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AVOL1 Flashcards

0
Q 
Which career field subdivision loads nuclear weapons and non-nuclear air-to-air munitions, explosives, and propellant devices on aircraft?
A. Nuclear Weapons
B. Aircraft Armament
C. Munitions Systems
D. Missile Maintenance
A

Aircraft Armament

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1
Q 
Which career field subdivision is responsible for the overall maintenance of nuclear weapons, major components, and related equipment such as test and handling equipment?
A. Nuclear Weapons
B. Aircraft Armament
C. Munitions Systems
D. Missile Maintenance
A

Nuclear Weapons

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2
Q

What steps must you take FIRST to become a top manager of the munitions systems specialty?
A. 12 months exp + in career field
B. 7-level management course + 12 months exp
C. Basic + in career field + tech school
D. Basic + Muns course + management course

A

Complete basic training, be assigned to the career field, and complete technical school

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3
Q

An Airman newly assigned to the 2W0 career field is…
A. A journeyman until upgraded to the 5-skill level
B. An apprentice until upgraded to 3 lvl
C. A craftsman until upgraded to 5 lvl
D. A helper until upgraded to 3 lvl

A

A helper until upgraded to the 3-skill level

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4
Q 
Reaching the 7-skill level signifies advancement from a journeyman to a...
A. Craftsman
B. Manager
C. Worker
D. Helper
A

Craftsman

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5
Q

In the munitions career field, which duty is assigned to a superintendent?
A. Evaluating op effectiveness of Muns Systems
B. Planning Muns material management functions.
C. Handling, store, and trans of Nukes
D. IDing Muns equipment reqs

A

Evaluating operational effectiveness of Munitions Systems

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6
Q 
Which meeting is scheduled to revise/change the Career Field Education and Training Plan?
A. Muns product improvement wrk grp
B. AF logistics steering grp
C. Utilization & Training Workshop
D. Worldwide Muns Confrence
A

Utilization and Training Workshop

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7
Q 
Which AFB is the U&TW normally held at?
A. Randolph
B. Lackland
C. Sheppard
D. Eglin
A

Sheppard

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8
Q 
Which section of the career Field Education and Training Plan Part II identifies the specialty training standard?
A
B
C
D
A

Section A

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9
Q 
Which section of the Career Field Education and Training Plan Part II contains the core task table used by supervisors for upgrade reqs?
A
B
C
D
A

Section B

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10
Q 
Who chairs the annual worldwide munitions managers' conference?
A. Squadron commanders
B. Munitions managers
C. MAJCOM personnel 
D. Air Staff personnel
A

Air Staff Personnel

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11
Q 
Which agency or org developed command supplements or directives?
A. SECDEF
B. Department of the AF
C. MAJCOM
D. Air Staff
A

Major Command (MAJCOM)

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12
Q 
Which ammo control point provides direct support to SMALLER geographic areas within the theater?
A. Regional 
B. Theater
C. Tactical
D. Global
A

Regional

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13
Q 
Which command has cradle-to-grave responsibility of a weapon system?
A. Cyber COM
B. Air Combat COM
C. AF Material COM
D. US Africa COM
A

Air Force Material Command

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14
Q 
Which org manages and maintains the AF Muns stockpile?
A. Air Combat COM
B. AF Material COM
C. Warner Robins Air Logistics Center
D. AF Global Ammo Control Point
A

Air Force Global Ammunition Control Point (GACP)

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15
Q 
Which TYPE of wing performs the PRIMARY mission of the base and USUALLY maintains and operates the base?
A. Air base
B. Composite
C. Specialized
D. Operational
A

Operational

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16
Q 
Which TYPE of wing often provides FUNCTIONAL support to a MAJCOM HQ?
A. Air base
B. Composite
C. Specialized
D. Operational
A

Air Base

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17
Q 
Which org performs maintenance and repair on aircraft systems and components?
A. Component maintenance
B. Maintenance
C. Operations
D. Supply
A

Maintenance

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18
Q 
Who MUST select and appoint munitions inspectors?
A. Squadron commander
B. Muns section chiefs
C. Muns supervision personnel
D. MASO
A

Munitions Supervision Personnel

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19
Q 
Who MUST manage the Muns portion of the war consumable distribution objective for the assigned stock record account #?
A. Squadron commander
B. Muns flight section chiefs
C. Muns supervision personnel
D. MASO
A

Munitions Accountable Systems Officer (MASO)

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20
Q 
Who MUST enforce the strict use of T.O.s and pertinent pubs during all explosives ops?
A. Squadron commander
B. Muns supervision
C. Muns flight section chiefs
D. MASO
A

Munitions Flight Section Chiefs

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21
Q 
Which element within the production section processes/certifies Muns residue from flight line and demilitarization ops for turn-in?
A. Line-D
B. Conventional
C. PGM
D. Support
A

Conventional Munitions Maintenance

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22
Q 
Which element within the production section inspects and tests assigned missiles? 
A. Line-D
B. Conventional
C. PGM
D. Support
A

Precision Guided Munitions Maintenance

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23
Q 
Which section within the Muns flight plans, schedules, control, and directs all munitions activities?
A. Systems
B. Material
C. Production
D. Supervision
A

Systems

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24
Q

Which element within the system section develops munitions deployments plans in coordination with Muns supervision?
A. Control
B. Plans and Scheduling
C. Conventional
D. Combat plans & mobility & training

A

Combat Plans and Mobility and Training

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25
Q

Which element within the system section plans and arranges the maintenance of live, inert, and dummy munitions and support equipment?
A. Control
B. Plans and Scheduling
C. Conventional
D. Combat Plans & Mobility & Training

A

Munitions Plans and Scheduling

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26
Q 
Which Muns element within the material sections maintains and validates accountable and auditable records?
A. Storage
B. Control
C. Inspection
D. Operations
A

Operations

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27
Q 
Which Muns element within the material section warehouses munitions stock and equipment to ensure mission supportability?
A. Operations
B. Inspections
C. Control
D. Storage
A

Storage

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28
Q 
Which Muns element within the Muns flight performs surveillance inspections on munitions in stock?
A. Operations
B. Inspection
C. Control
D. Storage
A

Inspection

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29
Q 
This plan is PRIMARILY deved for locales WITHOUT A PERMANENT AF presence/contain the min data necessary for bed down decisions.
A. Operational
B. Expeditionary Site
C. Muns Employment
D. In-garrison Expeditionary Site
A

Expeditionary Site

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30
Q

When developing a Muns Employment Plan, what action is the MOST efficient way to gather info?
A. Conduct a site survey
B. Request mission statement change
C. Conduct pre-air task orders verification
D. Request Muns requirements change

A

Conduct a Site Survey

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31
Q

The chairman of the Joint Chiefs of Staff issues a warning or planning order when…
A. The first explosion is sighted
B. Casualties occur
C. Circumstances indicate immediate need for mil ops
D. Circumstances indicate reasonable need for mil ops

A

Circumstances Indicate an Immediate Need to Begin Military Operations

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32
Q 
In ref. to implementing an op or Muns employment plan, which order gives the combatant commander ALL ESSENTIAL execution planning info?
A. Execution
B. Planning
C. Warning
D. Alert
A

Planning

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33
Q 
In ref. to implementing an op or Muns employment plan, which order is issued by SECDEF & directs the deployment of forces?
A. Warning
B. Planning
C. Execute
D. Alert
A

Execute

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34
Q 
One SUBSTANTIAL benefit of contamination avoidance is that it INCREASES the...
A. Effect of contaminated assets
B. Amount of crit. assets ruined
C. Time personnel are req. to wear MOPP
D. Survivability of personnel
A

Survivability of Personnel

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35
Q 
What method is PREFERRED when protecting vehicles, equipment, and Muns stores from chem contamination?
A. Non-porous barrier material
B. Porous material
C. Outdoor storage
D. Indoor storage
A

Indoor storage

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36
Q 
Which type of material provides the BEST protection for Muns assets from chem absorption?
A. Wool
B. Wood
C. Cotton
D. Plastic
A

Plastic

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37
Q 
Who MUST ensure reqs for permanent covered build areas, vehicle/AGE shelters, and covered trailer holding areas are developed?
A. Conventional section chief
B. Storage section chief
C. Muns flight officers/chiefs
D. Sr Muns inspector
A

Munitions Flight Officers/Chiefs

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38
Q 
While in a contaminated area, ensuring Muns personnel remain informed & monitoring all activities MUST be done in what areas?
A. Supervision and Control
B. Supervision and Storage
C. Control and Accountability
D. Accountability and Storage
A

Supervision and Munitions Control

39
Q 
In ref to op decon procedures, which item is issued in small booklets and when dipped in suspect chem, IMMEDIATELY changes color?
A. M291 kit
B. M295 kit
C. M9 tape
D. M8 paper
A

M8 Paper

40
Q 
In ref to op decon procedures, which item is used to decon equipment and munitions?
A. M291 kit
B. M295 kit
C. M9 tape
D. M8 paper
A

M295 Kit

41
Q 
Under which physical security protection level do NUCLEAR weapons fall?
A. 1
B. 2
C. 3
D. 4
A

1

42
Q 
Under which physical security protection level do NONNUCLEAR alert forces fall?
A. 1
B. 2
C. 3
D. 4
A

2

43
Q 
Under which physical security protection level do F-16 FIGHTS fall?
A. 1
B. 2
C. 3
D. 4
A

3

44
Q 
How many entry control points should be set up for each restricted area?
A. 1
B. 2
C. 3
D. 4
A

1

45
Q 
How do you mark the boundary for a restricted area?
A. Every 50 feet
B. Every 100 feet
C. Clearly with warning signs
D. Clearly with explosives signs
A

Clearly with Warning Signs

46
Q 
Which system is NORMALLY used to gain entry to a NONNUCLEAR munitions storage area?
A. Sign-in/sign-out
B. Authentication
C. Armed guard
D. Badge
A

Badge

47
Q

Controlled inventory item codes are used to…
A. Ctrl the issue of Muns items
B. Ensure the protection of stored Muns items
C. Ctrl the security needed while Muns item is in-transit
D. ID * of security while Muns item is in storage/transit

A

Identify the Degree of Security While the Munitions Item is in Storage or Transit

48
Q 
Classified items require the kind of protection that is...
A. States by the item manager
B. Stated by the Muns flight chief
C. In the interest of national security
D. In the interest of national defense
A

In the Interest of National Security

49
Q 
What code is used to indicate an item has a resale value or civ utility, therefore subject to theft?
A. Pilferable item code
B. Sensitive items code
C. Controlled item code
D. Unclassified item code
A

Pilferable Item Code

50
Q 
Standards and procedures for protecting arms and munitions vary according to...
A. Controlled item code
B. Classified items
C. Sensitive Items
D. Risk category
A

Risk Category

51
Q 
Which dep of def risk category consists of complete man-portable nonnuclear missiles and rockets?
A. I
B. II
C. III
D. IV
A

I

52
Q 
Which piece of info is a logistics and maintenance support indicator to op security vulnerability?
A. Call signs
B. Power sources
C. Military orders
D. Deviations of normal procedures
A

Deviations of Normal Procedures

53
Q 
The MAJOR goal of the AF nuclear weapons surety program is to achieve MAXIMUM safety consistent with...
A. MAJCOM directives
B. Op reqs
C. National defense policy
D. Base reqs
A

Operational Requirements

54
Q

What reason is behind the nuclear weapons PRP?
A. Ensure that personnel meet high standards of reliability
B. It is necessary to ID personnel with problems
C. Ensure peeps don’t have disorders
D. All people have stress in their life

A

Ensure personnel meet the highest possible standard of individual reliability

55
Q 
What categories of duty positions fall under the PRP?
A. Sensitive and limited
B. Controlled and critical
C. Sensitive and controlled
D. Controlled and sensitive
A

Controlled and Critical

56
Q

Performing duties in a critical PRP position normally requires…
A. Detailed knowledge of nuke systems
B. The indv. to ctrl entry into a no-lone zone
C. A FBI check
D. A national agency check

A

Detailed Technical Knowledge of Nuclear Weapon Systems

57
Q

The 2person concept is designed to…
A. Ensure a lone indv. can’t tamper
B. Ensure an indv. has assistance
C. Prevent non-crit personnel from being around crit items
D. Prevent non-controlled personnel from access to controlled items

A

Ensure that a Lone Individual Never has the Opportunity to Tamper with a Nuclear Weapon

58
Q

Which area would NOT be considered a no-lone zone?
A. An aircraft loaded with Nukes
B. A storage structure w/crit items
C. The convoy route of a truck carrying nuclear weapons
D. A storage structure w/limited life component containers

A

A Storage Structure with Limited Life Component Containers

59
Q 
Which AFI provides criteria for Dull Sword categories and reporting?
A. 91-101
B. 91-104
C. 91-201
D. 91-221
A

91-221

60
Q 
Who provides all AF personnel a safe/healthy work area in which hazards are contained/controlled?
A. Weapons safety staff
B. Chief of safety 
C. Commanders
D. Supervisors
A

Commanders

61
Q 
Which MAJCOM gives tech assist to mishap investigation boards and implements corrective action involving the material aspects of the report?
A. Air combat COM
B. Air mobility COM
C. AF material COM
D. USAF in Europe
A

Air Force Material Command

62
Q 
What AF Form does a supervisor use to document safety training?
A. AF form 55
B. AF form 68
C. AF form 623
D. AF form 688
A

AF Form 55

63
Q 
Which category of human factors leading to accidents includes attitude and distraction?
A. Mental
B. Physical
C. Emotional
D. Psychological
A

Mental

64
Q 
When handling items manually, what parts of the body are MOST likely to receive injury?
A. Head and shoulders
B. Hands and fingers
C. Back and spine
D. Legs and feet
A

Hands and Fingers

65
Q 
GOV other than those in the process of being loaded/unloaded may NOT be parked closer than how many feet from an explosives storage area/facility?
A. 10
B. 25
C. 50
D. 100
A

25 Feet

66
Q 
How often are fire drill conducted within an explosive storage area?
A. Monthly
B. Quarterly
C. Semi-annually
D. Annually
A

Semi-annually

67
Q 
When explosives are being handled, how many SUITABLE fire extinguishers MUST be available for IMMEDIATE use?
A. 1
B. 2
C. 3
D. 4
A

2

68
Q 
And electrical storm is considered "in the near vicinity" when it is within APX how many miles of the MSA?
A. 2
B. 3
C. 5
D. 6
A

5 Nautical Miles

69
Q 
Conditions, procedures, & practices directly related to the work area that create the potential for injuries or illness are defined as...
A. Hazards
B. Problems
C. Situations
D. Potential Problems
A

Hazards

70
Q 
In the DoD hazard classification system, ammo and explosive hazard classes are further subdivided into divisions based on the...
A. Capability grouping
B. Intended use of the item
C. Physical size of explosion
D. Nature and potential of hazard
A

Nature of the Hazard and it’s Potential for Injury or Damage

71
Q 
Munitions are grouped into the same hazard division when they have...
A. Different explosive characteristics
B. Like explosive characteristics
C. The same explosive weight
D. Different explosive weights
A

Like Explosive Characteristics

72
Q 
Hazard class 1 of the DoD hazard classification system has how many divisions?
A. 2
B. 4
C. 6
D. 8
A

6

73
Q 
Which class/division explosions generally cause severe structural damage to adjacent objects?
A. 1.1
B. 1.2
C. 1.3
D. 1.4
A

1.1

74
Q 
Some items included in explosive class/division 1.2 are...
A. Missiles
B. Guided bomb units
C. 20mm and 30mm ammunition 
D. Shape charges and small arms
A

20mm and 30mm Ammunition

75
Q 
Which explosive class/division includes items that burn vigorously and fires that are difficult to put out?
A. 1.1
B. 1.2
C. 1.3
D. 1.4
A

1.3

76
Q 
What type of report may be submitted on any event that affects safety or health?
A. Safety
B. Health
C. Hazard
D. Conditions
A

Hazard Report

77
Q 
On of the most difficult tasks a supervisor has in training crew members is getting them to...
A. Follow TO procedures
B. Performing the job from memory
C. Perform steps in sequence
D. Verify their work
A

Follow Technical Order Procedures

78
Q

What is a basic principle to follow when using TOs?
A. Memorize which TO is needed to perform the job
B. Know how to locate info
C. Know who writes TOs
D. Memorize warnings

A

Know How to Locate Information

79
Q 
The typical new 11A series TO is broken down into...
A. Guides
B. Outlines
C. Chapters
D. Work packages
A

Work Packages

80
Q

The CARDINAL PRINCIPLE for explosives safety is to…

A

“Expose the Minimum Number of People to the Minimum Amount of Explosives for the Minimum Amount of Time”

81
Q 
What # of feet is the INITIAL withdrawal distance of partially armed munitions with NO fire involved?
A. 300
B. 600
C. 2500
D. 4000
A

300

82
Q 
Which category is NOT a hazard associated with missile systems?
A. High noise
B. Flammables
C. High voltage
D. Low pressure
A

Low Pressure

83
Q 
Which munitions pose a forward firing ordnance hazard?
A. Fuzes
B. Squibs
C. Missiles
D. Guided bomb units
A

Missiles

84
Q 
The AFI that governs the intrinsic radiation safety program is...
A. AFI 91-115
B. AFI 91-10
C. AFI 91-109
D. AFI 91-108
A

Air Force Instruction 91-108

85
Q 
Whatever's of radiation is the annual MAX permissible amount for exposed workers?
A. 5 rems
B. 10 rems
C. 15 rems
D. 20 rems
A

5 REMS

86
Q 
What do you call a group of XB3 items kept on hand in a work center to enhance productivity?
A. Working supply
B. Supply stock
C. Ready stock
D. Bench stock
A

Bench Stock

87
Q

Before a container is considered reusable, which reqs MUST it meet?
A. Must be steel
B. Expose serviceable items to damage
C. Protect unserviceable items from further deterioration
D. Highest cost for lifetime of item

A

Protect Unserviceable Items Against Further Deterioration When Returned to the Depot or Manufacturer

88
Q

The maintenance data doc collection system is described as a system…
A. For emergency reporting in high-sec
B. With a collection, storage, and retrieval process
C. That shows what nukes are in-stock
D. Designed to automate nuke commodity management accounting

A

With a Collection Process, a Storage Process, and a Retrieval Process

89
Q

Management uses maintenance data collection info for all of the following purposes EXCEPT to…
A. ID equipment and configuration
B. Generate weapon status reports
C. Project workload & scheduling reqs
D. Assure accomplishment of time compliance TOs

A

Identify Equipment Configuration

90
Q 
Periodic maintenance is ALSO referred to as what other kind of maintenance?
A. Known
B. Modified
C. Scheduled
D. Predictable
A

Scheduled

91
Q

In-progress inspections are REQUIRED for ops that…
A. Include crit internal component connections
B. Are used for task certification
C. Involve war reserved material
D. Involve element core tasks

A

Include Critical Internal Component Connections

92
Q 
Each remark entered on an AFTO Form 95 is preceded by the date of the inspection/maintenance & suffix with the name of the...
A. Organization making the entry
B. Person making the entry
C. Equipment repaired
D. Equipment certified
A

Organization Making the Entry

93
Q

On an AFTO Form 244, how do you correct an erroneous red dash/red diagonal?
A. Erase and correct the symbol
B. Line through & initial SYMBOL block
C. Write”symbol entered in error, no discrepancy exists” & sign “corrected by” block
D. Initial INSPECTED BY block

A

Enter “Symbol Entered in Error, No Discrepancy Exists” and Enter Your Minimum Signature in the “CORRECTED BY” Block

94
Q

True or False?

Today’s weaponry systems must be as accurate as possible.

A

False

95
Q 
Performing periodic functional testing on missile systems falls under which maintenance level?
A. Organizational
B. Intermediate
C. Depot
D. Base
A

Intermediate

96
Q 
All of the following missiles are tracked using the tactical missile reporting system EXCEPT for...
A. AGM-65
B. AGM-86
C. AIM-9
D. AIM-7
A

AGM-86

ammo (6 decks)

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