not need an Internet gateway, a NAT device, or a virtual private gateway in your VPC.

238
Q

What is the difference between an Internet Gateway and a NAT Gateway?

A

An internet gateway is used by EC2 instances in a public subset to access the internet.

EC2 instances in a private subnet cannot use an internet gateway to access the internet, instead they need to use a NAT Gateway.

239
Q

Where are NAT Gateways located?

A

NAT Gateways allow EC2 instances in Private subnets to access the internet but they are themselves located in Public Subnets.

240
Q

What does WAF do?

A

WAF protects against SQL injection and cross-site scripting attacks.

241
Q

A developer wants to be alerted when an EC2 running their application is approaching 100% CPU utilization. Which service helps the developer do this in an automated way?

A

CloudWatch can monitor the state of your AWS resources and can notify you when an EC2 is approaching 100% utilization

242
Q

How would you create and manage access keys for users that need to access AWS services from the AWS Command Line Interface (CLI)?

A

IAM allows you to create and manage access keys for an IAM user.

243
Q

Under the AWS shared responsibility model, who is responsible for the configuration of infrastructure devices?

A

AWS maintains the configuration of its infrastructure devices. Don’t forget AWS is responsible for its global infrastructure elements: Regions, edge locations, and Availability Zones.

244
Q

What pillar of the Well-Architected Framework would include the use of information gathered through a workload process evaluation to drive adoption of new services or resources when they become available?

A

This Performance Efficiency pillar focuses on the effective use of resources to meet demand.

In this pillar, you would use the information gathered through the evaluation process to actively drive adoption of new services or resources. You would also define a process to improve workload performance, and you would need to stay up-to-date on new resources and services.

245
Q

A customer has created an Administrators group in IAM containing 5 users. What does the customer attach to the group to ensure all the users have the needed administrative access?

A

IAM policy

Policies can be attached to a group to ensure all users in the group have the same access. AWS even has a managed policy, Administrator Access, you can use.

246
Q

Which is the most efficient AWS feature that allows a company to restrict IAM users from making changes to a common administrator IAM role created in all accounts in their organization?

A

Service control policies (SCPs)

AWS Organizations provides central governance and management for multiple accounts. Organization SCPs allow you to create permissions guardrails that apply to all accounts within a given organization. Service control policies (SCPs)

247
Q

You need to set a number range of EC2 instances to be made available to handle the load for your application. Which AWS service should you use?

A

AWS Auto Scaling will ensure you have the optimal number of EC2 instances to handle your application’s load, based on rules you specify. The other services mentioned can help distribute load amongst existing resources, but they do not have the ability by themselves to create new resources. Reference: AWS Auto Scaling

248
Q

A company has designed a hybrid architecture and needs to connect its on-premises database to an application running on an EC2 instance in the AWS cloud using a fast, private, and secure manner. Which method allows the company to securely connect on-premises to the cloud?

A

Direct Connect is a private (bypasses the public internet), dedicated physical network connection from your on-premises data center to AWS. Since the connection is private, it is extremely fast.

249
Q

When you upload an object to S3 storage, where will AWS keep it?

A

Any object uploaded to S3 is automatically stored in multiple Availability Zones in the Region in which it was uploaded.

This means that if any single AZ in a Region is experiencing issues, objects stored in S3 will still be available. Although objects in S3 can be made to be accessible globally, by default they are always stored in a redundant fashion in only the Region they were uploaded, ruling out the other answers

250
Q

A customer has an on-premises 5-gigabyte Oracle database that needs to be migrated to AWS and converted to Aurora. The customer requires minimal downtime to the database. Which service is the best option for migration and conversion?

A

DMS supports homogeneous migrations like Oracle to Oracle and heterogeneous migrations like Oracle to Aurora, with minimal downtime.

251
Q

A company is migrating its workloads to AWS. Which tool will help the company estimate their potential cloud bill and calculate their overall total cost of ownership (TCO) based on their current workloads?

A

The Pricing Calculator provides an estimate of AWS fees and charges. Since the company knows the workload details, the AWS Pricing Calculator can also help with calculating the total cost of ownership.

252
Q

A company wants to ensure all AWS accounts in their environment conform to company-wide policies. Which services can help?

A

Organizations

Organizations allows you to centrally manage multiple AWS accounts under 1 umbrella. You can allocate resources and apply policies across accounts.

Control Tower

Control Tower helps you ensure your accounts conform to company-wide policies. Control Tower actually sits on top of Organizations.

AWS Architect Exam (11 decks)

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