Avionics Flashcards

1
Q

Four Functions of the FMS

A

Performance
Radio
Navigation
SSPC

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2
Q

What does the SPDS do?

A

Controls various AC and DC loads throughout the airplane.

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3
Q

When can you erase CVR information?

A

Ground, door open, stationary.

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4
Q

Auto pop up of SFD occurs when?

A
P   PFD failure 
U   Unusual attitude
B   BPT
I     Instrument miscompare
S   SFD on the other side fails
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5
Q

Reasons for loss of terrain on SVS?

A

Doing a RA test within 15” of a EGPWS test
Operating without WGS84 information
BPT
Nose low or high attitude

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6
Q

What does T/O data p. 3 of 3 represent?

A

Minimum level off ht. 1 eng V2 clear of obstacles
Maximum level off ht. 1 eng V2 at the end of 10” for reference 0 and from the DER to see if we beat the SID
Reference 0 is 35’

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7
Q

Terrain Inhibit must be on when?

A

T Not in terrain database
R < 3,500’ runway
I No IAP
QFE ops t/o and landing w/o geometric altitude

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8
Q

What is the MWF? When do they switch channels.

A

It is the Fault Warning Computer, there are two.
They cycle on every power down as do the A/T’s.
If the CAS red X’s you can manually select the other FWC. This should have automatically occurred.

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9
Q

The geo-reference on a chart can be green or white, when?

A

Green when the approach comes out of the FMS, white otherwise.

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10
Q

When is a NUC check done?

A

Camera turns on
Flaps selected to 10
Pilot presses the button

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11
Q

When would you use H for an EVS setting and where would you see it in the HUD?

A

High probability of a missed approach

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12
Q

Four gains for EVS appearing in upper left corner of the HUD?

A

A auto
H high
L low
C clear

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13
Q

Airport and runway appear/disappear in the HUD at ______ feet?

A
Airport      2,000'
Runway    350'
A/P gone  325'
Flarecue   100'
R/W gone  60'
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14
Q

Issue with the EVS imagery?

A

Blooming
Misalignment
Thick clouds
Thermal crossover - temps close together

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15
Q

What on the approach chart indicates you can descend to 100’ above TDZE using EVS?

A

A published DA.

AFM Limitations 01-34-70

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16
Q

When does a g-load appear in the HUD?

A

Unusual attitudes

-1 to + 2.5g’s clean

17
Q

What is EPU?

A
A measurement of how accurate the sensors are?
Performance
Based
Sensor
Selection
System
18
Q

VSD displays track when?

A

Track in green when under heading
No track presentation when under FMS track
Track in amber when EPU exceeded

19
Q

Where does the SFD get its air data?

A

ADS #4, no air data on e-batts.

20
Q

GPWS ORIDE capsule on glare shield does what?

A

Disables all modes except windshear.

Operating VMC near terrain.

21
Q

RAD ALT capsule on glare shield does what?

A

All EGPWS callouts are inhibited except MINIMUMS and BANK ANGLE.
Might be used with an inop radar altimeter.

22
Q

What does selecting INHIBIT do?

A

Inhibits most ambers and blues.
Amber exceptions are LPV Unavailable, lateral, and vertical cpl data invalid, auto brake off, auto brake disarmed, 5 CAT II’s.
AURALS ONLY

23
Q

What happens when more than 12 red CAS messages want to post on the CAS 1/6?

A

Trim synoptic moves to the PFD.

24
Q

Inhibit is cancelled when?

A

Above 400’ AGL on takeoff or after a go around once the gear is retracted.

25
Q

What are the short range sensors?

A

VOR/DME and DME/DME

26
Q

What does a red X across the CAS represent?

A

Selected FWC has failed. Select other FWC. Should have occurred automatically.

27
Q

What does red or yellow terrain represent?

A

Terrain is at or above aircraft.

28
Q

How far in front in seconds is red and yellow terrain?

A

Red 30” “TERRAIN TERRAIN”

Yellow 40 - 60” “CAUTION TERRAIN”

29
Q

The RDR 4000 can display turbulence how far away? At what relative altitude?

A

40 nm/ +/-5,000’.

30
Q

Why should the pilot complete the radar test on not rely upon the 45 second timer to complete the test?

A

Because the radar will begin a new test when the aircraft becomes weight off wheels.

31
Q

Can turbulence be display on the VSD?

A

No

32
Q

Does the RDR 4000 turbulence mode default to ON after power up?

A

Yes