Brainscape's Knowledge GenomeTM

Browse over 1 million classes created by top students, professors, publishers, and experts.


See full index

GHU211 > AW 109 LUHS > Flashcards

AW 109 LUHS Flashcards

1
Q

Which systems is the CHS composed of?

A

AFCS
CDS
FMS

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

What is the CMS composed of?

A

CMU
GCP 1-4

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

The CMU is sending information to the IFF, V/UHF and the sonobouys. What is the name/certificaition of the “cable”

A

Mil 1553

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

What happens when the Bat Master switch is set to “BAT EPU”?

A

Bat tie is closed so the EPU can charge the battery

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

Which are the relays in the DC Relay box?

A

K1,K2
BTC 1+2
GLC 1+2
External power

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

Which warnings are inhibited on ground?

A

BAT DISCH
ELECTRONICS
ENG OUT ?

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

How is the BTC magnetically retained?

A

Magnetically retained to the ON position

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

How do you check the voltage of the battery? What do you need to do?

A

BAT MASTER –> ON
GEN BUS (BTC) –> On (at least one)

(since the gen bus is supplying the main bus bar, which is where the voltage is measured)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

What is the maximum continuous load of the generator?

A

100% = 200 amp

(transient 150% = 300 amp)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

Which load is shown during assisted start?

A

0%
(but in reality it´s a negative value)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

Where is the API (Actuator position indicator) normally getting its information? How do you select the other source?

A

FCM 2

Press and hold “APD” to see FCM 1

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

Which component is measuring the current?

A

The SHUNT

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

What happens if you select “MAG” on the AHRS control panel?

A

The internal gyros are slaved to the respective MSU

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

Which exterior lights can be dimmed?

A

Only in IR-mode;
Landing and searchlight (using brt/dim switch)
Anti-collision light and formation lights (using rotary knob)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

What does the emergency erase delete?

A

Pilot data base
Tactical data base
Preset frequencies

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

Which systems are connected to the three GPS antennas?

A

AIS, CMU, NavM

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

What does the IETP stand for? Who is producing it?

A

Interactive electronic technical publication.

Produced/published by the manufacturer

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

Which are the reference lines?

A

Station lines - STA
Water lines - WL
Butt lines - BL

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

Which AP modes are available in simplex?

A

All modes but only uncoupled (showing magenta crossbars)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

How many axes and channels does the AP have?

A

4 axises, 2 channels

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

How do you engage the FLY UP mode?

A

By pressing the GA-button.
(Fly up is a degraded GA mode when RA and vertical speed indications are missing)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

What is the FMA? Where is it located?

A

Flight mode annunciator, located on the PFD screen. Shows modes in regard to the collective, roll and pitch axis + “in-command”

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

How is the ELT powered?

A

with 6 batteries, not rechargeable

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

What kind of power is the Ice Detector using?

A

DC and AC power. Has its “own” inverter for AC

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
Q

What is storing the EPAC tests and how many?

A

The VMMs and they are storing the last five

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
26
Q

What two cautions can be shown on ground after a flight?

A

Maintenance (at least one failure)
Exceedance (at least one exceedance)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
27
Q

What are the CVR/FDR inputs?

A
  • 4 audio (pilot, co-pilot, operator, cockpit microphone)
  • Displays
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
28
Q

What are the conditions to stop record CVR/FDR?

A

Stops after 10 min in case of;
- After a crash (G-sensors)
- Both engines of, weight on wheels

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
29
Q

How big is the memory of the CVR/FDR?

A

2 hours of voice, 25 hours of flight data

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
30
Q

Where are the aural warnings and their backup stored ?

A

CMU (all of them)
GCP 2 (the first 6 as backup)
GCP 1 (the other 9 as backup)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
31
Q

When does the horn sound?

A

Rotor low

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
32
Q

Which are the interior cockpit lights?

A

Utility lights
Background light

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
33
Q

How are the background cockpit lights powered and from where?

A

5v DC
3 power supplies located in front of the co-pilots feets

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
34
Q

How many cabin lights are there and how to you control them?

A

4 lights
Activated in cockpit with switch (on/off/green)
separate PB to each lamp

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
35
Q

Which are the lights in the bagage compartment?

A

2x floodlights
automatically activated when the door is opened. Also triggers a caution.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
36
Q

How many positionlights are there?

A

x2

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
37
Q

How do you control the exterior lights?

A

With the control panel on the interseat
(EXT LT Control Panel)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
38
Q

When do you get an advisory connected to the exterior lights?

A

When you are using Visible / Covert mode and all “associated” lights aren´t activated. There is a missmatch

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
39
Q

What does the emergency pb on the cyclic do?

A

Exits covert mode and turns on all visible lights regardless of the switches position.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
40
Q

What is the purpose of the ADC?

A
  • To execute computations
  • to convert signals to electronic signals (ex. pitot pressure)
    (only sends standard pressure to the screens)
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
41
Q

How many cautions are there for the AHRS?

A

x2 per AHRS
- AHRS Fail
- AHRS Fan Fail

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
42
Q

How is the IFF receiving pressure data?

A

ADC –> Display –> NavM –> CMU –> IFF

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
43
Q

What freq. band is the AIS using?

A

VHF

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
44
Q

Which freq. band is used to communicate with the sonobouy?

A
  • VHF from bouy to heli
  • UHF from heli to bouy
  • KU (data link) from heli to ship
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
45
Q

Which are the sections in the RFM?

A
  1. Limitations
  2. Normal Procedures
  3. Emergency and malfunction procedures
  4. Performance Data
  5. Optional Equipment
  6. Weight and balance
  7. Systems description
  8. Handling, servicing and maintenance
  9. Supplemental performance information
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
46
Q

Which equipment is located on the upper shelf in the rear avionic bay?

A

ADF, VMM1, VMM2, NavM, CMU, DMG, V/UHF2, IFF, Flash pattern control box, AIS

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
47
Q

Which equipment is located on the lower shelf in the rear avionic bay?

+ the side to the right

A

V/UHF1, MDR, AHRS1, RA, AHRS2, Nav1, Nav2,

+ FLIR, Audio resistor box

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
48
Q

What is located in the forward avionic bay (nose)?

A

FCM1, FCM2, SX-16 Junction box, 3x DF, WXR T/R, Battery, DME, Slaving unit, Glide slope antenna, (Obs. sys 75 ohm terminals support)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
49
Q

What is located on the wall to the left in the rear avionic bay?

A

Hoist control box, ECU1+2, Fuel drain valve, FCU, Bat disch detector, GCU1, GCU2, Emer bus cb, Hoist RCCB, Emer bus 1+2 relay, DC relay box

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
50
Q

How many fans are there to cool the systems of the heli, where are they located and how do you know if someone is inoperative?

A

Nose = x1 fan
Baggage = 4x fans

Switches on the overhead consol to start the fans

if one or more are failed, caution is displayed;
- REAR AVNX FAN
- FWD AVNX FAN

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
51
Q

From where can you get “Fresh” air?

A

Nose air conveyor (which is connected to the windshield and instrument panel (crew lower)
Has a fan that triggers an advisory when active
- VENT ON

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
52
Q

There are two shut of valves connected to the heating system (ECS). To which position are they energized?

A

Energized to the ON position

53
Q

What is the maximum OAT for operating the heater?

A

+21 degrees

54
Q

When is the shut-off valves automatically closed?

A

Engine out, engine fire
NG below 50%

55
Q

When SHALL the heating system be turned of?

A

During take-off, landing, single engine operations and when max power is needed

56
Q

What is the indication when the heater or ECS is on?

A

An advisory
- HEATER ON
- ECS ON

57
Q

How does the ECS reduce temperature? (cool the air)

A

With x3 exchangers and x1 turbine (adiabatic expansion)

58
Q

What is the Fire Detection system composed of? What indications can you get?

A

Sensing element with HELIUM inside. Responders sensing the pressure.

Low pressure = failure/leakage (caution “FIRE DET”)

High pressure = fire (warning “ENG FIRE”)

59
Q

Is there a handheld fire extinguisher?

A

Yes, in the cockpit on the pilot side

60
Q

How many bottles of do you have to extinguish a fire? How do you select which one to use?

A
  • x2 bottles, cross- connected.
  • S/OFF FIRE pb to select which engine to extinguish.
  • BTL switch to select which bottle to use
61
Q

What are the different fuel tanks, and which can you add? How many capacitive probes does they have?

A

Left = 2 capacitive probes (the rear has a low level sensor)
Right = capacitive probes (the rear has a low level sensor)
Aft = 1 capacitive probe

2x Auxiliary tank = 1 probe/tank
Ferry tank = 0

62
Q

How does the cross-feed system work?

A

Cross-feed valve. Can be set to off/on/auto. Auto opens in case of booster pump failure.

With cross-feed valve open, system 1/2 is supplying both engines with fuel. Fuel CANNOT be transfered between tanks.

63
Q

How can fuel be transfered from the right forward part to the right aft part of the fuel tank?

A

With the Ejector pump or by the flapper valve

64
Q

What are the limitations for the gear pump in the fuel system?

A
  • If A/F filter is pre clogged, the gear pump is not able to open the by pass valve
  • max 30 degree bank
  • no neg pitch angle
65
Q

What is the maximum possible amount of fuel probes?

A

7st

66
Q

What is the main difference between Hydr. sys 1 and 2?

A

Sys 1 supplies the tail rotor servo actuators

Sys 2 supplies the utility system

67
Q

What are the main parts of the hydr. sys?

A
  • reservoir
  • pump
  • filter group assembly
  • accumulator
  • actuator
  • pressure transmittor
68
Q

What is the main task of the hyd. pumps? How do they work?

A
  • Constant pressure
  • Changing flow rate
69
Q

When can the main/emergency accumulators be charged?

A

Main = on ground and in flight
Emergency = only on ground (WOW switch)

70
Q

Which reservoir is bigger and what happens if it is less than 1,6L in the bigger one?

A

nr 2 is twice as big.

Charging will stop in order to supply the 3 main servo actuators.

71
Q

What are the cautions available regarding the hyd. sys 2?

A

MAIN UTIL PRESS - (pressure below 55 bar)
EMERG UTIL PRESS - (pressure below 95 bar)
EMERG UTIL CHRG - (the accumulator is beeing charged (not a failure))

72
Q

When the pressure from the main/emerg accumulator is discharged, what pressure will be indicated?

A

35 bar, since this is the pre-charged value (on the “other side” of the accumulator)

73
Q

Why has the emerg. accumulator often a higher pressure than the main accumulator?

A

The emerg. acc. has a time delay switch which gives it about 30s more of “charging time”.

74
Q

What does the different colors on the landing gear control panel mean?

A

red = transition
green = down and locked
black/no light = up and locked

75
Q

What does the caution “LANDING GEAR” mean?

A

not a failure

its a reminder to take down the landing gear since you are slow and close to the ground (see table and AWG switch)

76
Q

What is the design of the helicopter and what are the components of that design?

A

Semi-monocoque design
- frames
- strings
- longerons
- skin (absorbs the least force. Mostly for aerodynamics)

77
Q

What is connecting the overhead consol with the longitudional box beam?

A

Support frames

78
Q

How is the tailboom attached to the pod?

A

With 4 bolts
- 4x (Bolt, barrel not (why not?), retainer, plug)

79
Q

What does the K1/K” relay do?

A
  • Maintaining DC Gen caution during start
  • Showing 0% load during start
  • Removes limits on GCU during assisted start
80
Q

What is the indication in case the hyd. oil filter gets pre-clogged?

A

Pop-out indicator

81
Q

Which equipment can you only operate when the landing gear is in the down position?

A
  • parking break
  • rotor break
  • left/right pedal break
82
Q

What does the auxiliary hyd. pump supply?

A

charge to the main accumulator

83
Q

What is the name of the landing gear locking system?

A

Finger lock

84
Q

What is the design of the tail fin?

A

Assymetrical

85
Q

If the locking mechanism is failing, is it possible to keep the landing gear in the up position?

A

Yes, as long as there is hyd. pressure.

86
Q

PFrom which door do you get “CABIN DOOR OPEN”?

A

pilot
co-pilot
sliding doors

only one caution for all/one door

87
Q

What is the typ of windshield for the pilot/co-pilot?

A

Polycarbonate

88
Q

What material are the windows made out of?

A

acrylic / Plastic

89
Q

How many RPM are 100% NR

A

384 rpm

90
Q

What is the characteristics of the main rotor blades?

A

They have a droop snoot airfoil section
Leading edge = asymmetrical
Rest of the blade = symmetrical

They are able to produce lift with 0 degrees AoA

91
Q

Which are the main parts of the Main transmission system?

A
  • Coupling gearbox
  • Reduction gearbox
  • Mast and bell housing
92
Q

Is the oil cooling fan driven in an autorotation?

A

No, since the free-wheeling unit is located between the belt and the transmission

93
Q

How is the main gearbox installed?

A

2x tubes to the front
2x struts to the back

94
Q

What are the main gearbox indications?

A
  • 2x CHIP DET.
  • RPM sensor
  • oil temp switch + transmitter (filter assembly)
  • oil press switch + transmitter (coupling gearbox)
95
Q

What is the purpose of the chinese weights and where are they located?

A

Mounted on the tail rotor assembly in order to reduce AoA in case of loss of control

96
Q

What is the purpose of the torque shaft lever?

A

change the direction of the control input

97
Q

What is the purpose of the tail rotor 90 degree gear box?

A

Reduce speed
change of direction

98
Q

Which indications can you get in regard to the tail gear box?

A

only chip detection

99
Q

How many rotary trim actuators (parallel) are there and where are they located?

A

x4 - one per axis

located close to the control “source”, some under the co-pilot.

100
Q

How many linear actuators are there?

A

x6
2x pitch, 2x roll, 2x yaw

101
Q

What is the purpose of the LVDT?

A

Linear variable differential trasducer
- Sends position of the collective to the ECU for the “FADEC” calculations

102
Q

What is the purpose of the microswitch in the trim actuator?

A

To de-energize the motor in case of “fly through” in order not to damage the motor

103
Q

What is the mixing unit composed of and which inputs are beeing mixed?

A
  • Mixing unit support
  • walking beam
  • mixing star

Pitch, roll, collective

104
Q

How many force trim release switches are there for the yaw axis?

A

x4

one is enough to release the magnetic clutch

105
Q

Can the main rotor servo actuator be operated of one system is failed?

A

yes

106
Q

What is the purpose of the follow up link?

A

To re-center the position of the servo valves

107
Q

What type of actuator is the main rotor servo actuator?

A

Tandem type actuator

108
Q

What is the backup to the tail rotor servo actuator?

A

Mechanical backup only

109
Q

Which are the parts controlling the swashplate?

A

Outer ring (connected with the rotorhead)
Inner ring (connected with the actuators)
Bullbearings in between

110
Q

Where is the engine oil tank?

A

inside the mast and bell housing

111
Q

How many coils have the NR speed sensor?

A

x3

ECU1
ECU2
VMMs (1+2)

112
Q

How are the hyd. pump sys 1+2 driven?

A

Via the reduction gearbox

113
Q

What are safetypins?

A

Thats the backup in case of de-bonding. The safety pins needs to be free-moving to be approved

114
Q

Can you fix the controls in any way?

A

Yes, using the friction knob close to the pilot side (collective + cyclic)

115
Q

To what is the starter/generator connected?

A

To the accessory drive train and later the n1

116
Q

What is T4,5?

A

ITT, temperature between N1 and N2

117
Q

Where are the governer switches located?

A

on the pilot collective control (x2)

118
Q

Which input has priority in automatic governer mode?

A

The ECU has priority over the pilot

119
Q

What is the purpose of the ECU?

A

to keep NR constant

120
Q

What is the difference in power when using the OEI training mode?

A

Maximum continuous power is in reality -2% than what is showing.

122% rather than 124%

121
Q

What does the S/OFF VALVE caution mean?

A

Failure of the valve. You need to manually shut down the engine in case of overspeed

122
Q

What EAPS indication do you have?

A

EAPS ON (advisory)
EAPS PRESS (caution)

Both are dependent of the pressure from the shut-off valve

123
Q

What happens if you are on ground with one engine in idle and pull more than 20% collective?

A

Warning “IDLE”

124
Q

What is the PMA?

A

Permanent Magnet Alternator

Supplies ECU with power above 50% NG. Battery (EPU or GEN) supplies ECU before that

125
Q

When do you get the warning “OIL PRESS”?

A

ONLY when the eng oil pressure is TOO LOW

126
Q

What does the caution “ITT LIMITER” mean?

A

The ECU cannot maintain the ITT within its limits

127
Q

What happens if you have 101% TRQ for 1 sec in AEO?

A

Immediately XMSN OVTRQ

(“Exceedence” starts recording after 5 sec of overlimit)

128
Q

What values can you see on the Power Index?

A

The values closest to their limit.

ITT, TRQ, NG

GHU211 (21 decks)

Brainscape helps you reach your goals faster, through stronger study habits.
© 2024 Bold Learning Solutions. Terms and Conditions