Brainscape's Knowledge GenomeTM

Browse over 1 million classes created by top students, professors, publishers, and experts.


See full index

GHU211 > ALW > Flashcards

ALW Flashcards

.. = , --- ^ = "

1
Q

1. Where is the headquarters of ICAO? ;

A

;B. Montreal;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q
  1. An aircraft flying over the territory of another state must:;
A

;B. Follow the Rules of the air of the State its overflying.;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q
  1. For aircraft flying over the high seas.. which rules shall be in force?;
A

;D. the rules established under the convention on International Civil Aviation.;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q
  1. Which ICAO annex is dedicated to facilitate the passage of passengers at the aerodromes?;
A

;A. Annex 9;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q
  1. A detailed description of the visual ground aids can be found in ICAO:;
A

;A. Annex 14;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q
  1. Annex 14 to the Convetion of International Civial Aviation contains SARPS for:;
A

;B. Aerodromes.;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q
  1. Which of the following ICAO douments contain International Standards and Recommended Practicies(SARPS);
A

;B. Annexes to the Convention of INternational Civil Aviation;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q
  1. Which of the following Annexes to the Chicago convention contains minimum for a crew license to have international validity?;
A

;C. Annex 1;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q
  1. According to the Chicago Convention.. aircraft of Contracting States shall have the right to make flights into or i transit non stop across the territory of other contracting States and to make stops for non-traffic purposes without the necessity of obtaining prior permission. This applies to the following flight:;
A

;D. To aircraft not engaged in scheduled international air service.;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

10.What does the International Air Transport Agreement provide for?;

A

;C. The carriage of traffic between the state of registration of the aircraft and any other participating state.;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q
  1. If a state finds that its impracticable to comply with an International Standard:;
A

;A. It shall give immediate notice to ICAO of the diffrences between its own practices and the International Standard.;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q
  1. What is the obligation of a State in the event of non-compliance with an International Standard?;
A

;C. The state has to notify the Council of ICAO and publish such diffrences in the national AIP.;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q
  1. Concerning the Chicago Convention of 1944:;
A

;A. Each State has total sovereignty over the airspace above its territory.;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q
  1. The president of the ICAO Council is elected for:;
A

;B. 3 Years;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q
  1. Which international organisation was founded with the Chicago Agreement?;
A

;C. ICAO;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q
  1. International Civil Aviation Organization (ICAO) establishes:;
A

;A. Standards and recommended international practices for contracting member States.;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q
  1. According to Article 73 of the German Basic Law.. the legislative right concerning aviation is:;
A

;C. Exclusively possessed by the Federal Government.;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q
  1. One of the main objectives of ICAO is to:;
A

;A. Develop priciples and techniques for international aviation.;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q
  1. 5th Freedom of the Air:;
A

;B. The right to carry revenue traffic between any points of landing on flights between 3 or more treaty partner nations (B to C to D).;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q
  1. Regarding air operations - what is the role of the national aviation authorities in relation to EASA?;
A

;D.EASA proposes implementing rules and reguations and the national aviation act as competent authorities.;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q
  1. In which aera of Air Traffic Control in Europe does Eurocontrol have a logical and operationally essntial role to play?;
A

;D. Air traffic flow management in Europe.;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q
  1. What is the main role of EASA in European civil Aviation?;
A

;C. EASA provides legislative proposals to the European Comission for implementation and promotes the highest common standards of safety and enviromental protection in civil aviation.;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

23.What is the mission statement of EASA?;

A

;D. EASA produes rules and reguations.. and promotes the highest common standards of civil aviation safety and enviromental protection in Europe and Worldwide.;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q
  1. What does IATA mean?;
A

;A.International Air Transport Assocation;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
Q
  1. What i the mission statement of IATA?;
A

;A. IATA´s mission is to represent.. lead and serve the airline industry. IATA seeks to improve understanding of the industry among decision makers and increase awarness of the benefits that aviation brngs to national and global economies. It fights for the intrests of airlines across the globe.. challenging unreasonable rules and charges.. holding regulators and government to account.. and striving fo sensible regulation.;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
26
Q
  1. What is status of IATA?;
A

;C. It is a trade association of aviation operators and others involved with international aviation.;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
27
Q
  1. Which is the permanent body of IACO being responsible to the Assembly?;
A

;C. The Council.;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
28
Q
  1. Which privelege for an aeroplane registered in one State and enroute to or from that State.. to take on passengers.. mail or cargo in a second State and put them down in a third State is called:;
A

;C.5th Freedom of the air.;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
29
Q
  1. Which Freedom of the Air will be exercised by an airline planning a flight that will require a technical stop in neighbouring State?;
A

;A. 2nd Freedom of the Air;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
30
Q
  1. Which Freedom gives the privlige to land for non-trafiic purposes in another ICAO contracting state?;
A

;D. 2nd Freedom of the Air;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
31
Q
  1. The right to land in another state for technical purpose such as refueling or maintanance is ____ Freedom of the Air.;
A

;B. 2nd;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
32
Q
  1. The privlige to fly across the territory of another participating State without landing is called:;
A

;D. 1st Freedom of the Air;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
33
Q
  1. The Second Freedom of the Air is the right to:;
A

;A. Land for a technical stop.;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
34
Q
  1. The first freedom of the Air is: ;
A

;B. The right to overfly without landing;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
35
Q
  1. Why is the 8th Freedom of the Air particularly applicable to the European Union?;
A

;C. Because most of the EU is effectively ^one state^ as far as the internal movement of people is concerned.;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
36
Q
  1. The ICAO Annex dealing with the safe transport of dangerous goods by air is:;
A

;D. Annex 18;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
37
Q
  1. 6th Freedom of the Air is:;
A

;D. a combination of Freedoms 3 and 4. Revenue traffic flown between two treaty partner nations (C to A) through carriers base (B).;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
38
Q
  1. The objectives of ICAO were ratified by the:;
A

;D. Chicago Convention 1944;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
39
Q
  1. The Air NAvigation Comission consists of:;
A

;B. 19 Members appointed by the ICAO Council.;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
40
Q
  1. The airport licence is issued by the following aeronautical authority:;
A

;A. The aeronautical authority of the Länder in which the terrain is located;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
41
Q
  1. Where is the ICAO Annex 13 applicable?;
A

;D. Aircraft Accident and Incident Investigation;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
42
Q
  1. The aviation supervision may prohibit a pilot to depart from an airfield;
A

;A. in order to protect against dangers and for ensuring air traffic safety;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
43
Q
  1. What is the mission statement of ICAO?;
A

;C. ICAO´s mission is to serve as the global forum of States for international civil aviation. ICAO develops policies and Standards.. undertakes compliance audits.. performs studies and analyses.. provides assistance and builds aviation capacity through many other activities and the cooperation of its Member States and stakeholders.;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
44
Q
  1. Standards and Recommended Practices for Security are contained in ICAO Annex:;
A

;A. 17;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
45
Q
  1. Which body of ICAO finalizes the Standards and Recommended Practices (SARPS) for submission for adoption?;
A

;C. The Air Navigation Comission.;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
46
Q
  1. Annex 17 to the Convention of Chicago covers:;
A

;A. Security.;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
47
Q
  1. The ICAO annex which deals with entry and departure of perons and their baggage international flights is:;
A

;A. Annex 9;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
48
Q
  1. The ^Standards^ contained in the Annexes to the Chicago convention are to be considered:;
A

;D. binding for the member States that have not notified ICAO about a national difference.;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
49
Q
  1. Which of the following is obligating for members of ICAO?;
A

;C. ICAO must be informed about diffrences from the standards in any of the Annexes to the convention.;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
50
Q
  1. Which of the following Annexes to Chicago convention contains minimum specifications for the design of aerodromes?;
A

;c. Annex 14;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
51
Q
  1. Name the body of ICAO that considers and recommends to the council fo adoption.. modifications of the Annexes of the Convention to the ICAO:;
A

;d. Air Navigation Commission;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
52
Q
  1. The ICAO Annex dealing with the registration and marking of aircraft is:;
A

;d. Annex 7;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
53
Q
  1. Which of the following Annexes to the Chicago convention contains international standards and recommended practices for Air Traffic Services (ATS)?;
A

;c. Annex 11;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
54
Q
  1. The International Civil Aviation Organization (ICAO) was established by the convention of:;
A

;d. Chicago;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
55
Q
  1. The Standards of Airworthiness.. detailed in Annex 8 part III are applicable to:;
A

;a. Airplanes of over 5700 kg Maximum Certified Take-off Mass.. intended for the carriage of passengers.. cargo or mail in international air navigation;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
56
Q
  1. Who issues the certificate of airworthiness?;
A

;a. State of registry;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
57
Q
  1. Which state shall ensure there exists a continuing integrity program to ensure the airworthiness of aeroplanes above 5700 kg?;
A

;b. State of design;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
58
Q
  1. When is an Airworthiness Certificate required to be on board an aircraft?;
A

;a. For any flight operation;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
59
Q
  1. Annex 8 covers airworthiness of aircraft. Who is responsible for the administration of the Certificates of Airworthiness?;
A

;b. The authority of the State of the Registration;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
60
Q
  1. Where on the wings of heavier-than-air aircraft shall registration marks be located?;
A

;a. On the left half of the lower surface of the wing structure.;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
61
Q
  1. Which of the following gets its lift chiefly through aerodynamis forces?;
A

;a. Heavier - than - air aircraft.;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
62
Q
  1. Describe the following: helicopter.. glider & airship:;
A

;a. aircraft;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
63
Q
  1. What is the Aircraft Register and where is it kept and supervised?;
A

;d. kept and supervised at the LBA in Braunschweig;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
64
Q
  1. The height of the mark on the fuselage (or equivalent structure) and on the vertical tail surfaces of heavier than air aircraft shall be:;
A

;c. at least 30 centimeters;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
65
Q
  1. What is the definition of the state of registry? (ICAO ANNEX /7;
A

;a. The state on whose register the aircraft is entered.;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
66
Q
  1. The height of the marks on the fuselage (or equivalent structure) and on the vertical tail surfaces of heavier than air aircraft shall be:;
A

;c. at least 30 centimeters;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
67
Q
  1. The common mark shall be selected from the series of symbols included in the radio call sign allocated:;
A

;b. to the international Civil Aviation Organisation by the International Telecommunication Union.;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
68
Q
  1. According to Annex 7.. the registration mark shall be letters.. numbers or a combination of letters and numbers and shall be that assigned by:;
A

;a. the State of Registry or common mark registering authority.;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
69
Q
  1. When letters are used for the registration mark.. combinations shall not be used which might be confused with the:;
A

;d. five letter combinations used in the international code of signals;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
70
Q
  1. When letters are used for registration mark.. combinations shall not be used which might be confused with urgent signals.. for example:;
A

;a. TTT;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
71
Q
  1. The height of the marks under the wings of heavier-than-air aircraft shall be:;
A

;a. at least 50 centimeters.;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
72
Q
  1. The assignment of the common mark to a common mark registering authority will be made by:;
A

;d. the international Civil Aviation Organisation.;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
73
Q
  1. When the first chracter of registration mark is a letter:;
A

;c. it shall be preceded by a hyphen;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
74
Q
  1. According to Annex 7.. the definition of aircraft is:;
A

;b. Any machine that can derive support in the atmosphere from reactions of the air other than the reactions of the air against the Earth’s surface;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
75
Q
  1. According to Annex 7.. the definition of heavier-than-air aircraft is:;
A

;d. Any aircraft deriving ist lift in flight chiefly from aerodynamic forces.;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
76
Q
  1. An aircraft with the identification D-CFLU can be a;
A

;d. multi-engined aircraft with a maximum mass of 5700 - 14000 kg MTOW;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
77
Q
  1. Aircraft required to be registered with an airworthiness certificate are;
A

;d. airplanes.. rotorcraft.. airships;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
78
Q
  1. An aircraft which has the right of way shall maintain its:;
A

;c. heading and speed;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
79
Q
  1. An aircraft taxiing on the manoevring area of an aerodrome shall give way to:;
A

;c. aircraft landing and taking off.;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
80
Q
  1. A steady red light beam directed at an aircraft in flight from the aerodrome control tower means:;
A

;a. do not land.. give way to other aircraft and continue circling;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
81
Q
  1. While taxiing.. an aircraft receives the following light signal from the control tower: series of green flashes. This signal means that the aircraft:;
A

;c. may continue to taxi towards the take-off area.;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
82
Q
  1. Aircraft ^A^ With an ATC clearance is flying in VMC within a control area. Aircraft ^B^ with no ATC clearence is approaching at approximately the same altitude and on a converging course. Which aircraft has the right of way?;
A

;c. Aircraft ^B^ if ^A^ is on its left.;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
83
Q
  1. Which is the correct order of priority?;
A

;a. Power-driven heavier-than-air aircraft shall give way to airships.. gliders and balloons.;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
84
Q
  1. When two-way communication is lost.. a pilot should select____on the transponder.;
A

;d. Code 7600;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
85
Q
  1. No aircraft shall be flown over the congested area of cities.. towns or settlements unless at a height that will permit:;
A

;a. in the event of an emergency a landing to be made safely.;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
86
Q
  1. A series of red flashes from aerodrome control tower directed towards an aircraft on the ground means:;
A

;d. taxi clear of landing area in use.;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
87
Q
  1. A flight plan shall be submitted prior to departure for a controlled flight least:;
A

;b. 60 minutes prior to departure.;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
88
Q
  1. Whilst flying in an aerodrome’s traffic circuit.. an aircraft receives a series of green flashes from the tower. The aircraft:;
A

;a. must come back to land and the landing clearance will be sent in due time.;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
89
Q
  1. On a VFR flight.. your magnetic is track 005°.. the magnetic heading 355°. Which of the following flight level is correct?;
A

;b. FL55;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
90
Q
  1. An aircraft manoeuvring in an airport’s circuit receives a series of red flashes from the control tower. This signifies that the aircraft must:;
A

;b. not land beacause the airport is not available for landing.;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
91
Q
  1. The signal from pilot to the signalman (marshaller) which means ^brakes applied^ is.;
A

;c. raise arm and hand.. with fingers extended.. horizontally in front of face.. the clench fist.;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
92
Q
  1. An aircraft operated on.. or in the vicinity of.. an aerodrome shall whether or not withan an ATZ: 1) observe other aerodrome traffic for the purpose of avoiding collision. 2) conform with or avoid the pattern or traffic formed by other aircraft in operation. 3) make all turns to the right.. when approaching for landing or taking-off unless otherwise instructed. 4) land and take-off into the wind unless safety.. the runway configuration.. or an air traffic consideration determines that a different direction should be used. Which statements are correct?;
A

;c. 1.. 2.. 4;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
93
Q
  1. Two aircraft are approaching each other in a controlled airspace class D in VMC at approximately the same level on converging courses. Aircraft ^A^ is flying under IFR.. Aircraft ^B^ is flying under VRF Who has the right of way?;
A

;a. Aircraft ^B^.. providing it has ^A^ on its left.;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
94
Q
  1. A series of green flashes from aerodrome control directed towards an aircraft on ground means:;
A

;a. cleared to taxi.;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
95
Q
  1. A series of green flashes from aerodrome control directed towards an aircraft in flight means:;
A

;b. return for landing.;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
96
Q
  1. The ^Total Estimated Elapsed Time^ in item 16 of a VFR flight plan is the estimated time.;
A

;b. required by the aircraft from take-off to arrive overhead the destination airport.;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
97
Q
  1. Except when necessary for take-off or landing.. a VFR flight over congested areas of Cities.. towns or settlements or over an open air assembly of persons shall not be flown at a height less than:;
A

;c. 300 m above the highest obstacle within a radius of 600 m from the aircraft.;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
98
Q
  1. A red flare light signal addressed to an aircraft in flight means:;
A

;c. notwithstanding any previous instructions.. do not land for the time being.;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
99
Q
  1. A series of red flashes from aerodrome control tower directed towards an aircraft in flight means?;
A

;B. Aerodrome unsafe.. do not land.;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
100
Q
  1. When two aircraft are approaching head on or approximately so and there is a danser of collision.. each shall:;
A

;A. Alter its heading to the right.;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
101
Q
  1. No aircraft shall be clown over the congested area of cities.. towns or settlements unless at a height that will permit.. in the event of an emergency.. a landning to be safe.. Exceptions to this rulle are:;
A

;A. Take-off and landing.. or permission from the appropriate authority ;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
102
Q
  1. An aircraft being towed by night must display:;
A

;D. The same light that are required in flight.;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
103
Q
  1. Anti-collision lights on an aircraft must be displayed:;
A

;D. As soon as the engine are running ;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
104
Q
  1. When a pilot raises his arms extended.. palms facing outwards and moves his hands inwards to cross in front of the case.. this means:;
A

;C.Insert chocks.;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
105
Q
  1. One of the following statement about aircraft ground movement is correct:;
A

;C. A taxiing aircraft has prioritity over a vechicle towing an aircraft.;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
106
Q
  1. The pilot in command of an aircraft 1) Must comply immediatley to all instructions recieved from ATC 2) Is responsible only if he is the ”pilot flying” 3) May deviate from air regulations for safety reasons. 4) May be exempt from air regulations in order to comply to an ATC instruction. 5) May ask for the modification of an unsatisfactory clearance. Which of the following combinations contain all of the correct statements?;
A

;B. 3..5;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
107
Q
  1. The minimum flight visibility for a VFR flight in ATS airspace classified as D at an altitude above 10000 ft ML is;
A

;B. 8 km;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
108
Q
  1. A steady green light from aerodrome control tower directed towards an aircraft on ground means:;
A

;B. Cleared for take-off.;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
109
Q
  1. Aerodrome control can use light signals when radio communications are not possible. For an aircraft taxiing on the ground.. a red flashing light means:;
A

;C. Vacate the landing area in use.;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
110
Q
  1. You are flying on a VFR flight in VMC in a controlled airspace. Suddenly.. you realize you are unable to maintain VMC. What are your actions according ICAO Annex 2?;
A

;A. Request a special VFR clearence if flying in a control zone.;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
111
Q
  1. VMC minima for VFR flights in Class B airspace.. above 3050 m (10 000 ft) AMSL.. are:;
A

;B. 8 km visibility.. 1500m horizontal and 1000 ft vertical distance from clouds.;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
112
Q
  1. A VFR flight.. at an altitude of 5000 ft in ATS airspace classified as C.. has to maintain the following minima of flight visibility and distance from clouds:;
A

;D. 5 km visibility: 1000 ft vertically and 1500 m horizontally clear of cloud.;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
113
Q
  1. Which signal from a marshaller indicates ”chocks are inserted”?;
A

;D. Arms and wands fully extended above head.. move wands inward in a ”jabbing” motion until wands touch.;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
114
Q
  1. A VFR flight.. when flying inside an ATS airspace classified as C.. has to maintain the following minima of flight visibility and distance from clouds:;
A

;D. 8 km at or above 3050m (10000ft) AMSL.. 1500 m horizontal and 300 m vertical from clouds.;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
115
Q
  1. Above 3050 m (10000ft) AMSL.. the VMC minima for VFR flights in all classes of airpspace (except class A) are:;
A

;C. Flight visibility: 8km: distance from clouds. 1500 m horizontal: 1000 ft vertical;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
116
Q
  1. The light signal from aerodrome control tower directed towards an aircraft in flight indicating ”give way to other aircraft and continue circling” is:;
A

;A. Steady red.;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
117
Q
  1. A marshaller has his arms fully extended above his head with wands pointing up. This means that:;
A

;A. You should proceed to this parking position (stand/gate).;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
118
Q
  1. ”Raise hand just above shoulder.. with palm open.. eye contact with flight crew.. then close hand into a fist”. This signal from a signalman to an aircraft means:;
A

;B. Engage brakes.;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
119
Q
  1. The marshalling signal ”arms and wands fully extended above head.. moving wands inward in a ’jabbing’ motion until wands touch” means:;
A

;B. chocks inserted.;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
120
Q
  1. What is the minimum flight altitude for VFR flights permitted overtowns.. settlements and populated areas?;
A

;C. 1000 ft above the highest obstacle within 600 m of the aircraft position.;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
121
Q
  1. On a VFR flight.. your magnetic track is 200 degrees. Which of the following flight levels should be used?;
A

;A. FL 65.. FL 85 or FL 105;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
122
Q
  1. A VFR flight when flying inside an ATS airspace classified as B has to maintain the following minima of flight visibility and distance from clouds:;
A

;D. 5 km below 3050 m (10000ft) AMSL 1500 m horizontal and 300 m vertical from clouds.;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
123
Q
  1. In order to operate under visual flight rules above FL 100 in uncontrolled airspace.. there must be:;
A

;C. 8 km visibility.. 1000 ft vertical and 1500 m horizontal distance from clouds.;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
124
Q
  1. The planned cruising speed for the first leg or all of the cruising portion of the flight be entered in the speed box of a flight plan form. This speed is the:;
A

;C. True air speed (TAS);;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
125
Q
  1. The VMC minima for a VFR flight inside an ATS airspace classified as B.. is:;
A

;A. 8 km visibility when at or above 3050m (10000ft) AMSL and 1500 m horizontal and 300 m vertical from cloud.;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
126
Q
  1. An aircraft operating in accordance with VFR.. above the sea at altitudes between 4500 ft and 9000 ft.. outside controlled airspace shall maintain at least:;
A

;D. A distance from cloud of 1500 m horizontally and 1000 ft vertically and flight visibility of 5 km;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
127
Q
  1. An aircraft taxiing on the manoeuvring area of an aerodrome shall give way to.;
A

;D. Aircraft taking-off or about to take-off.;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
128
Q
  1. If the ground visibility is reported 700 m.. can a special VFR flight take-off from an aerodrome in a control zone?;
A

;A. No.;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
129
Q
  1. Which signal from a marshaller indicates ”all clear”?;
A

;C. Right arm raised bent at elbow with thumb extended.;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
130
Q
  1. A VFR flight.. at an altitude of 5000 ft MSL in ATS airspace classified as C.. has to maintain the following minima of flight visibility and distance from clouds;
A

;D. 5 km visibility: 1000 ft vertically and 1500 m horizontally clear of cloud.;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
131
Q
  1. You are outside controlled airspace on a VFR flight above 3000 ft. Your distance from the cloud should be:;
A

;D. 1000 ft vertically and 1..5 km horizontally.;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
132
Q
  1. On the ground.. when two aircraft are approaching head on:;
A

;C. Both airplanes must stop or where practicable alter course to the right to keep well clear.;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
133
Q
  1. When an aircraft is operating in class F airspace below 900 m AMSL.. the minimum horizontal distance from cloud for VFR flight is: ;
A

;D. clear of clouds and surface in sights.;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
134
Q
  1. The red flashing anti-collosion light (beacon) should be in use: ;
A

;C. to indicate caution to all around whenever engines are running.;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
135
Q
  1. Flight operating withing airspace classified as G above an altitude of 10 000 ft MSL and in accordance with VFR shall observe the following weather minima:;
A

;A. a distance from cloud: 1 500 m horizontally.. 1000 ft vertically: flight visibility: 8 km;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
136
Q
  1. The light signal from aerodrome control tower directed towards an aircraft in flight indicating ^return for landing^ is:;
A

;A. a series of green flashes.;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
137
Q
  1. The minimum height.. except for take-off and landing. may;
A

;C. never be ignored;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
138
Q
  1. Advertising flights with towed objects need permission of:;
A

;D. the aeronautical authority of the Länder of residence or domicile of the applicant;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
139
Q
  1. A pilot need a permit issued by the appropiate aeronaturical authority for: ;
A

;B. dropping animal feed for wild animals;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
140
Q
  1. Aerobatic flights are prohibited in the heights of less than: ;
A

;B. 1500 ft GND;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
141
Q
  1. Which unit of measurement applies for the vertical speed in aviation?;
A

;D. ft/min;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
142
Q
  1. Who is allowed to check whether a pilot has prepared a flight properly?;
A

;A. the delegate of the aviation supervision;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
143
Q
  1. After having entered a control zone on a VFR-flight.. the radio fails. How shall the pilot behave?;
A

;A. proceed according to the acknowledged air traffic control clearence and wait for the light signals of the aerodrome control tower.;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
144
Q
  1. As an exception.. you would like to take-off and land on a Bundeswehr aerodrome with DEKIL. The flight is not of commercial nature. When are you allowed to do so?;
A

;B. only with permission of the person responsible for flight operations;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
145
Q
  1. The pilot in command is the ultimate authority on operating the aircraft: ;
A

;B. during taxiing.. take-off.. landing and enroute.;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
146
Q
  1. Radiotelephony communication for VFR flights in Germany in airspace ^C^ above flight level 100 is conducted;
A

;A. in English language;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
147
Q
  1. An aircraft overtakes another aircraft when it approaches from behind in a direction of flight having an angle less than:;
A

;B. 070 degrees towards the direction of flight of the other aircraft;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
148
Q
  1. The pilot is required to transmit a departure message to the responsible air traffic control unit for a flight from an uncontrolled aerodrome after filed the flight plan. ;
A

;B. A departure message has to be transmitted in any case.;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
149
Q
  1. In Germany Airspace G is below;
A

;C. 1000 ft an 1700 ft GND.. otherwise 2500 ft GND;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
150
Q
  1. According to ICAO Annex 2 - Rules of the Air.. what is correct concerning a ^Time Check^?;
A

;D. A time check contains time given in hours.. minutes and seconds.;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
151
Q
  1. Under which conditions may aircraft fly in formation?;
A

;A. Only upon agreement between the participating pilots;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
152
Q
  1. Engine-powered aircraft on a VFR flight in airspace C (below FL100) are required to operate a transponder;
A

;B. Always;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
153
Q
  1. What can be ignored for a VFR flight in uncontrolled airspace?;
A

;B. Ground visibility;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
154
Q
  1. A radiotelephony signal comprising of the word ”PAN PAN” means that an aircraft;
A

;C. Has a very urgent message to transmit concerning the safety of a ship.. aircraft or other vehicle.. or of some person on board within sight.;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
155
Q
  1. When shall aircraft in operation switch on their navigation lights?;
A

;D. At night;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
156
Q
  1. The pilot in command is responsible for operating the aircraft. This is valid;
A

;D. Irrespective.. whether the pilot operates the aircraft personally or not;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
157
Q
  1. A pre-flight breifing needs to be obtained before every flight;
A

;C. Which requires a flight plan to be filled;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
158
Q
  1. On aerodromes.. aircrafts taxiing by own power means;
A

;C. To have priority over other vehicles and pedestrians;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
159
Q
  1. Flight visibility defines as:;
A

;D. Visibility forward from the cockpit of an aircraft;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
160
Q
  1. The aerunatical chart ICAO 1:500..000 describes an airspace ”D CTR” with: ”2800 (Hx)”. Does a pilot.. whose radio has failed.. has the possibility to cross this airspace on a Saturday?;
A

;A. Only if the status of the deactivation of the control zone has been confirmed just before the radio failiure happens;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
161
Q
  1. You hear on the radio that another pilot repeatedly transmits ”MAYDAY”. It is ;
A

;A. A distress signal;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
162
Q
  1. If there is any danger on the route.. how will ATC inform the pilot?;
A

;B. ATC will transmit to the pilot information about distance and bearing to the potential threat.;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
163
Q
  1. An overtaking aircraft is an aircraft that approaches another aircraft from the rear on a line forming of.;
A

;C. less than 70˚ with the plane of symmetry of the latter.;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
164
Q
  1. The higher value being relevant.. a VFR-flight needs to operate a transponder above altitude 5000 ft MSL or;
A

;D. 3500ft GND;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
165
Q
  1. An engine-powered aircraft on a VFR flight leaves airspace C in the vicinity of an airport and continues its flight in airspace E at FL75. What does the pilot have to do? He/She;
A

;C. Unrequested spwuak A/C 7000 and observe the prescribed minima for VFR flights in airspace E;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
166
Q
  1. When must the pilot turn on the navigation lights?;
A

;B. Only at night.;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
167
Q
  1. While on the ground.. the navigation lights shall be turned on:;
A

;B. By all aircraft moving on the movement area of an aerodrome from sunset to sunrise to indicate the relative path of the aircraft to an observer and other lights shall not be displayed if they are likely to be mistaken for these lights.;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
168
Q
  1. What is meant by by the term ”SPECIAL VFR”?;
A

;B. A VFR flight cleared by ATC to operate within a CTR in meteorological conditions below VMC.;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
169
Q
  1. In the event of a delay of a controlled flight.. the submitted flight plan should be amended or canceled and a new flight plan submitted when the delay is in excess of:;
A

;A. 30 minutes of the estimated time off blocks.;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
170
Q
  1. What is the lowest height for VFR flights over congested areas?;
A

;B. 1000ft;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
171
Q
  1. Except where necessary for landing and take-off.. VFR flights are not permitted over congested areas of cities.. towns or settlements.. or over and open air assembly of persons a height less than ___ above the highest obstacle within a radius of ____ from the aircraft.;
A

;A. 300 m: 600 m;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
172
Q
  1. ICAO Annex 2: 4.6 - Except when necessary for take-off or landing.. or except by permission from the appropriate authority.. a VFR flight shall not be flown: a) over the congested areas of cities.. towns or settlements or over an open air assembly of persons at a height less than 300m (1000ft) above the highest obstacle within a radius of 600 m from the aircraft: b) elsewhere than as specified in 4.6 a).. at a height less than ____(____) above the ground or water.;
A

;A. 150 m: (500ft);;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
173
Q
  1. What should a pilot do at night and if no radio communication can be established when he/she wants to acknowledge and instruction fom an aerodrome control tower?;
A

;C. Flash on and off twice the aircrafts landing lights or.. if not so equipped.. by switch on and off twice its navigation lights.;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
174
Q
  1. In the event that a controlled flight inadvertently deviates from its track given in the current flight plan.. action should be taken in order to:;
A

;A. Adjust the heading of aircraft to regain track as soon as practicable.;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
175
Q
  1. Aircraft equipped with red anti-collision lights shall display them:;
A

;C. On the ground when the engines are running.;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
176
Q
  1. What is the meaning of red pyrotechnic from an airfield to an aircraft flying next to this airfield?;
A

;A. Notwithstanding any previous instructions.. do not land for the time being.;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
177
Q
  1. A signalman (marshaller) requests the pilot to engage brakes with the following signal:;
A

;A. Raise hand jut above shoulder height with open palm.. ensure eye-contact with crew.. close hand into a fist.;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
178
Q
  1. While flying at night another aircraft reports that you are on his 100 degree relative bearing. Assuming you are on converging courses.. you should see his:;
A

;D. Green navigation light.;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
179
Q
  1. The pre-flight actions for a flight leaving the local aerodrome area.. is to include a careful:;
A

;A. Study of the available meteorological reports and forecasts for the route.;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
180
Q
  1. While taxiing.. an aircraft recieves the following light signal from the control tower: series of red flashes. This signal means that the aircraft:;
A

;D. Must vacate the landing area in use.;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
181
Q
  1. Pre-flight briefing for flights away from the vicinity of an aerodrome and all IFR flights shall include which of the following? 1) A meteorological brief. 2) A consideration of the fuel requirements. 3) Alternative actions if the flight can not be completed as planned. ;
A

;C. 1.. 2.. 3;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
182
Q
  1. When is a deviation from the Rules of the Air permitted?;
A

;A. Only in the interests of flight safety.;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
183
Q
  1. In general.. the ICAO Annex 2 (Rules of the Air) applies:;
A

;D. To all IFR and VFR traffic.;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
184
Q

Whih of the following defines ”FLIGHT VISIBILITY”?;

A

;B. The forward visibility from the flight cockpit of an aircraft in flight.;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
185
Q
  1. The following signal means that an aircraft wishes to give notice of difficulties which compel it to land without requiring immediate assistance (urgency signals).;
A

;A. The repeated switching on and off of the landing lights.;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
186
Q
  1. The final authority as to the disposition of an aircraft in flight lies with the:;
A

;B. Pilot-in-command.;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
187
Q
  1. Describe the lights to be displayed by an aircraft in flight at night:;
A

;A. Navigation lights and anti collision lights;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
188
Q
  1. What is the meaning of the term ”DANGER AREAS”?;
A

;B. An airspace of defined dimensions within which activities dangerous to the flight of aircraft may exist at specified times.;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
189
Q
  1. State who on board an aircraft is primarily responsible for the operation of the aircraft in accordance with the Rules of the Air (ICAO ANNEX 2)?;
A

;D. The pilot-in-command.;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
190
Q
  1. How is ”FLIGHT VISIBILITY” defined?;
A

;C. The visibility forward from the cockpit of an aircraft in flight.;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
191
Q
  1. Which of the following defines ”GROUND VISIBILITY”?;
A

;B. The visibility at an aerodrome as reported by an accredited observer or by automatic systems.;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
192
Q
  1. Who is in charge with the safe conduct of a flight?;
A

;A. The pilot-in command.;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
193
Q
  1. No continuous air-ground voicecommunication is required for VFR flights in airspaces;
A

;A. G.. E;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
194
Q
  1. The higher value being relevant.. the pilot switches the altimeter from QNH to 1013..25 hPa above altitude 5000 ft MSL or;
A

;A. 2000 ft GND;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
195
Q
  1. In Germany.. control zones are classified;
A

;B. As airspace D.;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
196
Q
  1. Under which conditions may a control zone usually be entered during a VFR flight?;
A

;D. If VMC for airspace D-CTR is fullfilled with a ground visibility of 5 km.. the cloud ceiling not lower than 1500 ft GND.. and if the responsible air traffic control unit has issued the required clearance.;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
197
Q
  1. What is the ceiling?;
A

;B. The lower limit of the base of the lowest layer of clouds above ground or water.. covering more than half the sky below 20000 ft.;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
198
Q
  1. A pilot is required to report observations concerning the safety to air traffic to;
A

;C. The air traffic control unit responsible for him/her;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
199
Q
  1. Which of the following statements describes the Uncertainty Phase (INERFA)?;
A

;C. An aircraft fails to arrive within 30 minutes of the ETA passed to ATC.;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
200
Q
  1. What is the meaning of the abbreviation ^ATIS^?;
A

;b. Automatic Terminal Information Service.;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
201
Q
  1. The approach Control Service is an Air Traffic Control Service:;
A

;d. provided for the arriving and departing controlled flights.;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;

202
Q
  1. When are ATIS broadcasts updated?;
A

;a. Upon receipt of any official weather.. regardless of content change or reported values.;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;

203
Q
  1. In accordance with ICAO legislation.. what minimum ground visibility is required to enable a SVRF flight to take-off from an aerodrome in a CTR.;
A

;b. 1500m;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;

204
Q
  1. The 3 basic types of ATS are:;
A

;a. ATC.. FIS and Alerting service.;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;

205
Q
  1. Flight information Service shall be provided to aircraft in order to avoid collition hazards when operating in airspace classes:;
A

;b. C.. D.. E.. F.. and G.;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;

206
Q
  1. ATC separation shall be provided:;
A

;c. between IFR and VFR flights in airspace class C;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;

207
Q
  1. Which of the following phenomena would cause a SIGMET to be transmitted to aircraft flying at subsonic cruising levels?;
A

;c. Severe squall lines.. heavy hail or severe icing.;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;

208
Q
  1. For VFR flights.. continuous two-way radio communication with ATS is required in the following airspace classes:;
A

;a. B.. C.. D.;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;

209
Q
  1. The phases related to an aircraft in emergency or believed in emergency are.. in the increasing order of seriousness:;
A

;a. INCERFA.. ALERFA.. DETRESFA;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;

210
Q
  1. Special VFR flights may be authorized to operate locally within a control zone when the ground visibility is not less than 1500 meters.. even when the aircraft is not equipped with a functioning radio receiver within class:;
A

;b. E airspace;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;

211
Q
  1. DETRESFA ia a situation where:;
A

;c. the fuel on board is considered to be exhausted.;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;

212
Q
  1. A special VFR clearance may be obtained from ATC for the following airspaces:;
A

;b. CTR;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;

213
Q
  1. If a pilot lands at an airfield other than the destination specified in the flight plan.. he must inform the ATC unit at the original destination within:;
A

;c. 30 minutes of the original destination ETA.;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;

214
Q
  1. Unless otherwise prescribed by the appropriate ATS authority.. the horizontal radar seperation minimum shall be:;
A

;c. 5 NM;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;

215
Q
  1. The speed limitation in airspace classefied as for G.. when flying below 3050 m (10000ft.) AMSL.. is:;
A

;a. 250 kts IAS.;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;

216
Q
  1. The minimum lateral limits of a CTR are:;
A

;b. 5 NM in the direction from which approaches may be made.;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;

217
Q
  1. Flight information service shall be provided to all aircraft which are likely to be affected by the information and which are:;
A

;a. provided with the air traffic control services or otherwise known to the relevant air traffic service units.;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;

218
Q
  1. Essential Traffic is:;
A

;a. controlled traffic not seperated from another controlled traffic with the prescribed separation minima.;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;

219
Q
  1. Which provisions on a VFR flight in Class E airspace are correct?;
A

;b. Service provided: Traffic Information as far as practical: ATC Clearance: not required.;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;

220
Q
  1. Which of the following statements describes the Alert Phase (ALERFA)?;
A

;a. An aircraft which has been cleared to land fails to land within 5 minutes of the ETA and communication has not been re-established.;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;

221
Q
  1. A Special Air Report shall be made by the pilot:;
A

;b. when experiencing severe icing or turbulence.;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;

222
Q
  1. If an ATC clearance is not suitible to the pilot-in-command of an aircraft the following applies:;
A

;c. The flight crew may request and.. if practicable.. obtain an amended ATC clearance.;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;

223
Q
  1. An Air Traffic Control Unit:;
A

;b. may instruct an aircraft to temporarily change its call sign for safety reasons when there is a risk of confusion between two or more similar call signs.;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;

224
Q
  1. A transition altitude shall normally be specified for each aerodrome by the State in which the aerodrome is located. The calculated height of the transition altitude shall be rounded up to the next full:;
A

;d. 1 000 ft.;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;

225
Q
  1. A controlled airspace extending upwards from the surface of the Earth to a specified upper limit is:;
A

;c. control zone.;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;

226
Q
  1. Air Traffic Service unit means:;
A

;d. Air Traffic Control units.. Flight Information Centres or Air Traffic Services reporting offices.;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;

227
Q
  1. Regarding Aerodrome Flight Information Service (AFIS):;
A

;a. it can only supply limited services to the users and under no circumstances may it supply ATC services.;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;

228
Q
  1. Who is responsible for setting into movement the Alert Phase?;
A

;a. ATC and the FIC.;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;

229
Q
  1. An information issued by a meteorological watch office concerning the occurrence or expected occurrence of specified enroute weather phenomena which may affect the safety of low-level aircraft operations and which was not already included in the forecast;
A

;d. An AIRMET information;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;

230
Q
  1. Aerodrome traffic is:;
A

;b. All traffic on the manoeuvring area and flying in the vicinity of an aerodrome.;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;

231
Q
  1. The highest priority for landing has:;
A

;a. an aircraft that is compelled to land (Emergency landing).;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;

232
Q
  1. When should the flight crew be provided with information about the transition level?;
A

;a. Before commencing an approach to an aerodrome.;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;

233
Q
  1. What is the objective of Aerodrome Control Service?;
A

;d. All of the above.;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;

234
Q
  1. Which phase of emergency is declared if an aircraft is known or believed to be subject on unlawful interference?;
A

;a. ALERFA;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;

235
Q
  1. Unless instructed otherwise by an air traffic controller.. when passing through the Transition Layer.. a pilot shall report the vertical position of the aircraft as:;
A

;d. altitude in a descent.;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;

236
Q
  1. The units providing Air Traffic Services are:;
A

;c. Area Control Centre - Flight Information Centre - Approach Control Office - Aerodrome Control Tower and Air Traffic Services reporting office.;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;

237
Q
  1. Flight Information Region (FIR) is an airspace withing which the following services are provided:;
A

;d. Flight Information Service and Alerting Service.;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;

238
Q
  1. In which situation would a METAR result in a prompt ATIS update?;
A

;a. When receiving a ^Special Aerodrome Meteorological Report^;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;

239
Q
  1. Which condition is requested so that an aerodrome may be considered controlled?;
A

;d. The aerodrome shall be provided with a Control Tower.;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;

240
Q
  1. What is the speed limit (IAS) in airspace class E?;
A

;b. 250 kts for IFR and VFR up to FL 100.;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;

241
Q
  1. ATIS broadcast:;
A

;c. shall not be transmitted on the voice channel of an ILS.;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;

242
Q
  1. An ATS airspace where IFR and VFR flights are permitted.. all participating IFR flights receive an air traffic advisory service and all flights receive flight information service if requested.. is classified:;
A

;a. airspace F.;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;

243
Q
  1. The speed limitation for both IFR flights and VFR flights inside ATS airspace classified as B.. when flying below 3050 m (10000 ft.) AMSL.. is:;
A

;a. not applicable.;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;

244
Q
  1. ATS airspaces where IFR and VFR flights are permitted.. all flights are subject to air traffic control service and are seperated from each other are classified as:;
A

;d. airspace B.;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;

245
Q
  1. Clearances will be issued by an ATC unit for the purpose of:;
A

;a. achieving separation between controlled flights.;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;

246
Q
  1. Where an upper flight information region (UIR) is established.. the procedures applicable there:;
A

;c.need not to be identical with those applicable in the underlying flight information region.;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;

247
Q
  1. The phases related to an aircraft in emergency or belived to be in an emergency are:;
A

;d. uncertainty phase.. alert phase.. distress phase.;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;

248
Q
  1. Whenever ATIS is provided.. the preperation and dissemination of the ATIS message shall be the responsibility of:;
A

;b. the air traffic services.;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;

249
Q
  1. Air traffic services unit clocks and other time recording devices shall be checked as necessary to ensure correct time to within plus or minus:;
A

;c. 30 seconds of UTC at all times.;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;

250
Q
  1. The speed limitation for VFR flights inside ATS airspace classified as C.. when flying below 3050 m (100 ft.) AMSL.. is:;
A

;c. 250 kts IAS;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;

251
Q
  1. The speed limitation for IFR flights inside ATS airspace classified as E.. when flying below 3050 m (10000 ft.) AMSL.. is:;
A

;b. 250 kts IAS;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;

252
Q
  1. In radio communications.. ^DISTRESS^ differs from ^URGENCY^ because in the first case:;
A

;c. there is a serious and imminent danger requiring immediate assistance;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;

253
Q
  1. An ATS airspace where IFR and VFR flights are permitted and all flights are subject to air traffic control service: IFR flights are separated from other IFR flights ans receive traffic information in respect to VFR flights: VFR flights receive traffic information in respect to all other flights.. is classified as: ;
A

;c. airspace D;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;

254
Q
  1. Altimeter settings provided t oaircraft shall be rounde:;
A

;c. down to the nearest lower whole hectopascal;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;

255
Q
  1. When should position reports be made?;
A

;c. When passing each designated compulsory reporting point;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;

256
Q
  1. When an aircraft is experiencing difficulties.. triggering of the alerting phase is the responsibility of:;
A

;b. air traffic control and flight inforamtion centres;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;

257
Q
  1. To perform a VF%R flight in airspace classification E:;
A

;b. two-way radio communication is not required;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;

258
Q
  1. A situation in which apprehension exists as to the safety of an aircraft. To which emergency phase does this situation correspond?;
A

;d. ALERFA;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;

259
Q
  1. When it becomes apparent that an aircraft is in difficulty.. the decision to initiate the alert phase is the responsibility of the:;
A

;d. operational air traffic control centres;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;

260
Q
  1. An aircraft in flight in an Flight Information Region (FIR) would recieve a report of severe turbulence in the form of a:;
A

;a. SIGMET;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;

261
Q
  1. Which type of service is provided in clasd F airspace?;
A

;a. Air Traffic Advisory service and Flight Information Service;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;

262
Q
  1. The objectives of an Aerodrome Control Service include the prevention of collisions betwen: 1)aircraft flying in the aerodrome traffic circuit and local area around the aerodrome. 2) aircraft operating on the manoeuvring area. 3) aircraft landing and taking off. 4)aircraft and vehicles operating on the manoeuvring area.;
A

;a. 1.. 2.. 3.. 4;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;

263
Q
  1. A Control Zone shall extend laterally to at least:;
A

;c. 5 nautical miles from the centre of the aerodrome or aerodromes concerned in the direction from which approaches may be made;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;

264
Q
  1. Alerting Service shall be provided:;
A

;c. for all controled flights.. to any aircraft known or believed to be subject of unlawful interference.. and in so far as practicable t oall aircraft having filed a flight plan or otherwise known to the ATS;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;

265
Q
  1. Air Traffic Control Service is provided for the purpose of:;
A

;d. preventing collisions between aircraft.. between aircraft and obstacles on the manoeuvring area and expediting and maintaining orderly flow of air traffic;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;

266
Q
  1. An ATS airspace where IFR and VFR Are permitted.. IFR flights are subject to Air Traffic Control Service and are separated from other IFR flights. All flights receive traffic information as far as is practical.. is classified as:;
A

;d. airspace E;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;

267
Q
  1. Which of the following is not an emergency frequency?;
A

;d. 12345MHz;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;

268
Q
  1. The ATIS broadcast message should.. whenever practicable.. not exceed:;
A

;d. 30 seconds;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;

269
Q
  1. An ATS airspace where IFR and VFR flights are permitted.. all flights are subject to air traffic control service and I FR flights are separated from other IFR flights and from VFR flights.. VFR flights are separated from IFR flights and receive traffic information in respect of other VFR flights.. is classified as: ;
A

;a. airspace C;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;

270
Q
  1. Flight Information service provided to flights shall include the provision of information concerning collision hazards to aircraft operating in airspace classes:;
A

;b. C to G (inclusive);;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;

271
Q
  1. How do you know that you are flying through the area of a controlled aerodrome?;
A

;d. ATC is provided to aerodrome traffic;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;

272
Q
  1. The speed limitation for IFR flights inside ATS airspace classified as C.. when flying below 3050 m (10000ft) AMSL.. is:;
A

;d. not applicable;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;

273
Q
  1. At least how many NM shall a Control Zone extend from a reference point if the aerodrome or aerodromes into the direction from which approaches may be made?;
A

;b. 5NM;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;

274
Q
  1. Area Control Centres issue clearances for the purpose of:;
A

;a. achieving separation between controlled flights;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;

275
Q
  1. An ATS airspace where IFR and VFR are permitted and receive only flight information service if requested.. is classified as:;
A

;c. airspace G;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;

276
Q
  1. Whenever ATIS is provided.. the broadcast information shall be updated:;
A

;c. immediately a significant change occurs;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;

277
Q
  1. At which altitude/FL in Germany do flight information regions (FIR) end?;
A

;B. FL 245;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;

278
Q
  1. What is the meaning of the appreviation ^AFIS^?;
A

;d. Aerodrome Flight Information Service;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;

279
Q
  1. Which does ATC Term ^radar contact^ signify?;
A

;a. Your aircraft has been identified on the readar display and radar flight instructions will be provided until radar identification is terminated;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;

280
Q
  1. ESSENTIAL TRAFFIC is that controlled flight to which the provision of separation by ATC is applicable.. but which.. in relation to a particular controlled flight is not separated therefore by the appropriate separation minima. Whenever separation minima are not apllied.. the following flights are considered essential traffic one to each other:;
A

;b. All IFR flight in controlled airspaces and controlled VFR;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;

281
Q
  1. Whenever unlawful interference with an aircraft is suspected.. and where automatic distinct display of SSr Mode A code 7500 and code 7700 is not provided.. the radar controller shall attempt top verify this suspicion by:;
A

;c. setting the SSR decoder to Mode A code 7500 and thereafter to code 7700;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;

282
Q
  1. A pilot encountering windshear should report the fact to ATC:;
A

;d. as soon as possible;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;

283
Q
  1. Which of the following has the highest order of priority?;
A

;b. Aircraft landing;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;

284
Q
  1. With regard to the wake turbulence category aircraft classification.. the Maximum Take-off Mas of MEDIUM aircraft is:;
A

;a. less than 136 000 kg but more than 7 000 kg;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;

285
Q
  1. What does the term ^air traffic control clearance“ mean?;
A

;C. the autorisation to conduct a flight under particular conditions.. issued by an air traffic control unit;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;

286
Q
  1. What is the latest time the QNH should be communicated to aircraft prior to take-off?;
A

;A. When taxi approval is given;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;

287
Q
  1. How are VFR flights separated in airspace C and which air traffic control services do apply?;
A

;B. VFR flights are separated from IFR flights – air traffic control.. traffic information VFR/VFR flights (traffic avoidance upon request);;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;

288
Q
  1. Traffic to which the provision of ATC is applicable.. but which.. in relation to a particular controlled flight.. is not separated there fromby the minima set forth is called:;
A

;B. Essential traffic;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;

289
Q
  1. Which minimum requirements and air traffic services apply for VFR flights in airspace D (below FL100)?;
A

;D. flight visibility 5km.. cloud distance 1500m horizontal.. 1000ft vertically.. Air Traffic Control.. continous air-ground voice communications.. max 250kts IAS.. traffic information in respect of all other flights and traffic avoidance advice on request;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;

290
Q
  1. Air traffic control clearances at aerodromes are issued by the:;
A

;C. respective air traffic control unit;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;

291
Q
  1. Is there a distance from clouds prescribed for a VFR fligth in airspace G below altitude 3000ft or 1000ft GND?;
A

;D. no;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;

292
Q
  1. A VFR cross country flight leads through a Radio Mandatory Zone (RMZ) at an uncontrolled aerodrome. Which VMC for this airspace and which special conditions shall be observed?;
A

;D. Clear of clouds.. surface in sight.. flight visibilities 5km.. or reduced to not less than 1500m for flights operating at speeds of 140kts IAS or less.. in case of helicopters less than 1500m but not less than 800m.. if manoeuvered at a speed that will give adequate opportunity to observe other traffic or any obstacles in time to avoid collision.. establish radio contact/maintain constant listening watch.. report leaving RMZ;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;

293
Q
  1. Which airspace/airspaces in Germany require additionally to other requirements ”visual ground contact“ for VFR flights?;
A

;C. G;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;

294
Q
  1. Which types of air traffic control services are executed by the DFS (Air Navigation Services) as a basic principle? (2 Points);
A

;xxxxx;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;

295
Q
  1. Which statements about German danger areas and restricted areas are correct? (3 points);
A

;xxxxx;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;

296
Q
  1. What is the ceiling needed for at a controlled aerodrome;
A

;C. To determine the status of the control zone IMC/VMC;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;

297
Q
  1. Which air traffic services are provided by the German Air Navigation Services (DFS)?;
A

;D. aeronautical information service.. air traffic control service.. flight information service;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;

298
Q
  1. Before flight.. transition level information can be obtained by consulting:;
A

;D. ATIS.. ATC;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;

299
Q
  1. In an incident report.. how can you find ”aircraft proximity” in form of an abbreviation?;
A

;C. AIRPROX;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;

300
Q
  1. A controlled airspace extending upwards from a specified limit above the Earth is: ;
A

;A. Control area;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;

301
Q
  1. When must a pilot of an aircraft during a VFR flight operating at night report the position?;
A

;D. When requested by the appropriate ATS unit;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;

302
Q
  1. When are you required to report your position?;
A

;C. At or after the position point;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;

303
Q
  1. Control area (CTA) is defined as follows:;
A

;D. A controlled airspace extending upwards from a specified limit above the Earth;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;

304
Q
  1. Following an AIRPROX incident.. an Air Traffic Incident Report (ATIR) should be submitted:;
A

;C. To the air traffic service unit concerned;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;

305
Q
  1. The definition of ”Manoeuvring Area” is:;
A

;B. That part of an aerodrome to be used for take-off.. landing and taxiing of aircraft.. excluding apron(s);;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;

306
Q
  1. What is the objective of filing an ATIR (Air Traffic Incident Report)?;
A

;A. To promote aircraft flight safety;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;

307
Q
  1. Essential local traffic consists of:;
A

;D. any aircraft.. vehicle or personell on or near the runway to be used.. or traffic in the take-off and climb-out area or the final approach area.. which may constitude a collision hazard to a departing or arriving aircraft.;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;

308
Q
  1. IFR cruising levels within controlled airspace shall be given as Flight Level(FL):;
A

;C. above the Transition Altitude when applicable;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;

309
Q
  1. When operating under Special VFR clearance.. the responsibility for remaining clear of obstacles in the ground rests with:;
A

;C. the pilot-in-command;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;

310
Q
  1. The letter ^L^ is written in the wake turbulence box of a flight plan form when the maximum cerfified take-off weight of an aircraft is less than or equal to:;
A

;C. 7000 kg;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;

311
Q
  1. Which statement is correct regarding clearances issued by ATC controllers?;
A

;B. Clearances do not relieve pilots from their responsibility to comply with rules and regulations;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;

312
Q
  1. The transition level:;
A

;B. will be passed to aircraft by ATS units;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;

313
Q
  1. When should ATC provide the pilot with a local QNH altimeter setting?;
A

;D. With clearance to enter the traffic pattern and with initial taxi clearance;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;

314
Q
  1. Controlled airspace is:;
A

;B. an area within a FIR/UIR in which an ATC service is provided;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;

315
Q
  1. What is the meaning of abbreviation ^ACC^?;
A

;B. Area Control Centre;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;

316
Q
  1. Essential traffic information shall be given to:;
A

;C. controlled flights.. whenever they constitute essential traffic to each other;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;

317
Q
  1. What are the controlled traffic separation methods applied by ATC?;
A

;C. Vertical and horizontal separation;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;

318
Q
  1. A controlled flight is:;
A

;C. any flight wich is subject to an ATC clearance;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;

319
Q
  1. Whenever practicable.. NOTAMs are distributed by:;
A

;A. AFTN;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;

320
Q
  1. The ASHTAM provides information on the status of acitivity of a volcano when a change in its activity is.. or is expected to be of operational significance. This information is provided using the volcano level of colour code. When volcanic eruption in progress or volcano dangerous.. eruption likely.. with ash plume/cloud is reported above FL250 or is expected to rise above FL250.. the level of alert colour code is:;
A

;B. RED;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;

321
Q
  1. What is the standart colour for an administrative document when considering the aeronautical information circular (AIC)?;
A

;C. White;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;

322
Q
  1. At least how many days in advance of the effective date must AIRAC information be distrubuted?;
A

;C. 42;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;

323
Q
  1. Which part of the AIP contains a detailed description of meteorological Information provided at an aerodrome?;
A

;D. AD;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;

324
Q
  1. In order to avoid confusion.. the identification numbers given to each prohibited area.. restricted area and danger area shall not be re-used for a peroid of:;
A

;C. at least one year after cancellation of the area to which they refer.;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;

325
Q
  1. Which of the following is Information that is not given in AIP Visual Approach and Landing charts?;
A

;B. Visibility minima.;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;

326
Q
  1. Which part of the AIP contains the information concerning charges for the use of aerodromes/heliports and for the provision of Air Navigation Services?;
A

;B. GEN;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;

327
Q
  1. Which part of the AIP contains a detailed description of lower ATS routes?;
A

;B. ENR;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;

328
Q
  1. A checklist of AIP supplements currently in force shall be issued at intervals of:;
A

;D. not more than one month;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;

329
Q
  1. The aeronautical information publication (AIP-) VFR shows the entry ^PPR^ for an aerodrome in item ^operating hours^. What does this abbreviation stand for?;
A

;B. Landing on this aerodrome may only be performed with prior permission of the person responsible for flight operations. There is no obligation to operate.;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;

330
Q
  1. A checklist of valid NOTAM currently in force shall be issued over the Aeronautical Fixed Service (AFS) at intervals of not more than;
A

;A. one month;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;

331
Q
  1. The aeronautical Information Service has the following tasks.. among others;
A

;D. to accept.. check and forward flight plans;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;

332
Q
  1. What are contents of an ^NFL 1“?;
A

;A. important regulation for aviation concerning realisation of flight operations;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;

333
Q
  1. Which part of the AIP contains a list of differences between the national regulations/practices and the related ICAO Standarts.. Recommended Practices and Procedures?;
A

;A. GEN;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;

334
Q
  1. The contents of Aeronautical Information Publication (AIP) are:;
A

;A. GEN.. ENR (en-route) and AD (aerodromes);;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;

335
Q
  1. How are restricted (R).. prohibited (P) and dangerous (D) areas represented?;
A

;B. By the letters R.. P or D and additionally with an ID number.;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;

336
Q
  1. In which section of AIP would you find the information elements referring to routes (and/or areas) for which meteorological services are provided?;
A

;B. GEN;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;

337
Q
  1. What is the standard colour code for a danger area map when considering information circular (AIC)?;
A

;C. mauve;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;

338
Q
  1. The temporary.. long-term modification (3 month or more) and the short-term extensive or graphical information are published as follows:;
A

;C. AIP Supplements;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;

339
Q
  1. Geographical co-ordinates indicating latitude and longitude are expressed in terms of:;
A

;A. WGS 84;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;

340
Q
  1. Each contracting state shall provide an Aeronautical Information Service (AIS) in its territory and for areas in which the state is responsible for the Air Traffic Services outside its territory.. and this shall include the preparation and originatin of.;
A

;B. integrated Aeronautical Information Package.;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;

341
Q
  1. Information concerning snow.. ice and standing water associated with snow on aerodrome pavement areas is to be reported by;
A

;C. SNOWTAM;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;

342
Q
  1. An Integrated Aeronautical Information Package consists of the following elements:;
A

;B. AIP.. including amendment service: supplements to AIP: NOTAM and pre-flight information bulletin (PIB): AIC: checklists and summaries.;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;

343
Q
  1. A notice containing information concerning flight safety.. air navigation.. technical.. administration or legislative matters and originated at the AIS of a state is called:;
A

;B. aeronautical Information Circular (AIC);;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;

344
Q
  1. The identification of each prohibited.. restricted and danger area shall be composed by:;
A

;C. the nationality letters for location indicators assigned to the state of territory.. followed the letters P.. R and D and figures;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;

345
Q
  1. A notice providing information on Rules of the Air.. Air Traffic Services and Air Navigation Procedures and dustributed in advance of its effective date is:;
A

;B. an AIRAC;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;

346
Q
  1. An AIRAC is:;
A

;D. an acronym for a system aimed at advance notification based on common effective dates.. of circumstances necessitating significant changes in operating procedures.;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;

347
Q
  1. Temporary changes of long duration and information of ^short duration“ with text and/or graphics are published as AIP supplements. The period of ^long duration“ is defined as:;
A

;A. 3 months or longer;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;

348
Q
  1. Operationally significant changes to the AIP shall be published in accordance with:;
A

;C. AIRAC procedures and identified by the acronym AIRAC.;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;

349
Q
  1. What is the purpose of AIS?;
A

;A. To ensure the flow of information necessary for the safety.. regularity and efficiency of international air navigation.;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;

350
Q
  1. The system notifying in advance the circumstances requiring important changes in the methods of operation.. based on commom effective dates.. is identified by the acronym:;
A

;A. AIRAC;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;

351
Q
  1. ^A publication issued by or with the authority of a state and containing aeronautical information of a lasting character essential to air navigation“ is the definition of:;
A

;c. aeronautical Information Publication (AIP);;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;

352
Q
  1. Which part of the AIP contains information relating to existing prohibited.. restricted and danger areas?;
A

;b. ENR;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;

353
Q
  1. Operationally significant changes to the AIP shall be published in accordance with:;
A

;c. AIRAC;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;

354
Q
  1. Select the acronym corresponding to the following definition.. ^a special NOTAM series notifying.. by means of a specific format.. an important change for the aircraft operations.. due to a volcano activity.. a volcano eruption or a volcanic ash cloud“.;
A

;c. ASHTAM;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;

355
Q
  1. Which part of the AIP contains Information on holding approach and departure procedures?;
A

;c. ENR;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;

356
Q
  1. In which part of the AIP will you find information about special lights during landing (communication failure);
A

;c. ENR;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;

357
Q
  1. What is the standard colour code for a safety document when considering the aeronautical information circular (AIC)?;
A

;a. pink;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;

358
Q
  1. The closure of a runway for a year.. because of maintenance.. will be published:;
A

;a. in NOTAM and AIP.. inclusive Supplement.;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;

359
Q
  1. Which part of the AIP contains a list with ^Location Indicators“?;
A

;a. GEN;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;

360
Q
  1. What is the standard colour code for maps/ charts when considering the aeronautical information circular (AIC)?;
A

;c. green;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;

361
Q
  1. What is the standard colour code for an ATC document when considering the aeronautical information circular (AIC)?;
A

;d. yellow;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;

362
Q
  1. From which of the following would you expect to find details of the Search and Rescue Organisation and procedures (SAR)?;
A

;b. AIP;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;

363
Q
  1. Which part of the AIP gives detailed information about refueling facilities and the fuel grades available?;
A

;d. AD;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;

364
Q
  1. SIGMET information can be found in which part of the AIP?;
A

;a. GEN;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;

365
Q
  1. Which part of the AIP contains a brief description of the service(s) responsible for search and rescue?;
A

;c. GEN;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;

366
Q
  1. What is the principle requirement for a signals area on an aerodrome?;
A

;b. It must be clearly visible from the air.;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;

367
Q
  1. What does a white line drawn across a runway indicate?;
A

;b. A displaced threshold.;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;

368
Q
  1. Aerodrome aeronautical beacons usually show:;
A

;c. a white flashing strobe light.;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;

369
Q
  1. A red square panel with one yellow diagonal strip.. displayed in the signals area of an aerodrome indicates:;
A

;b. the state of the manoeuvring area is poor.;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;

370
Q
  1. Runway centreline lights must be provided:;
A

;b. on a precision approach runway category II or III;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;

371
Q
  1. What is the general shape of the landing indicator?;
A

;a. T;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;

372
Q
  1. When taxiing on a surface with white markings.. you are on a:;
A

;d. runway;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;

373
Q
  1. Which of the following describes runway threshold lights?;
A

;d. Green unidirectional.;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;

374
Q
  1. How many pairs of touchdown zone markings are required on a runway with a lenght of 1500m?;
A

;c. 4;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;

375
Q
  1. Runway edge lights.. except in the case of a displaced threshold.. shall be:;
A

;a. Fixed lights showing variable white or yellow;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;

376
Q
  1. Two or more white or yellow crosses.. displayed on runways (taxiways).. indicate that:;
A

;d. the section of the runway or taxiway is unfit for aircraft movement;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;

377
Q
  1. What is the colour of runway edge lights?;
A

;d. white;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;

378
Q
  1. In a precision approach category I lighting system.. the centre line and crossbar lights shall be:;
A

;c. fixed lights showing variable white;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;

379
Q
  1. Which of the following systems describes an abbreviated precison approach path indicator?;
A

;d. A wing bar of 2 sharp transition multi-lamp units normally located on the left side of the runway unless it is physically impracticable to do so.;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;

380
Q
  1. Alternating yellow/ green centreline lights of a taxiway indicate:;
A

;b. an ILS/MLS critical/sensitive area;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;

381
Q
  1. Runway end lights shall be:;
A

;a. Fixed unidirectional lights showing red in the direction of the runway;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;

382
Q
  1. When on or close to the approach slope.. the wing bar of a PAPI shows:;
A

;a. two red lights and two white lights;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;

383
Q
  1. Taxiway markings and aircraft stand markings are:;
A

;c. yellow;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;

384
Q
  1. Mandatory signs consist of a ___ inscription on a ___ background;
A

;d. white: red;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;

385
Q
  1. A sequence of white arrows painted on the runway surface along the centreline indicate:;
A

;c. a temporarily or permanently displaced threshold;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;

386
Q
  1. The standard color used for runway markings shall be:;
A

;b. white;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;

387
Q
  1. The white dumb-bell with black perpendicular bar indicates that:;
A

;b. Aircraft are required to land and take-off on runways only.. but other manoeuvres need not be confined to runways or taxiways;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;

388
Q
  1. Alternating taxiway centreline lights shall show ___ and ___ from their beginning near the runway centreline to the perimeter of the ILS/MLS critical/sensitive area.;
A

;c. green: yellow;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;

389
Q
  1. Runway threshold lights shall be:;
A

;b. fixed unidirectional lights showing green in the direction of approach of the runway;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;

390
Q
  1. Low intensity obstacle lights on fixed objects shall be:;
A

;d. flashing-blue or flashing-yellow;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;

391
Q
  1. The colour of fixed.. unidirectional Runway End Lights shall be:;
A

;D. Red;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;

392
Q
  1. Which of the following describes a ^Location sign^?;
A

;b. yellow writing on a black background.;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;

393
Q
  1. In which cases is the aerodrome lighting of an aeredrome being turned on as a basic principle?;
A

;xxxxx;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;

394
Q
  1. The abbreviation PAPI stand for:;
A

;B. Precision approach path indicator;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;

395
Q
  1. The length of a clearway should not exceed:;
A

;A. 1/2 TORA;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;

396
Q
  1. The declared take-off run available at an aerodrome is:;
A

;B. The take-off distance available less the clearway;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;

397
Q
  1. Which of the statements below describes the take-off run available (TORA)?;
A

;A. The lenght of the runway declared available and suitable for the ground run of an aeroplane taking off.;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;

398
Q
  1. Regarding declared airfield distance the ASDA is:;
A

;C. The distance from the start of the take-off run to the end of the stopway;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;

399
Q
  1. ^TODA^ take-off distance available is:;
A

;B. The lenght of the take-off run available plus the lenght of clearway available (if provided);;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;

400
Q
  1. ^ASDA^ (Acceleration Stop Distance Available) is:;
A

;A. the length of the take-off run available plus the lenght of stopway (if stopway provided);;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;

401
Q
  1. The purpose of a radio-altimeter operating area is:;
A

;C. to accommodate aeroplanes making auto-coupled approaches and automatic landings;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;

402
Q
  1. The pre-threshold area of a runway fit for use by aircraft as a stopway.. but not for normal movement of aircraft is marked with>;
A

;B. Yellow chevrons pointing towards the threshold;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;

403
Q
  1. How is a paved pre-threshold area which is greater than 60 m in lenght but not suitable for use by aircraft.. marked_;
A

;D. By a white x.;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;

404
Q
  1. A runway threshold marking shall be consist od a pattern of longitudinal stripes symmetrial about the centreline of the runway. If the runway is 45m wide.. how many stripes are required?;
A

;C. 12;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;

405
Q
  1. Low-intensity obstacle lights.. type C.. displayed on vehicles associated with emergency shall be:;
A

;D. Flashing blue.;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;

406
Q
  1. High intensity obstacle lights should be:;
A

;D. Flashing white.;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;

407
Q
  1. What colour are emergency vehicles painted that are used on the manoeuvring area of an aerodrome?;
A

;C. A single conspicuous colour.. preferably red or yellowish green;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;

408
Q
  1. Low intensity obstacle lights on fixed objects shall be:;
A

;C. Fixed red;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;

409
Q
  1. In what colour shall mobile objects.. like airport service vehicles.. be painted?;
A

;D. Yellow.;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;

410
Q
  1. Runway edge lights are:;
A

;D. Fixed variable intensity unidirectional showing white or yellow.;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;

411
Q
  1. Which of the following represents a valid configuration for aerodrome signs?;
A

;B. Yellow inscription on black background: or black inscription on yellow background.;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;

412
Q
  1. “Fixed distance markings” on certain precision approach runways are located:;
A

;A. 300 m from the threshold.;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;

413
Q
  1. Where are taxiway centerline lights showing alternating green and yellow installed?;
A

;D. From the beginning of a taxiway near the runway centerline to the perimeter of the ILS/MLS critical/sensitive area.;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;

414
Q
  1. The standard configuration of a full CAT approach light system includes_____crossbars.;
A

;A. 5;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;

415
Q
  1. Each wing bar of ’VASIS’ system has ____light units.;
A

;B. 3.;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;

416
Q
  1. The following markings are used to indicate a runway or a taxiway is closed:;
A

;A. White crosses for runways and yellow crosses for taxiways.;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;

417
Q
  1. Within the Annex to the ICAO convention that specifies dimensions of aerodromes are codes for different runways. Which is the minimum width of a runway with runway code 4?;
A

;B. 45 meters.;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;

418
Q
  1. What is the name for a taxiway connected to a runway at an acute angle designed to allow aeroplanes to turn off at higher speeds than are achieved on other exits thereby minimizing runway occupancy time?;
A

;C. Rapid exit taxiway.;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;

419
Q
  1. The “Aerodrome Reference Code” is a code composed of two elements which are related to the aeroplane performance characteristics and dimension. These elements are a combination of a number and a letter as in the example.;
A

;D. 2B. ;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;

420
Q
  1. What lighting is required for runways to be used for take-off in an operating minimum below an RVR of approximately 400 m?;
A

;C. Edge lights and centerline lights.;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;

421
Q
  1. With reference to runway strip you can say that it includes part of runway and:;
A

;D. A stopway in which an aircraft can be stopped in the case of an abandoned take-off.;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;

422
Q
  1. A _______is defined as an area of specified dimensions enclosing a runway or taxiway to provide for the safety of aircraft operations.;
A

;A. Strip.;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;

423
Q
  1. Explain the term ‘runway strip’:;
A

;A. A defined area including the runway.. stopway and clearway.. if provided.;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;

424
Q
  1. A volume of airspace extending upwards and outwards from an inner portion of the strip to specified upper limits which is kept clear of all obstructions is called:;
A

;D. Obstacle free zone.;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;

425
Q
  1. A runway end safety area includes:;
A

;B. An area symmetrical about the extended runway center line and adjacent to the end of the strip primarily intended to reduce the risk of damage to an aeroplane undershooting or overrunning the runway.;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;

426
Q
  1. According with the “Aerodrome Reference Code” the “Code number 4” shall identify an aircraft reference field lenght of:;
A

;D. 1800 m and over.;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;

427
Q
  1. A defined rectangular area.. selected or prepared as a suitable area over which an aeroplane may make a portion of its initial climb to a specified height is called:;
A

;A. Clearway.;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;

428
Q
  1. “A defined rectangular area on the ground at the end of take-off run available prepared as a suitable area in which an aircraft can be stopped in the case of an abandoned take-off” is the definition for:;
A

;C. Stopway.;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;

429
Q
  1. Describe where a threshold should normally be located:;
A

;C. A threshold should normally be located at the extremity of a runway unless operational considerations justify the choice of another location.;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;

430
Q
  1. The “stopway” is a defined rectangular area on the ground at the end of take-off run available prepared as a suitable area where:;
A

;C. An aircraft can be stopped in the case of an abandoned take-off.;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;

431
Q
  1. “An area symetrical about the extended runway centerline and adjacent to the end of the strip primarily intended to reduce the risk of damage to an aeroplane undershooting overrunning the runway” is the definition for:;
A

;B. Runway end safety area.;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;

432
Q
  1. Clearway is defined rectangular area established to:;
A

;B. Permit aircraft to make a portion of its initial climb to a specific height.;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;

433
Q
  1. Where is a stopway situated?;
A

;B. At the end of the TORA.;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;

434
Q
  1. A runway friction coefficient for a specific runway is reported by the ATC as “0.25” This corresponds to ____ braking action.;
A

;C. Poor.;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;

435
Q
  1. A specific point.. measured and reported to the aeronautical information services authority in degrees.. minutes and seconds.. which normally corresponds to the geometric center of an airport is:;
A

;B. The aerodrome reference point.;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;

436
Q
  1. In the “Aerodrome Reference Code” the code element 2 shall identify;
A

;A. The aircraft wingspan and the outer main gear wheel span.;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;

437
Q
  1. The “Aerodrome Reference Code” is a code composed of two elements Which are related to the aeroplane performance characteristics and dimensions. These elements are a combination of a number and a letter as in the example under listed:;
A

;D. 2B.;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;

438
Q
  1. Dry snow is snow which:;
A

;B. Will fall apart again if compacted by hand.;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;

439
Q
  1. The “aerodrome elevation” is the height of.;
A

;C. The highest point in the landing area.;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;

440
Q
  1. An “aerodrome reference point” is defined as the:;
A

;D. The designated geographical location of the aerodrome.;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;

441
Q
  1. ICAO Annex 14 states A simple approach lighting system shall consist of a row of lights on the extended center line of the runway extending.. whenever possible.. over a distance of not less than__________m from the threshold with a row of lights forming a crossbar.;
A

;B. 420m.. 300m.;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;

442
Q
  1. A runway may be contaminated by frozen water deposits. What are the three states of frozen water reported by ATC?;
A

;C. Snow.. ice and slush.;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;

443
Q
  1. Dry snow is which:;
A

;B. Will fall apart again if compacted by hand.;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;

444
Q
  1. A runway friction coefficient for a specific runway is reported by the ATS as “036” This corresponds to _____braking action.;
A

;C. Medium/Good;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;

445
Q
  1. A runway friction coefficient for a specific runway is reported by the ATS as “040” This corresponds to _____braking action.;
A

;D. Good.;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;

446
Q
  1. On a FLOODED runway.;
A

;C. Extensive standing water is visible.;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;

447
Q
  1. On a DAMP runway:;
A

;C. the surface shows a change of colour due to moisture.;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;

448
Q
  1. On a WET runway:;
A

;D. the surface is soaked but no significant patches of standing water are visible;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;

449
Q
  1. When the runway surface is soaked but there is no standing water.. the correct term describing the runway surface condition is;
A

;B. wet;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;

450
Q
  1. For planning purposes.. an serodrome is categorized by aerodrome reference code. This code is composed of two elements a number and a letter. What does th number relate to?;
A

;D. Aeroplane reference field length;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;

451
Q
  1. Runway centreline markings shall be provided on:;
A

;A. Paved runways;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;

452
Q
  1. The light shown by an ”Aerodrome Identification Beacon” at a land aerodrome shall be:;
A

;B. Green color identification given by Morse Code;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;

453
Q
  1. In the ”PAPI” system the Pilot doing an approach will see the two unitsnearest the runway as red andthe two units farthest from th runway as white when:;
A

;B. On or close to the approach slope;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;

454
Q
  1. When a runway threshold is displaced.. what color shall the runway edge lights have in approach direction between the beginning of the runway and the displaced threshold?;
A

;C. Red;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;

455
Q
  1. An ”aiming point marking” shall be provided at the approach end of a paved instrument runway if the runway length isgreater than:;
A

;B. 800 m;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;

456
Q
  1. The colour of te fixed.. unidirectional runway threshold wing bar lights shall be:;
A

;C. Green;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;

457
Q
  1. Runway edge lights shall consist of at least:;
A

;A. fixed lights showing variable white.;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;

458
Q
  1. The abbreviation PAPI stands for: ;
A

;D. Precision Approach Path Indicator;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;

459
Q
  1. Touchdown zone markings are placed:;
A

;A. 150 m from the runway threshold.;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;

460
Q
  1. Taxiway centreline lights other than exit taxiway shall be:;
A

;D. fixed lights showing green.;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;

461
Q
  1. How does a pilot see the PAPI Wing bar lights.. when the position of the aircraft is far above the approach slope?;
A

;B. All four light units are steady white.;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;

462
Q
  1. The number of stripes on each Side of the centreline of a runway which has a width of 45 m is:;
A

;D. 6;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;

463
Q
  1. A pattern ^A^ runway-holding position marking shall be supplemented at a taxiway/runway intersection with a:;
A

;C. runway designation sign.;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;

464
Q
  1. Which of the following is not a mandatory instruction sign?;
A

;C. Direction sign.;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;

465
Q
  1. The centreline and crossbar lights of a precision approach Category I lightning system shall be fixed lights.. showing variable intensity of the following colour: ;
A

;C. White;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;

466
Q
  1. Which of the following aerodrome ground signals displayed in the Signals area indicates that glider flying is in progress?;
A

;A. A white double cross.;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;

467
Q
  1. Taxiway edge markers shall be;
A

;A. retroreflective blue.;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;

468
Q
  1. A right-hand arrow of conspicuous colour indicated (visual ground signal):;
A

;A. that turns are to be made to the right before landing and after take-off.;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;

469
Q
  1. The ^PAPI^ shall consist of: ;
A

;D. a wing bar of 4 sharp transition multi-lamp or paired units equally spaced.;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;

470
Q
  1. A horizontal white dumb-bell with a black bar placed perpendicular to the shaft across each circular potion placed in the aerodrome Signal area indicates that:;
A

;B. a parallel runway system is used at this aerodrome;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;

471
Q
  1. A black letter ^C^ on a yellow background indicates:;
A

;D. the location where visiting pilots should report.;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;

472
Q
  1. What colour are apron markings (apron safety lines)?;
A

;D. A contrasting colour from the taxiway markings.;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;

473
Q
  1. A double white cross displayed horizontally in the aerodrome signal area means:;
A

;D. the aerodrome is being used by gliders and that glider flights are being performed.;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;

474
Q
  1. In the case of parallel runways.. each runway designation number shall be supplemented: ;
A

;B. by a letter - for example 2 parallel runways ^L^ and ^R^ - for 3 ^L^.. ^C^ and ^R^.;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;

475
Q
  1. Taxiway edge lights shall be;
A

;B. fixed showing blue.;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;

476
Q
  1. Runway edge lights.. except in the case of a displaced threshould and / or at the remove end of the runway from the end at which the take-off run is started.. are:;
A

;D. fixed lights showing variable white.;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;

477
Q
  1. Aerodrome signs should be in the following configuration;
A

;A. information signs: yellow or black background with black or yellow inscription;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;

478
Q
  1. On an aerodrome equipped with parallel runways.. the designation number of each runway shall be supplemented as follows.;
A

;B. in case of two parallel runways by the letter ^L^ and ^R^ in the sequence from left to right.;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;

479
Q
  1. Mandatory instruction signs on an aerodrome shall have the following colours:;
A

;D. white inscription on a red background;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;

480
Q
  1. How many red lights must a pilot see.. whose aircraft in final approach is following a normal glide path defined byt a PAPI?;
A

;D. 2;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;

481
Q
  1. How is a taxiway holding position marked? ;
A

;C. A red marker board either side of the taxiway.;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;

482
Q
  1. How many red lights must a pilot see.. whose aircraft in final approach is following a normal glide path defined by a PAPI?;
A

;D. 2;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;

483
Q
  1. A red square panel with a yellow strip along each diagonal.. displayed in the signals area of an aerodrome indicates:;
A

;A. aerodrome is unfit for aircraft movements.. and landings are prohibited.;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;

484
Q
  1. The part of an aerodrome provided for the stationing of aircraft for the purpose of embarking and disembarking passengers.. loading and unloading of cargo and refueling and parking is known as: ;
A

;C. the apron.;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;

485
Q
  1. The part of an aerodrome provided for the stationing of aircraft for the purpose of embarking and disembarking passengers.. loading and unloading of cargo and refuelling and parking is known as:;
A

;C. the apron.;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;

486
Q
  1. You are flying in a mountainous region and you see a symbol ^X^ on the ground. What does this mean?;
A

;D. require medical assistance;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;

487
Q
  1. What does the signal ^N^ mean?;
A

;C. ^No or ^Negative^.;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;

488
Q
  1. Which of the following signals is a distress signal?;
A

;A. A parachute flare showing a red light.;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;

489
Q
  1. What is the meaning of a symbol ^V^ seen on the ground in the vicinity of an aircraft crash site?;
A

;C. request assistance;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;

490
Q
  1. The colour identification of the contents of droppable containers and packages containing survival equipment should take the form of coloured streamers accoring to the following code:;
A

;A. black for miscellaneous equipment;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;

491
Q
  1. What frequency does the emergency locator beacon transmit on?;
A

;B. 121.5 MHz;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;

492
Q
  1. Alert phase is defined as follows: ;
A

;D. A situation where an apprehension exists as to the safety of an aircraft and its occupants;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;

493
Q
  1. At which phase should search and rescue (SAR) services prepare their personnel and equipment for a potential SAR operation?;
A

;A. Alert phase;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;

494
Q

494.^A situation wherein apprehension exists as to the safety of an aircraft and its occupants^ is the definition for:;

A

;B. alert phase.;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;

495
Q
  1. When an aircraft crashes in an area not owned by a certain state who is responsible for carrying out SAR activities?;
A

;D. The one who is determined on the basis of regional air navigation agreements.;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;

496
Q
  1. Search and rescue on the high seas is conducted:;
A

;C. by the basis of Regional Air Navigation agreements.;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;

497
Q
  1. What is each contracting state of ICAO required to provide?;
A

;A. Facilities for SAR operations to be undertaken in its airspace.;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;

498
Q
  1. The unit responsible for promoting efficient organization of Search and Rescue aservice in each SAR region is the: ;
A

;B. Recue Co-ordination centre;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;

499
Q
  1. Which of the following frequencies are used for emergency operation by SAR aircraft? ;
A

;D. 121.5 MHz and 243.0 MHz;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;

500
Q
  1. Contracting States shall establish a rescue co-ordination centre: ;
A

;B. in each search and rescue region.;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;

GHU211 (21 decks)

Brainscape helps you reach your goals faster, through stronger study habits.
© 2024 Bold Learning Solutions. Terms and Conditions