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Avionics and Instruments Flashcards

1
Q

What are the 3 groups of Basic Flight Instruments?

A

Primary Flight Instruments
Engine Instruments
Navigation Instruments

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2
Q

Name the 2 types of sensing

A

Direct (Analogue)
Remote (Digital)

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3
Q

Advantages of digital displays over analogue

A

Reliability
Accuracy
Flexibility
Cost

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4
Q

Name the 6 Primary Flight Instruments

A

Attitude Indicator (ATI)
Airspeed Indicator (ASI)
Altimeter (ALT)
Vertical Speed Indicator (VSI)
Horizontal Situation Indicator (HSI)
Turn and Slip Indicator (T+S)

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5
Q

In terms of flight instruments
???? + ???? = PERFORMANCE

A

POWER
ATTITUDE

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6
Q

What are the CONTROL instruments?

A

Power Instruments
Attitude Indicator (ATI)
Control instrument indications are direct and respond immediately to control changes

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7
Q

What are the PERFORMANCE instruments?

A

Airspeed Indicator (ASI)
Altimeter (ALT)
Vertical Speed Indicator (VSI)
Horizontal Situation Indicator (HSI)
Turn and Slip Indicator (T+S)

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8
Q

Pressure instruments use what two kinds of pressure?

A

Pitot Pressure and Static Pressure

Digitally this is fed to the Air Data Computer (ADC)

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9
Q

What are the DIRECT and INDIRECT indications from the ASI?

A

DIRECT - Airspeed
INDIRECT - Pitch

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10
Q

What are the DIRECT and INDIRECT indications from the ALT?

A

DIRECT - Altitude
INDIRECT - Pitch

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11
Q

What are the DIRECT and INDIRECT indications from the HSI/Compass?

A

DIRECT - Heading
INDIRECT - Bank or Yaw

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12
Q

What are the DIRECT and INDIRECT indications from the VSI?

A

DIRECT - Vertical Speed
INDIRECT - Pitch

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13
Q

What are the DIRECT and INDIRECT indications from the Turn Indicator?

A

DIRECT - Rate of Turn
INDIRECT - Bank or Yaw

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14
Q

What are the DIRECT and INDIRECT indications from the Slip Indicator?

A

DIRECT - Balance
INDIRECT - Yaw

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15
Q

What is the purpose of a standby flight instrument?

A

In-case of a system failure of the main displays

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16
Q

How long is a standby flight instrument required to be reliable for?

A

30 mins

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17
Q

What are the 2 ways of determining performance altitude?

A

Pressure altitude = Elevation + 30(1013-QNH)
Density Altitude = Pressure Alt + 120(ISA temp deviation)

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18
Q

How is the static pressure measured?

A

2 static ports at opposite sides of the aircraft. With an average taken to negate potential influence of slip.

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19
Q

Static pressure is provided to what 4 instruments?

A

ALT, ASI, Machmeter, VSI

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20
Q

Pitot pressure is provided by what piece of equipment?

A

Pitot tube

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21
Q

Pitot pressure = ….. pressure + ….. pressure

A

Static + Dynamic

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22
Q

Pitot pressure is supplied to what 2 instruments?

A

ASI, Machmeter

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23
Q

The altimeter actually measures ….. but is calibrated to read ……

A

pressure

height/altitude

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24
Q

Name the 5 types of altimeter

A

Simple
Sensitive
Servo-Assisted
Digital Display
Cabin Altitude

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25
Q

What are the 8 errors of an altimeter or most other pressure instruments?

A

Pressure
Instrument
Temperature
Hysteresis
Blockages and leaks
Lag
Orographic
Transonic jump

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26
Q

On a cold day do you need to correct/adjust your altimeter/decision heights?

A

Yes - Potentially up to 10%

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27
Q

What type of capsule is used in an Altimeter?

A

Aneroid capsule

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28
Q

What type of capsule is used in an ASI?

A

Differential capsule

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29
Q

What are the different instruments that use a differential capsule and an aneroid capsule?

A

Differential - ASI, VSI
Aneroid - ALT

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30
Q

Name the 4 different ASIs

A

Simple
Sensitive
Servo-assisted
Digital Display

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31
Q

What do each of the colours on the rim of the ASI refer to?

A

White - Flap operating range
Green - Normal operating range
Yellow - Caution range
Red dash - Never exceed

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32
Q

Indicated Air Speed (IAS) corrected for instrument and pressure error becomes…

A

Calibrated Air Speed (CAS)

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33
Q

Calibrated Air Speed (CAS) corrected for compressibility error becomes ….

A

Equivalent Air Speed (EAS)

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34
Q

Equivalent Air Speed (EAS) corrected for density error becomes ….

A

True Air Speed (TAS)

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35
Q

What additional component does the Machmeter have over an ASI?

A

Aneroid Capsule

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36
Q

What type of capsule does a VSI have?

A

Differential Capsule

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37
Q

What are other names could a VSI be known as?

A

Rate of climb & descent Indicator (RCDI)
Vertical Velocity Indicator (VVI)
Instantaneous Vertical Speed Indicator (IVSI)

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38
Q

What does an ISVI have that eliminates lag error?

A

Counter/bob weights counter act lag error to move the needle ‘Instantaneously’.

Weights calibrated to provide correct reading

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39
Q

What does ADS stand for?

A

Air Data System

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40
Q

What does the ADS consist of?

A

Probes and Sensors (Press, Temp, AoA, Slip).
Transducers to convert air data to electronic signals.
Air data computer to process signals for systems/displays.

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41
Q

What are the advantages of an ADS?

A

Less bulky
Replaces numerous instruments
Eliminates analogue error
Errors automatically eliminated
Increased accuracy and sensitivity
Minimal lag time
Digitised air data enables flexibility

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42
Q

What converts analogue readings to digital signals?

A

Transducer

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43
Q

Name the 3 different types of gyroscopes

A

Spinning
Optical
Vibrating

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44
Q

Define the 5 terms associated with gyroscopes

A

Inertia - Resistance of an object to change its state of motion
Momentum - Mass x Velocity
Angular Vel - Speed of rotation/spin
Moment of Inertia - Mass x Moment arm distance from spin axis
Angular Momentum - Ang Vel x Moment of Inertia

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45
Q

What is special about angular momentum?

A

Angular momentum is conserved

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46
Q

What is the 1st Law of gyrodynamics?

A

Spin axis remains fixed in inertial space. RIGIDITY

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47
Q

What is the 2nd Law of gyrodynamics?

A

If a torque is applied perpendicular to spin axis, the spin axis will precess steadily about an axis perpendicular to the spin and torque axis’. PRECESSION

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48
Q

Name the 3 classifications of SPINNING gyroscopes

A

Rate
Rate Integrating
Displacement

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49
Q

The main gyroscopic error is known as …..

A

Wander

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50
Q

Gyroscopic wander breakdowns into 2 types. These are?

A

Real
Apparent

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51
Q

Depending on the plane of error what are the 2 terms used?

A

Drift - Wander of the spin axis in the horizontal plane
Topple - Wander of the spin axis in the vertical plane

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52
Q

Apparent wander varies with …. from the equator to the poles as the Earth rotates

A

Latitude

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53
Q

Transport wander is the …. of the gyroscope from the meridian it is set from.

A

Divergence

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54
Q

OPTICAL gyroscopes operate off of what effect?

A

SAGNAC

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55
Q

Name the error other than wander that can impact a gyroscopes functionality?

A

Gimble Lock

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56
Q

Advantages of a Ring Laser Gyro? (5)

A

Minimal ‘spin up’ time
Unaffected by high ‘g’
No moving parts therefore minimum maintenance
Wide dynamic range
Very small drift rates

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57
Q

Disadvantages of a Ring Laser Gyro? (3)

A

Precision machining required
Costly due to high quality mirrors/sensors required
Careful balance of gases required (He + Ne)

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58
Q

Fibre Optic gyroscopes are c….. and more e….. than Ring Laser gyroscopes.

A

CHEAPER + more EFFICIENT

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59
Q

What are the 2 different types of OPTICAL gyroscopes?

A

Ring Laser Gyroscope (RLG)
Fibre Optic Gyroscope (FOG)

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60
Q

Vibrating Structure Gyroscopes are also known as what?

A

Coriolis Vibrating Gyro (CVG)

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61
Q

Vibrating gyroscopes take advantage if what effect?

A

Coriolis Effect

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62
Q

How big are modern Micro Electro-Mechanical Systems?

A

Finger nail

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63
Q

What gyroscopes take advantage of the SAGNAC effect?

A

Optical Gyroscopes

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64
Q

An elementary radar consists of 3 components. These are?

A

Transmitting Antenna
Receiving Antenna
An energy detecting device or antenna

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65
Q

Radar clutter can come from …. (Name some examples)

A

Land
Sea
Rain
Birds
Chaff

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66
Q

Describe Pulse Width

A

Time duration of a single pulse (represented by tau).

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67
Q

Describe Pulse Length

A

Distance between the leading and trailing edges of a pulse.

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68
Q

Describe Pulse Repetition Interval (PRI)

A

The time period between the start of one pulse and the start of the next pulse.

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69
Q

Describe Pulse Repetition Frequency (PRF)

A

The number of pulses occurring in one second.

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70
Q

As the frequency of a radar increases, what happens to the;
Resolution
Equipment and Weight req’d
Power and Operating range
Interference

A

Resolution - Increases
Equipment and Weight req’d - Decreases
Power and Operating range - Decreases
Interference - Increases

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71
Q

Name the 3 radar transmission characteristics

A

Directional Information
Range Information
Relative Velocity between target and radar

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72
Q

How does a radar determine the relative velocity between itself and a target?

A

Doppler Effect

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73
Q

Radars fall broadly into what 3 types?

A

Pulse System, Continuous Wave, Pulse Doppler

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74
Q

Increasing the refraction occurs with what in changes in; Pressure, Temp, Moisture

A

Pressure - No difference
Temperature - Decreasing
Humidity - Increasing

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75
Q

What does MTI stand for? (radar)

A

Moving Target Indicator

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76
Q

What 4 characteristics are used to describe a radar?

A

Installation Env - Ground/Airbourne etc
Functional Characteristics - Search, Track etc
Transmission Char. - Pulse, CW etc
Oper. Freq - D-Band etc

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77
Q

Radar visual displays are usually of what 2 kinds?

A

Raw Video
Synthetic Video

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78
Q

3 applications of Radar are?

A

Search
Tracking
Fire-Control

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79
Q

Describe what a Search Radar does?

A

Scans wide areas at a lower frequency of return to the same point.

Can only distinguish targets that are far apart.

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80
Q

Describe what a Tracking Radar does?

A

Scans a narrow area more frequently.

Must be directed onto a target as their beams are narrower.

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81
Q

Describe what a Fire-Control Radar does?

A

Specifically direct weapon systems onto a target.

Emits a very narrow, intense beam to ensure accurate tracking information.

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82
Q

Describe a Search Radar’s characteristics? (PRF, Antenna Rotation etc)

A

Low PRF
Slow Antenna Rotation
Low Freq, Scan rate
Large in Size
Serves predominantly as an early warning indicator

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83
Q

Describe a Tracking Radar’s characteristics? (PRF, Antenna Rotation etc)

A

High PRF
Higher Antenna Rotation
Used when continuous flow of data required on discrete targets.

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84
Q

Describe a Fire-Control Radar’s characteristics? (PRF, Antenna Rotation etc)

A

Highest PRF
Very high Antenna Rotation (Often electronically scanned)
Very narrow beam width
Extreme accuracy, limited range
Initial target detection difficult
Multiple modes: Designation, Acquisition, Track

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85
Q

Least is _____
____ is best.

A

East

West

86
Q

To operate efficiently a Direct Indicating Compass System (DICS) must have

A

Horizontality
Sensitivity
Aperiodicity

87
Q

What does DICS stand for?

A

Direct Indicating Compass System

88
Q

How can you make a compass more sensitive?

A

Longer magnet
Increase pole strength
Reduce friction

89
Q

A magnetic compass is subject to disturbance and movement caused by ….

A

Acceleration/ Deceleration
Manoeuvre (pitch/roll/turns)
Turbulence

90
Q

A gyro-magnetic compass may also be known as ….

A

Direction Indicator (DI)

91
Q

The Detector Unit in the GMC may also be known as a ….

A

Fluxvalve

92
Q

What will impact the accuracy of GMC when traveling in an E/W direction?

A

Acceleration

93
Q

What will impact the accuracy of GMC when traveling in an N/S direction?

A

Turning

94
Q

What happens to the signal from the fluxvalve when the a/c is manoeuvring?

A

The signal is cut-off

95
Q

What are you looking for in a good compass swing area?

A

Low Magnetic Interference

96
Q

List some reasons for conducting a magnetic swing

A

Following a/c major servicing
Doubt in accuracy
Following a lightning strike
When compass components are replaced
After compass subject to a significant shock
When carrying unusual ferromagnetic loads

97
Q

What does ADF stand for?

A

Automatic Direction Finding (ADF)

98
Q

An ADF is a NDB. What does NDB stand for?

A

Non-Directional Beacon (NDB)

99
Q

What frequency do NDBs typically operate?

A

190-690 kHz

100
Q

What instruments may show the you the relative bearing of a ADF?

A

HSI
Radio Magnetic Indicator (RMI)
Multifunctional Display (MFD)

101
Q

An Auto Dir. Finding (ADF) system is made up of what components?

A

2 perpendicular magnet cores wrapped with 2 coils of wire (Fixed Loop Coils).
Field Coils -Search Coil
Goniometer - Control Circuits
Sense Aerial

102
Q

Name some of the different errors an ADF may face

A

Night Effect - Changing ionosphere behaviour.
Synchronous Transmission - Two separate signals interfering.
Bank - When turning due to the movement of the coils over the EM wave.
Coastal Refraction - Will be along the coast.
Quadrantal - Electrical field along longitudinal axis of a/c

103
Q

What does VOR stand for?

A

VHF Omnidirectional Range

104
Q

How many signals does a VOR transmit?

A

2

Omnidirectional + Rotating

105
Q

Describe the 2 signals that a VOR transmits.

A

Omnidirectional REFERENCE signal (30 Hz)

Rotating DIRECTIONAL signal (30 Hz, 1800RPM)

106
Q

What physics concept does a VOR take advantage of in order to determine bearing?

A

Phase difference between 2 EM signals

107
Q

The VOR transmits the Omnidirectional signal when the radial antenna is pointing _____.

A

NORTH

108
Q

VOR uses what type of EM wave?

A

Space Wave (LOS)

109
Q

How many reserved bandwidths are there for VOR and ILS?

A

3

110
Q

VOR performance will depend on?

A

A/C altitude
Transmitter Power
Transmitter Height

111
Q

How accurate do we say a VOR is?

A

+/- 1 deg

112
Q

Ground Beacon error can be caused by:

A

Uneven terrain (valleys, hills etc), trees, buildings etc

113
Q

When VOR radials deviate from their standard track due to terrain and start reflecting off of buildings, it is known as?

A

Scalloping

114
Q

Describe VOR Interference and Ambiguity

A

Interference - Receive 2 signals from separate ground beacons.

Ambiguity - When the a/c converges on the VOR the radials tighten.

115
Q

What does DME stand for?

A

Directional Measuring Equipment

116
Q

In relation to a DME, what is the TRANSPONDER and what is the INTERROGATOR?

A

Transponder - Ground Beacon

Interrogator - A/C

117
Q

The a/c transmits how many pulse pairs per second?

A

25 pulse pairs per second

118
Q

The DME transponder alters the reply frequency by +/- 63 MHz to prevent _______ ________

A

Destructive Interference

119
Q

What does protected range and altitude mean?

A

The range and altitude outside which signals of the same frequency may have originated from a different transmitter.

120
Q

What does TACAN stand for?

A

TACtical Air Navigation

121
Q

TACAN is the Military equivalent of _____

A

VOR/DME

122
Q

TACAN is ____ accurate than civilian ______

A

MORE accurate than civilian VOR/DME

123
Q

In a TACAN, the DME operates in the UHF band, with every UHF frequency paired with _______

A

a VHF band frequency.

124
Q

A TACAN can be co-located with a VOR. This is known as ____

A

VORTAC

125
Q

In a TACAN, the Omnidirectional pulse fires when the directional pulse is pointing _____

A

EAST

126
Q

TACAN has ___ channels.
Each channel is number _ to ___ with each having an _ or _ designation.

A

252 channels

Number 1 to 126, with X or Y.

127
Q

What is the bearing accuracy of the TACAN?

A

+/- 0.5 deg

128
Q

What frequency band does a DME operate on?

A

UHF

129
Q

VOR determines _____
DME determines _____

A

VOR - DIRECTION

DME - RANGE

130
Q

What does HSI stand for?

A

Horizontal Situation Indicator

131
Q

The desired heading to a Beacon is set using the ___

A

CRS (Course)

132
Q

List common inputs to the HSI.

A

Magnetic Heading
VOR/ILS
DME
TACAN
NDB

133
Q

What does VOR stand for?

A

VHF Omnidirectional Range

134
Q

What does TACAN stand for?

A

TACtical Air Navigation

135
Q

What does ILS stand for?

A

Instrument Landing System

136
Q

What does DME stand for?

A

Directional Measuring Equipment

137
Q

What does NDB stand for?

A

Non-Directional Beacon (NDB)

138
Q

In addition to the common nav inputs, what other information can be displayed on the HSI?

A

TCAS - Term. Coll Avoid Sys
INS - Inertial Nav Sys
IRS - Inertial Ref Sys
Radios
Special purpose - Threat warning, Weather, moving map, A2A radar.

139
Q

What does LLZ stand for? (in relation to ILS)

A

Localiser

140
Q

What does GP stand for? (in relation to ILS)

A

Glidepath

141
Q

What does an ILS enable?

A

Runway approach under instrument flight conditions.

142
Q

The right lobe of the LLZ (Localiser) is amplitude modulated by how much?

A

150Hz

143
Q

The left lobe of the LLZ (Localiser) is amplitude modulated by how much?

A

90Hz

144
Q

As you drift from centreline, the _____ of a LLZ (localiser) lobe increases.

A

STRENGTH

145
Q

If you approach from right of centreline the aircraft will receive more of the ____ Hz signal.

A

150Hz

146
Q

If you approach from left of centreline the aircraft will receive more of the ____ Hz signal.

A

90Hz

147
Q

The LLZ (localiser) operates in HF/VHF/UHF band? (Choose one)

A

VHF

148
Q

The glidepath transmitter operates in the HF/VHF/UHF band? (Choose one)

A

UHF

149
Q

The localiser (LLZ) modulates signal in the _________ direction.

A

HORIZONTAL

150
Q

The glidepath(GP) transmitter modulates signal in the _________ direction.

A

VERTICAL

151
Q

The UPPER LOBE of the glidepath signal is modulated at ___ Hz.

A

90Hz

152
Q

The LOWER LOBE of the glidepath signal is modulated at ___ Hz.

A

150 Hz

153
Q

If you are receiving more of the 90 Hz modulated signal, you are ____ the glidepath.

A

ABOVE

154
Q

If you are receiving more of the 150 Hz modulated signal, you are ____ the glidepath.

A

BELOW

155
Q

Aircraft using ILS can fall into one of how many ILS Operational Performance categories?

A

5

156
Q

Information about the specific associated with glideslope can be found in the __ ____

A

UK AIP

157
Q

Name the 5 ILS Operational Performance categories.

A

Category I
Category II
Category IIIA
Category IIIB
Category IIIC

158
Q

What is the Decision height and Runway Visual Range (RVR) limits of an ILS Category I a/c?

A

DH - Not below 200ft.

RVR - Not less than 550m.

159
Q

What is the Decision height and Runway Visual Range (RVR) limits of an ILS Category II a/c?

A

DH - Not below 100ft.

RVR - Not less than 300m.

160
Q

What is the Decision height and Runway Visual Range (RVR) limits of an ILS Category IIIA a/c?

A

DH - With dual autopilot; Not below 50ft.

RVR - Not less than 200m.

161
Q

What is the Decision height and Runway Visual Range (RVR) limits of an ILS Category IIIB a/c?

A

DH - With dual autopilot; Lower than 50 ft or no DH.

RVR - Not less than 75m.

162
Q

What is the Decision height and Runway Visual Range (RVR) limits of an ILS Category IIIC a/c?

A

DH - With dual autopilot; No DH limits. Guidance to and along runway & taxiways.

RVR - No external visual reference.

163
Q

List some ILS errors

A

Scalloping - Rapidly oscillating indications.

Beam bend - Gentle curve of the approach path.

FM Transmission - Frequencies just below 108MHz can produce spillage into LLZ frequencies causing interference.

Weather - Heavy snow or rain may attenuate ILS signals. Reducing range and degrading accuracy.

164
Q

What does MFD stand for?

A

Multi-Function Display

165
Q

What does EFIS stand for?

A

Electronic Flight Information System

166
Q

List the key components of EFIS

A

ADS (Air Data System)
ADC (Air Data Computer)
AHRS (Attitude and Heading Reference System)
EICAS (Engine Indicating and Crew Alerting System) or ECAM (Engine Central Aircraft Monitor)
Integrated Avionics Unit
Data Bus
PFDs (Primary Flight Displays)
MFDs (Multi-Functions Displays)
IESI (Integrated Electronic Standby Instrument)

167
Q

What does AHRS stand for?

A

Attitude and Heading Reference System

168
Q

What does ADAHRS stand for?

A

Air Data Attitude and Heading Reference System

169
Q

What does EICAS stand for?

A

Engine Indicating and Crew Alerting System

170
Q

Why might you need to be careful when reading fuel flow to the engines on MFDs?

A

The display may be presenting individual feeds if you have separate engines. Summing of flows needs to be done to determine total flow.

171
Q

The data bus contains what? (List L to R with respect to the diagram in notes)

A

Bus Controller
3 x Remote Terminal
Bus Monitor

172
Q

The two main types of display are

A

MFDs and PFDs

173
Q

A total failure of display will be indicated by a _______

A

BLANK SCREEN

174
Q

Failure of the feed to the display will be indicated by ______

A

RED CROSSES (X)

175
Q

The MFD can display various information. This can be …

A

Airspace Info
Charts
Airways
TCAS

176
Q

MIL_STD-……. is the high speed data bus network used to connect equipment.

A

MIL-STD-1773

177
Q

What piece of equipment is known as the “Heart of processing” and processes all the data from the a/c’s avionics and formats it.

A

Integrated Avionics Unit

178
Q

What does INS stand for?

A

Inertial Navigation System

179
Q

What does GPS stand for?

A

Global Positioning System

180
Q

An INS uses accelerometers and gyros to determine and track ____, ____ and ___.

A

POSITION
ORIENTATION
and
VELOCITY

181
Q

List the components of the INS (5)

A

Frame mounted Gimbals and motors
Accelerometers and Gyros on a gyro-stabilised platform
A computer
Aircrew interface
Cockpit displays

182
Q

INS gyros are contained in a ____ ______ unit

A

FLUID FILLED

183
Q

How many Gyros do you need to cover ROLL, PITCH and YAW?

A

3

184
Q

Gyros are used in an INS for what purpose?

A

Keep the platform holding the accelerometers stable

185
Q

The integrator is used to convert acceleration to _____

A

VELOCITY

186
Q

The FIRST stage of the alignment process of the INS is ______

A

HEATING

187
Q

What is the rate of INS heating during warmup?

A

15degC/min

188
Q

During INS heating the operating temp is about _____

A

70degC

189
Q

What are the two kinds of levelling done to an INS?

A

Fine

Coarse

190
Q

The gyro compassing during alignment of the iNS aligns the platform with ____ ______

A

TRUE NORTH

191
Q

The E-W gyro detects the _____ ________

A

EARTHS ROTATION

192
Q

Once the - gyro reads zero azimuth gimbal is stopped.

A

E-W

This is when the Earth’s rotation has no component affecting the platform.

193
Q

Once aligned a _____ ‘____’ light is illuminated

A

GREEN ‘READY’

194
Q

Strapdown INS/IRS systems are typically c_____, more r_____ and more r_____ than gimballed systems.

A

CHEAPER
more RELIABLE
more RUGGED

195
Q

Maximum error in SCHULER tuning occurs at __._ minutes and __._ minutes following disturbance.

A

1 mins
63. 3 mins

196
Q

Some INS errors are

A

Gimbal lock (Gimballed system)
- Compounding of disturbances from turbulence or vibration

197
Q

Name the 3 SEGMENTS associated with GPS

A

SPACE
CONTROL
USER

198
Q

GPS satellites are in the ___ segment

A

SPACE

199
Q

GPS sats transmit on what 2 frequencies?

A

L1 - 1575.42 MHz

L2 - 1227.6 MHz

200
Q

C/A code is transmitted on what freq(s)?

A

L1

201
Q

P code is transmitted on what freq(s)?

A

L1 and L2

202
Q

The 2 services available from GPS are ____ and ____

A

SPS - Standard Positioning Service

PPS - Precise Positioning Service

203
Q

What GPS service will provide you with the most accurate service?

A

PPS - Precise Positioning Service

204
Q

PPS is primarily intended for …..

A

Military Users

US, NATO and AUS

205
Q

What does GNSS stand for?

A

Global Navigation Satellite System

206
Q

List types of GPS receiver

A

Continuous tracking
Sequential
Multiplex
All-in view

207
Q

List some GPS errors

A

Insufficient satellite availability
Ionospheric Effect
External interference and masking - LOS
Multipath effects (signal reflection from buildings)

208
Q

Describe Differential GPS

A

The use of a ground station to minimise GPS errors.

209
Q

When utilising Differential GPS; corrections are applied to the GPS signal at the ____ receiver.

A

USER’S

210
Q

What does GNSS stand for?

A

Global Navigation Satellite System

MAGS (7 decks)

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