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SYSTEMS > AWS > Flashcards

AWS Flashcards

1
Q

What is the capacity of the Ammunition Storage Magazine?

A

1110 Rounds (1200 Total)

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2
Q

The Internal Auxiliary Fuel System (IAFS) incorporates a 100-gallon fuel tank and an ammunition storage magazine capable of holding approximately _____ rounds and _____ in the AHS allowing for approximately 300 round capability.

A

242, 58

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3
Q

The ammunition can be loaded through the sideloader in bulk (individual rounds) or _____ round strips

A

11

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4
Q

When ammunition is loaded using the sideloader, there is approximately _____ round space between the sideloader and the gun

A

40 Rounds

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5
Q

What is the color of the projectile on the M789 (HEDP) round?

A

Black projectile with Yellow band/Yellow lettering

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6
Q

What is the fragmentation radius of the M789 (HEDP) round?

A

4 meters

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7
Q

The M789 (HEDP) can penetrate in excess of 2 inches of RHA at _______ meters

A

2500 meters

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8
Q

What is the color of the M788 (TP) round?

A

Blue projectile with White stripe/White lettering and aluminum nosepiece.

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9
Q

What are the types of 30mm ammunition used for firing?

A

M788 and M789 (ADEN and DEFA)

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10
Q

In the event of low hydraulic pressure and/or loss of electrical power, the stow spring will position the gun cradle and gun to what position in elevation?

A

+11°

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11
Q

What are the Azimuth and Elevation limits of the gun turret assembly while on the ground with the GND ORIDE button selected ON?

A

AZ 86° L/R Centerline, EL +9° Within 10° L/R Centerline, +11° From 10° L/R Centerline To 86° L/R, and Depression -6.45°. (-60° in depression off squat switch)

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12
Q

If missiles are selected, and the priority missile is on the inboard launcher, the MP limits the gun’s azimuth to _____on that side.

A

52 degrees

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13
Q

If rockets are selected, and the selected rocket type is on the inboard launcher, the MP limits the gun’s azimuth to _____.

A

60 degrees

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14
Q

What is the maximum effective range of the M230E1 automatic gun?

A

1500 to 1700 Meters

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15
Q

What component drives the gun bolt assembly to the open-bolt position after firing using dynamic braking?

A

Drive motor

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16
Q

What is the cyclic rate of fire for the M230E1 automatic gun?

A

625 ±25 RPM (rounds per minute)

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16
Q

What is the maximum ballistic solution of the M230E1 automatic gun?

A

4200 Meters

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17
Q

What is the gun duty cycle of the M230E1 automatic gun?

A

6-50 round bursts, w/ 5 sec between bursts, followed by 10 min cooling period

Can be generalized for burst settings other than 50, fire no more than 300 rounds are fired within 60 seconds before allowing the gun to cool for 10 minutes.

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18
Q

Which processor provides constraints processing for weapon performance and safety inhibits?

A

MP

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19
Q

Which component in the Area Weapon System performs the functions of turret cueing control and serves as a MUX remote terminal under Mission Processor control?

A

GSC

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20
Q

You are in the pilot crewstation, and the CPG actions the GUN; what indication will you see in your High Action Display (HAD) and in what status field?

A

CGUN / Weapon Control

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21
Q

Which crewstation can conduct the Gun Dynamic Harmonization?

A

CPG

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22
Q

You are in the CPG crewstation, and you action the GUN; will the checkerboard pattern be applied to the pilot WPN page ARM/SAFE status window?

A

No

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23
Q

The fixed mode places the gun __________ degrees in azimuth and __________ degrees in elevation.

A

0 degrees in azimuth and 0.87 degrees in elevation

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24
Q

If the rounds count in the GUN Icon is incorrect, how do you input the proper rounds count?

A

WPN UTIL – LOAD Page (L5)

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25
Q

Can you confirm your selected sight on the Weapon (WPN) page?

A

Yes

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26
Q

What will be displayed in the High Action Display (HAD) weapon inhibit field during Weapons Training Mode (WTM)?

A

TRAINING

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27
Q

When the Weapons Training Mode (WTM) is selected, the armament subsystem will adopt a simulated weapon inventory of __________ rounds for the 30mm.

A

888

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28
Q

Gun dynamic harmonization mode is available to the CPG to improve the accuracy of the 30mm, the CPG places TADS (NFOV) on a target between __________ to __________ meters.

A

500 to 1500 Meters

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29
Q

The laser pointer should only be used for target __________ and pointing.

A

Illuminating

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30
Q

When the weapons trigger is activated the laser pointer is deactivated and gunfire could be delayed as much as __________ seconds.

A

.75 seconds, Gun ballistics to be applied

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30
Q

To distinguish one laser pointer using HIGH or LOW from another pointer __________ can be selected.

A

PULSE (4 Hz)

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31
Q

When the LASER POINTER BORESIGHT FAIL status window appears the crewmember should repeat the steps. (TRUE/FALSE)

A

TRUE (steps 3-11)

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32
Q

The sunburst symbol is displayed to both crewmembers upon activation of the laser pointer. (TRUE/FALSE)

A

TRUE, LOS reticle for actioned crewmember, Virtual for opposite crewmember (not edge limited)

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33
Q

What are the four types of ballistics that affect helicopter fired weapons?

A

Interior, Exterior, Aerial, and Terminal

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34
Q

What is turret bending and will the mission processor compensate for this phenomenon?

A

The airframe and gun-turret experience flexure in response to sustained recoil. Yes, MP compensates. None 1st RND, 2nd RND = 70%, 3rd and subsequent RNDs = 100%.

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35
Q

The gunner must compensate for lead angle compensation when using which of the available sights; why?

A

HMD; because the MP does not provide TSE algorithm when HMD is the sight selected. TADS as sight, TSE is used for ballistic solution, second detent laser >4sec

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36
Q

What effect does the combination of trajectory shift and projectile drift produce?

A

Port-Starboard Effect

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37
Q

How much compensation is required for projectile jump when firing from a hover?

A

NONE, except if a relative wind exists.

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38
Q

The gun is inhibited for __________ after a missile or rocket launch.

A

2 Seconds

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39
Q

What is the weapon inhibit status field message that indicates range or other engagement parameters exceed the ballistics processing capability of the system?

A

BAL LIMIT (4200 m)

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40
Q

How can performance inhibits be overridden?

A

2nd Detent Weapon trigger

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41
Q

The pylons are independently controlled through a range of ____ to ____ in elevation.

A

+4° to -15°

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42
Q

The __________ provides the interface between the mission processor and the pylon discrete signals.

A

Pylon Interface Unit (PIU)

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43
Q

The flight mode is automatically commanded on takeoff when the squat switch indicates airborne for more than __________ seconds.

A

five (+4° degrees)

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44
Q

The STORES JETTISON panel allows for __________ jettison of wing stores while the emergency jettison button will jettison all stores.

A

individual

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45
Q

The pylons can be placed in the ground stow position (WPN UTIL Page) which commands the pylons to ___ degrees.

A

-5°

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46
Q

The __________ processor establishes the aircraft state as SAFE upon aircraft power-up.

A

Mission

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47
Q

The TOTAL ROCKETS status window is displayed when there is a difference between the number of rockets available for firing and _________.

A

The number of rockets actually in the selected type.

47
Q

The M151 warhead has a bursting radius of __________ meters and a lethality radius of __________ meters.

A

10 / 50

48
Q

The PEN button will be displayed when the __________ fuze is loaded which can defeat bunkers up to __________ meters thick.

A

433 / 3 (9.84 feet). (no longer in inventory)

49
Q

The M261 (MPSM) warhead contains __________ M73 submunitions. This will produce 195 (10 grain) high velocity fragments that travel up to 5000 feet per second and the shaped charge can penetrate more than __________ inches of armor.

A

9 / 4

50
Q

Due to the possibility of surging engines, do not fire rockets from the _________ stations. Fire no more than _____ with two outboard launchers every ____ seconds, or fire with only one outboard launcher installed without restrictions.

A

inboard / pairs / 3 (Zones A – B – E)

51
Q

When the independent mode is used only the __________ crewmember’s trigger is active.

A

actioning

52
Q

In the cooperative mode the __________ acquires and tracks the target and the __________ aligns the aircraft for launch using the rocket steering cursor.

A

CPG / PILOT

53
Q

The rockets INVENTORY and QTY selection defaults to the ________ selections during cooperative engagements.

A

CPG

54
Q

The cooperative mode is active whenever the rocket system is actioned via the __________.

A

Tactical Electronic Display And Control (TEDAC) Left Handgrip (LHG) and pilot cyclic Weapon Action Switch (WAS)

55
Q

In the cooperative mode, both weapon triggers are active and the __________ LOS and range source are used for the ballistics calculations.

A

CPG

56
Q

The four types of ballistics influencing helicopter fired weapons are __________, __________, __________, __________.

A

interior / exterior / aerial / terminal

57
Q

__________ describes the characteristics and effects of the projectiles on the target.

A

Terminal ballistics

58
Q

Thrust misalignment is a characteristic of __________ ballistics.

A

interior

59
Q

Interior ballistics deals with characteristics that affect projectile motion inside the _______ or _________.

A

Gun barrel or rocket tube

60
Q

The pilot may have to pitch the nose of the aircraft up when firing rockets from a hover beyond __________ meters.

A

4,500

61
Q

The two types of rocket inhibits are __________ and __________.

A

rocket system safety inhibits / rocket performance inhibits

62
Q

What does an ALT LAUNCH message indicate?

A

A Hellfire launch is in progress.

63
Q

What message will display when the actioning crewmember’s selected sight is Fire Control Radar (FCR), and there is no Next To Shoot (NTS) target?

A

LOS INVALID

64
Q

What is the maximum ballistic range for the MK-66?

A

7500 meters

65
Q

What is the primary difference between the SAL and RF missiles?

A

SAL tracks Laser energy (passive) and the RF tracks reflected RF energy (active). Guidance Section.

66
Q

When a M36 training missile is detected all live missile on board the aircraft will display _____ in the missile icon.

A

NA

67
Q

The fuze contains the ARM/SAFE device that arms the missile when its launch acceleration exceeds approximately
____ g’s.

A

10 g’s.

68
Q

The AGM-114R’s minimum arming distance is ______ meters.

A

375 meters

69
Q

The AGM-114K2 arms approximately _____ meters from the launching aircraft.

A

181 meters

70
Q

When the thrust of the missile exceeds ____ to ____ pounds, the missile will launch from the rail.

A

600 to 830 Pounds

71
Q

The AGM-114R missile thrust duration is approximately 2.5 to 3.5 seconds and reaching a maximum velocity of _________.

A

435 m/s or (845 Knots)

72
Q

Which component of the M299 launcher contains the Training Missile Emulator (TME) which replicates RF missile operation?

A

Launcher Electronic Assembly

73
Q

Which MPD page allows the aircrew to electronically arm the M299 missile launcher?

A

WPN UTIL

74
Q

What are the normal pylon articulation limits when the missiles or rockets are actioned?

A

+4º to -15º

75
Q

A SAL missile that has not been coded will display an ___ inside the missile icon?

A

L.

76
Q

RF missile icons have a ______ instead of a straight line at the seeker.

A

V. (SAL MSL Line)

77
Q

A RF missile that has an over temperature condition will display ____ in the missile icon.

A

OT.

78
Q

A hang fire will display ______ in the missile icon and the message HANGFIRE will be displayed in the weapon status section of the high action display for six seconds.

A

MH.

79
Q

The SAL missile LOBL constraints symbology represents ± _____ degrees and is being driven by the _______ _______ in the crewmembers display.

A

±20 missile seeker

80
Q

To prevent video washout by the missile exhaust the aircraft should be oriented to ______° to ______ ° to the side from which the missile will be launched.

A

3 to 5 degrees

81
Q

The ALT channel selection is only available after a _____ channel has been selected.

A

Priority channel

82
Q

The missile quantity defaults to ______ for both channels if sufficient missiles are available of the selected warhead.

A

3

83
Q

The ________ _________button is used to maintain the AGM-114R missile in a LOAL flight trajectory.

A

LOBL INHIBIT (L5)
(Autonomous mode – DIR/LOFT/FLAT)
(Remote mode – DIR only)
(LOFT/FLAT locked out for 1.3 seconds when fired remote)

84
Q

What is the Tri-Service PRF code range?

A

1111 through 1788
-1st digit ONLY “1”
-2nd digit “1 – 7”
-3rd & 4th digit “1 – 8

85
Q

The AGM-114R missile main warhead defaults at power-up for anti-armor with the fuze selection of _____.

A

SQ (Discrete code of 1755)

86
Q

What negative factor during target illumination will cause the laser energy to be masked within the target?

A

Entrapment.

87
Q

What are the three LOAL trajectory modes in which the AGM-114R missile can be employed?

A

DIR, FLAT, and LOFT

88
Q

When the TADS LOS and the missile seeker LOS differ by more than _____ degrees a BACKSCATTER message will be displayed in the weapons inhibit section of the HAD.

A

2 Degrees.

89
Q

The message BACKSCATTER displayed in the weapons inhibit section of the HAD is a safety inhibit and the missile cannot be launched by squeezing the weapons trigger to the second detent. (TRUE/FALSE)?

A

TRUE.

90
Q

The minimum engagement range to fire an AGM-114K or AGM-114R missile employing the LOBL trajectory is ______ meters with a maximum range of ______ km.

A

500 Meters / 7.1 kilometers

91
Q

Which LOAL trajectory should be used to engage a bunker when firing an AGM-114R missile?

A

FLAT

92
Q

When laser designating a 5000-meter target for the AGM-114R missile, the last _____ seconds of the TOF is required to be on the target.

A

6 seconds. (terminal guidance)

93
Q

The remote designator should not be displaced more than _____ degrees in azimuth from the launch aircraft to target line.

A

60 degrees.

94
Q

Maximum autonomous designation range is limited by the ____.

A

TADS ability to maintain the total laser spot on the target.

95
Q

During a remote designation employing the AGM-114K the remote designator must be positioned outside of the ± ____ ° safety fan either side of the Gunner-Shot Line (GSL).

A

± 43 Degrees.

96
Q

Five-kilometer engagement, the maximum separation between targets should not exceed ______ meters, with an _____ second separation between missile launches.

A

100 Meters. 8 Seconds.

97
Q

The Ripple mode, after the primary channel missile is launched the alternate channel missile may be launched after ______ seconds separation.

A

1.5 Seconds.

98
Q

For an autonomous engagement, the aircraft should be oriented ___º to ___º to the side from which the missile will be launched.

A

3 TO 5 Degrees.

99
Q

The AGM-114L missile MODE selections are ________ in each crew station.

A

Common.

100
Q

In the AUTO power mode the missiles are powered-up at _____ minute intervals.

A

10.

101
Q

2nd TARGET INHIBIT selection is used for engagements against _______ targets only.

A

stationary

102
Q

The RF missiles can overheat (OT) if it is radiating (tracking) a target for more than ______ minutes.

A

3 minutes

103
Q

With 6 AGM-114L missiles loaded the AUTO power mode selection will power-up _____ RF missiles.

A

2

104
Q

Name the three RF missile modes.

A

STBY, Pre-Launch, and Post-Launch

105
Q

The AGM-114L allowable constraints is ± _____ degrees when tracking the NTS target when the range is less than one kilometer.

A

5 degrees

106
Q

Transfer alignment occurs in the _____ missile mode

A

STBY.

107
Q

In the pre-launch mode, what are the three methods of target handover to the RF missile?

A

FCR, TADS, and IDM (RFHO).

108
Q

Doppler Beam Sharpening (DBS) uses a curved trajectory to induce a relative motion for stationary targets (STI) to enhance the probability of detection and tracking between what ranges?

A

2500 to 8000 Meters

109
Q

At a range of ______ to ______ meters, targets are too close for a LOAL engagement and a “NO ACQUIRE” message will be displayed.

A

500 to 1000 Meters

110
Q

The three RF missile acquisition modes are ________, ________, and ________.

A

Terminal Track Acquisition, Pre-Terminal Track Acquisition, and Moving Target Acquisition

111
Q

What inhibits can be overridden, and how is this accomplished?

A

Performance, 2nd Detent

112
Q

Is the message “BACKSCATTER” a safety or performance inhibit?

A

SAFETY INHIBIT

113
Q

What does the message “ALT LAUNCH” mean?

A

A Rocket Launch is in progress. Missiles are inhibited from firing for 2 seconds.

114
Q

What is the RF missile radiation hazard area to be avoided?

A

1-meter 45º

115
Q

When in the training mode all tactical missiles will display ____ inside the missile icon.

A

NA

116
Q

The TME allows for thermal management of the missiles by allowing for a cumulative time on of _____ minutes.

A

30 minutes

117
Q

With the TRAIN mode selected and a weapon system is actioned the weapons inhibit field will display _________ .

A

Training.

118
Q

With the TRAIN mode selected and the missile system is actioned, the missile constraints box will display a ______ centered in the box.

A

T

SYSTEMS (13 decks)

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