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Avian and exotic > Avian and Exotic Animal Medicine PQ > Flashcards

Avian and Exotic Animal Medicine PQ Flashcards

1
Q 
1. Symmetric alopecia appears on a 3 years old female guinea pig. What is your possible diagnosis?
A. Hyperthyreosis
B. Ovarian cysts
C. Zn-deficiency
D. Castratio-responsive alopecia
A

B. Ovarian cysts

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2
Q
  1. A rodent patient has pruritic dermatitis, and the skin scraping is negative. Which is the best idea to do?
    A. B-lactam antibiotics + glucocorticoids
    B. Anti-parasitic treatment
    C. Washing with anti-fungal shampoo 2-3 times a day
    D. Intracutan allergy test
A

B. Anti-parasitic treatment

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3
Q 
3. Which is the most common cause of fur chewing in chinchillas?
A. Bad husbandry, small cage
B. Vitamin and mineral deficiency
C. Disturbing the mother and the litter
D. Low fiber diet
A

A. Bad husbandry, small cage

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4
Q 
4. Which species does not have marking glands?
A. Syrian golden hamster
B. Roborowsky dwarf hamster
C. Mongolian gerbil
D. Degu
A

D. Degu

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5
Q 
5. What is the etiology of malocclusion in rodents?
A. Genetic predisposition
B. Iatrogenous harm
C. Malnutrition
D. All three is possible
A

D. All three is possible

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6
Q
  1. What is typical of mucoid enteritis?
    A. Disease of old rabbits caused by E. coli?
    B. Yeast owergrowth in the intestines of weaning rabbits
    C. Mucous-like faeces in chinchillas caused by Clostridium spp.
    D. Disease of young rabbits with an unknown origin, with pH changes
    in the caecum?
A

A. Disease of old rabbits caused by E. coli?
D. Disease of young rabbits with an unknown origin, with pH changes
in the caecum?

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7
Q 
7. What is the antibiotic that can be used orally in rodents?
A. Sulfometoxazol
B. Amoxicillin-clavulanic acid
C. Clindamycin
D. None of them
A

A. Sulfometoxazol

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8
Q 
8. What is not the etiology of CRD in rats?
A. Mycoplasma pulmonis infection
B. Latent virus infections
C. High ammonia level in the air
D. Traumatic injury
A

D. Traumatic injury

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9
Q
  1. What is typical of hypercalcuria in rabbits?
    A. Physiological under 2 months
    B. Needs surgical treatment
    C. The urinary bladder is full of crystal-sludge
    D. Can be treated by lowering the pH of the urine
A

C. The urinary bladder is full of crystal-sludge

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10
Q
  1. Which is true for ovarian cysts in guinea pigs?
    A. You need an US-examination for the diagnosis
    B. It can be palpated during routine physical examination
    C. You need to prove your diagnosis by needle aspiration
    D. You need to prove your diagnosis by measuring progesterone levels
A

B. It can be palpated during routine physical examination

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11
Q
  1. Which is true for the reproduction of guinea pigs?
    A. It is recommended to breed them in an intensive-way
    B. High calcium levels in the diet
    C. Males must be kept separately after parturition
    D. Males are also taking care of the youths
A

C. Males must be kept separately after parturition

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12
Q
  1. Which is true for pregnancy toxicosis in rodents?
    A. Low calcium diet plays a big role in the etiology
    B. It is not possible to prevent the disease
    C. IV. glucose, and hepato-protectans are effective treatments
    D. Usually poor prognosis in spite of the treatment
A

D. Usually poor prognosis in spite of the treatment

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13
Q
  1. You diagnose a swelling of the mammary gland on a 2 years old rat. What to do next?
    A. Give Enrofloxacin, because bacterial mastitis is common
    B. Cytology, surgical removal, based on cytology results
    C. Glucocorticoid treatment
    D. Observing the size, control examination once a year
A

B. Cytology, surgical removal, based on cytology results

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14
Q
  1. How can a rabbit get infected with Encephalitozoonosis?
    A. The infectious form spreads with the urine
    B. It is an arthropod-born disease
    C. The infectious form spreads with the faeces
    D. Only by eating the meat of an infected individual
A

A. The infectious form spreads with the urine

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15
Q 
15. When was the ferret domesticated?
A. More than 2000 years ago
B. Approximately 1000 years ago
C. Approximately 500 years ago
D. Approximately 100 years ago
A

A. More than 2000 years ago

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16
Q 
16. When can you neuter a female ferret?
A. Only if she is older than 9 months
B. Only after the first oestrus
C. Only during the first oestrus
D. At any time, when she is full-grown
A

B. Only after the first oestrus

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17
Q 
17. What is overproduced in Ferret Adrenal Gland Disease Complex? 
A. Sexual steroid
B. Mineralocorticoid
C. Glucocorticoid
D. Adrenalin
A

A. Sexual steroid

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18
Q
  1. Which is false about the GnRH analogues used for treatment of Ferret Adrenal Gland Disease Complex?
    A. In small dose they stimulate the secretion of LH and FSH
    B. In high dose they reduce the amount of the GnRH receptors
    C. When injected or implanted, they reduce the secretion of the LH and FSH
    D. They directly affect the melatonin secretion
A

D. They directly affect the melatonin secretion

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19
Q
  1. What drug is used for medical treatment of insulinoma?
    A. Diazoxid
    B. Deslorelin
    C. Dehidropiandrosteron D. Suprelorin
A

A. Diazoxid

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20
Q
  1. Which is false about the ferret’s gastrointestinal tract?
    A. Cannot use carbohydrates efficiently
    B. Cannot digest fiber
    C. Minimal gut flora
    D. Meat only food is the best for ferrets
A

C. Minimal gut flora

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21
Q 
21. A 9 months old, non-neutered female ferret has alopecia, but her skin is intact. Which causes is the most likely?
A. Insulinoma
B. Ovarian-remnant syndrome
C. Adrenal Gland Disease Complex 
D. Prolonged oestrous
A

D. Prolonged oestrous

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22
Q
  1. A four years after the neutering. Which cause is the most likely?
    spayed female ferret has vulvar swelling, alopecia (intact skin)
    A. Insulinoma
    B. Ovarian-remnant syndrome
    C. Adrenal Gland Disease Complex
    D. Prolonged oestrous
A

C. Adrenal Gland Disease Complex

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23
Q
  1. Prolonged oestrus in ferrets…
    A. …will disappear when the heat ends
    B. …will lead to parthenogenesis
    C. …can cause the death of the animal, because of the suppression
    of the bone-marrow function
    D. …can cause the death of the animal, because it induces adrenal gland tumour
A

C. …can cause the death of the animal, because of the suppression
of the bone-marrow function

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24
Q
  1. Which is true for the ovary of birds?
    A. Only exists on the left side
    B. Only exists on the right side
    C. Both sides are the same
    D. Ovulation only to the left oviduct from both ovaries
A

A. Only exists on the left side

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25
Q
  1. Which is false for the nutrition of parrots?
    A. Based on sunflower-seeds causes nutritional imbalances
    B. Pulses and tropical fruits can be added to the food
    C. The nutrition based on commercial pellets can cause addiction and nutritional imbalances
    D. Feeding seeds with high fat content can cause hepatic disease
A

C. The nutrition based on commercial pellets can cause addiction and nutritional imbalances

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26
Q 
26. Which one you must not miss, while examining a bird?
A. Body temperature
B. Palpation of the pulse
C. Breathing rate
D. Observing the uropygeal gland
A

C. Breathing rate

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27
Q

Which is true for polyuria in birds?
A. Excreting much yellowish urine allows easy diagnosis
B. It is easy to differentiate from diarrhoea, because birds do not excrete urine
C. It can only be differentiated from diarrhoea with lab work
D. It is difficult to differentiate from diarrhoea, because birds do not excrete urine

A

A. Excreting much yellowish urine allows easy diagnosis

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28
Q
  1. Spaying of the legs appears in a juvenile African grey parrot. What to do next?
    A. Careful neurologic examination, vaccination of all birds against Marek-disease
    B. Measuring uric-acid level, ultrasonography of the kidneys
    C. X-ray to exclude rachitis
    D. Biotin supplementation
A

C. X-ray to exclude rachitis

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29
Q
  1. You take a swab-sample from the crop for Trichomonas examination. What do you do with the sample?
    A. Put it in transport medium and put it in the fridge
    B. Put it in transport medium, and keep it on room temperature
    C. Make a smear sample and fixate it
    D. Examine a native smear directly
A

D. Examine a native smear directly

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30
Q
  1. What is/are the best sites of venepuncture in birds?
    A. Vena caudalis tibialis and vena cephalica
    B. Sinus venous occipitalis
    C. Vena jugularis and vena cutanea ulnaris
    D. Vena medialis metatarsalis
A

C. Vena jugularis and vena cutanea ulnaris

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31
Q
  1. How is the erythrocyte morphology in birds?
    A. Oval cells, dark nucleus, homologous abundant cytoplasm
    B. Round cells, without nucleus, homologous abundant cytoplasm
    C. Square cells, oval nucleus, and small amount of homologous cytoplasm
    D. Huge, amoeboid cells, small amount of homologous cytoplasm
A

A. Oval cells, dark nucleus, homologous abundant cytoplasm

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32
Q
  1. What is typical for creatinine in birds?
    A. It has no clinical significance
    B. It is sensitive to kidney damage
    C. After kidney damage it elevates earlier than urea
    D. Even if it has no clinical significance, you should measure it in
    every case
A

D. Even if it has no clinical significance, you should measure it in
every case

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33
Q
  1. What is/are the cause(s) if the feather plucking syndrome?
    A. Boredom only
    B. Boredom and Ectoparasites only
    C. Only psychiatric causes
    D. Lots of infectious and non-infectious causes
A

D. Lots of infectious and non-infectious causes

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34
Q
  1. The main symptom of liver damage in birds are…
    A. Greenish urates, ascites and abnormal beak/nails
    B. Abdominal pain and pruritus
    C. Regurgitation and CNS signs
    D. Fever and increased appetite
A

A. Greenish urates, ascites and abnormal beak/nails

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35
Q
  1. What are hepatoprotectants in birds?
    A. Ursodeoxycholic acid, lactulose, metronidazole
    B. Ursodeoxycholic acid, famotidine, sucralfate
    C. Ursodeoxycholic acid, S-adenosylmethionine, silymarin, vitamin E
    D. Ursodeoxycholic acid, ciproheptadin, chloramphenicol
A

C. Ursodeoxycholic acid, S-adenosylmethionine, silymarin, vitamin E

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36
Q
  1. The course of treatment of kidney disease is…
    A. Fluid therapy, ciproheptadin, melatonin
    B. Fluid therapy, silimarin, metrondiasole
    C. Fluid therapy, ketofen, gentamycin
    D. Fluid therapy, allopurinol, omega-3 fatty acids, vitamin A
A

D. Fluid therapy, allopurinol, omega-3 fatty acids, vitamin A

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37
Q 
37. Etiology of avian tuberculosis...
A. Yersinia pseudotuberculosis
B. Mycobacterium avium
C. Mycobacterium tuberculosis
D. Mycobacterium bovis
A

B. Mycobacterium avium

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38
Q 
38. Possible treatment of megabacteriosis? 
A. Amphotericin b
B. Metronidazole
C. Fenbendazole
D. Enrofloxacin
A

A. Amphotericin b

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39
Q
  1. What is the etiology of Macaw wasting disease (PDD)?
    A. Intestinal hypomotility
    B. Degeneration of the ganglions in the wall of the proventriculus
    C. Less activity of the pancreatic enzymes
    D. Fungal infection of the gastrointestinal tract
A

B. Degeneration of the ganglions in the wall of the proventriculus

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40
Q 
40. Which is false?
A. Snakes are shedding periodically
B. Lizard are shedding periodically
C. Ceratophagia is physiological in lizards
D. There is no shedding in turtles
A

D. There is no shedding in turtles

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41
Q
  1. The nutrition of tortoises is based on…
    A. Lettuce and tomatoes
    B. Plants and flowers collected in the garden
    C. Banana
    D. Fruits
A

B. Plants and flowers collected in the garden

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42
Q
  1. Which is false for the hibernation of Hermann’s tortoise?
    A. It needs water during hibernation
    B. The ideal temperature is 4-8 degrees celsius
    C. It is only recommended for breeders
    D. High fibre diet is optimal before hibernation
A

C. It is only recommended for breeders

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43
Q 
43. Where to give great amount of fluid to a turtle?
A. Intracoelomial
B. Vena jugularis, through IV catheter
C. Subcutaneously to the hind legs
D. Subcutaneously to the front legs
A

A. Intracoelomial

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44
Q 
44.  osteodystrophia?
Which is not connected with the etiology of nutritive
A. Low calcium diet
B. Vitamin D deficiency
C. High potassium diet
D. High phosphorus diet
A

C. High potassium diet

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45
Q
  1. Which is important in the pathogenesis of vitamin A deficiency?
    A. Enterocyte proliferation
    B. Metaplasia in the surface of the mucous membranes
    C. Pathological fat infiltration in the liver
    D. Necrosis in the renal tubuli
A

B. Metaplasia in the surface of the mucous membranes

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46
Q
  1. How to treat otitis media in turtles?
    A. No treatment, it disappears spontaneously sooner or later
    B. Surgical debridement, antibiotics
    C. Eardrops
    D. Systemic antibiotic treatment based on sensitivity
A

B. Surgical debridement, antibiotics

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47
Q 
47. Follicular stasis in a green iguana can be treated with...
A. Synthetic progestagens
B. Surgery
C. Optimal husbandry
D. Calcium + oxytocine injection
A

B. Surgery

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48
Q 
48. Which characteristic of reptiles can affect negatively the success of a surgical procedure?
A. Great resistance against hypoxia
B. Low blood pressure
C. Small total blood volume
D. Great resistance against infections
A

C. Small total blood volume

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49
Q 
49. Which can cause stomatitis in tortoises?
A. Herpes virus infection
B. Ophiomyssus natricis infection
C. Iron toxicosis
D. Too hot feeding place
A

A. Herpes virus infection

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50
Q
  1. What can you see in a turtle patient with wet shell rot?
    A. Reddish-brownish drawing like areas on the plastron
    B. Blue colour on the plastron
    C. Green and purple drawing on the plastron
    D. Nothing, it is symptomless
A

A. Reddish-brownish drawing like areas on the plastron

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51
Q 
51. What is the etiology of hypertrophic gastritis in snakes?
A. Iridovirus infection
B. Cryptosporidium serpentis
C. Rhabdias sp. infection
D. Unknown
A

B. Cryptosporidium serpentis

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52
Q
  1. Symptoms of the RNS disease are…
    A. Upper respiratory infection with nasal discharge
    B. Diarrhoea, inflammation in the cloaca
    C. Arthritis, limb weakness
A

A. Upper respiratory infection with nasal discharge

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53
Q
  1. Which can cause pneumonia vermiosa?
    A. Rhabdias sp.
    B. Kalicephalus sp.
    C. Oxyuris sp.
A

A. Rhabdias sp.

54
Q
  1. What is a possible treatment of septicaemia in turtles?
    A. Vitamin C
    B. Ivermectin
    C. Enrofloxacin
A

C. Enrofloxacin

55
Q
  1. Why should we protect the integrity of the plumage of an injured bird?
    A. Because of animal welfare reasons
    B. This is the only way if we want a successful release to the wild
    C. If the plumage is damaged abnormal behaviour starts (automutilation, feather pecking)
A

C. If the plumage is damaged abnormal behaviour starts (automutilation, feather pecking)

56
Q
  1. Which is false? When the neurological examination of the bird takes place…
    A. The loss of pain perception means a fair prognosis
    B. The judgement of the pain perception must be the last act C. The loss of pain perception means a very weak prognosis
A

A. The loss of pain perception means a fair prognosis

57
Q
  1. The treatment of lead intoxication can be carried out with…
    A. Ca-EDTA, D-penicillamin
    B. Ca-EDTA, atropine
    C. D-penicillamin, atropine
A

A. Ca-EDTA, D-penicillamin

58
Q
  1. Which statement is true? Atropin can be given “routinely” for intoxicated birds, if…
    A. Lead intoxication is suspected
    B. Copper intoxication is suspected
    C. Organic phosphate intoxication is suspected
A

C. Organic phosphate intoxication is suspected

59
Q
  1. Which method would you choose in a zoo for interventions with serious pain?
    A. Neuroleptanalgesia
    B. Standing sedation
    C. Physical restraint
A

A. Neuroleptanalgesia

60
Q
  1. Which statement is true about primates?
    A. Keeping of them must be avoided, because of zoonosis
    B. Because of the risk of zoonosis, personal safety must get a high
    priority
    C. Because of the risk of zoonosis, certain species can be treated only in
    protection masks and spectacles
A

B. Because of the risk of zoonosis, personal safety must get a high
priority

61
Q
  1. What are causes of metabolic bone disease?
A

Deficiency of calcium, phosphorus and vitamin D3, poor husbandry and lack of UVB- light

62
Q
  1. What are the symptoms of metabolic bone disease?
A

Lethargy, reluctance of movement, difficulty in lifting body off the ground, ataxia, paresis and paralysis of hindlimbs, weight loss and softening, swelling and deformities of bones (e.g. soft mandibles)

63
Q
  1. According to CITES, what appendix does tortoise belong to?
A

Appendix II (or B)

64
Q
  1. How to sex determine grey parrot?
A

Endoscopy and DNA

65
Q
  1. Which mite is found on the beak of the bird?
A

Knemidocoptes pilae (Scaly face mites)

66
Q
  1. Which statement is true regarding the scent glands?
A

Castration greatly reduces the smell

67
Q
  1. What is atheroma?
A

Reversible accumulation of degenerative material in the inner layer of an artery wall

68
Q
  1. How can you treat atheroma?
A

Only surgery is possible

69
Q
  1. Why is Xylazine contraindicated in rabbits?
A

It decreases the motility of the gut, and do not give in case of heart disease (causes higher heart rate)

70
Q
  1. What are other consequence of long hibernation?
A

Exication, severe weight loss, frost Injuries and bite injuries in rats and mice

71
Q
  1. How to reduce the smell of the ferrets?
A

Castration or neutering

72
Q
  1. How to diagnose Encephalitozoonosis?
A

With the clinical signs (neurological, renal and opthalmologic signs)

73
Q
  1. What is usually contraindicated in birds during x-ray?
A

A grid

74
Q
  1. When can you see seeds in faeces of parrot?
A

When there is lack of grit

75
Q
  1. Ferrent enzymes (ALT, AST) liver specific, or not?
A

liver specific

76
Q
  1. How to open a lizard for a coeliotomy?
A

Paramedian incision

77
Q
  1. What are the signs of stomatitis in snake and gecko?
A

Excessive salivation, anorexia, weight loss, lethargy, lower respiratory tract disease and blocked nasolacrimal ducts

78
Q
  1. When do you need to do a liver biopsy?
A

In case of Mycobacterium infection and conditions unresponsive to therapy

79
Q
  1. What are the wrong statement regarding Epizootic catarrhal enteritis?
A

High mortality and low morbidity

80
Q
  1. What is the perfect cage size for a bird?
A

The bigger the better, minimum x 3 the wingspan. Smoke free, not windy, never next to household appliances, uncovered stainless steel and wire thickness (for Macaw 2-4 mm), and density (finches) is important

81
Q
  1. What are the anatomy parts of the turtle shell?
A

Keratinised, hard shell (living bone tissue), lower shell (Plastron), upper shell (carapax), spinal column, shoulder blades, ribs, hipbone, scales and shields

82
Q
  1. Which bone part is missing from the turtles?
A

No breastbone

83
Q
  1. What is the cause of proventriculcus dilation syndrome?
A

Bornavirus (damages the nerves of the proventriculus)

84
Q
  1. What are the clinical signs of proventriculus dilation syndrome?
A

Anorexia, weight loss, delayed crop emptying and CNS signs (ataxia and seizures)

85
Q
  1. What is the most important parameter to check in a bird?
A

Respiratory rate incase they have dyspnoea

86
Q
  1. Diagnosis of rabbit hemorrhagic disease?
A

Calicivirus after 4-5 weeks of age, systemic disease with fast progression, high morbidity and mortality, fever, lethargy, respiratory signs and sudden death. Pulmonary hemorrhages and catharral enteritis with paler liver due to hepatocyte necrosis. Vaccinate against it, diagnosis: mainly with autopsy for the pale friable liver and black speen, plus diffuse hemorrhages, also reverse trascriptase polymerase chain reaction, ELISA and Western blot

87
Q
  1. C-section is contraindicated in which rodent?
A

Guinea pig (preventing dystocia)

88
Q
  1. How to handle a frog?
A

By washing your hands thoroughly before and after and if you have to wear gloves, wear latex free and powder free (basically everything free as their skin absorbs everything), or use a wet sponge or wet rag to hold the animal

89
Q
  1. Penis prolaps is most common in which species?
A

Turtle and degu/chinchilla

90
Q
  1. With a suspected shoulder injury what tests should you do?
A

Physical examination and x-ray

91
Q
  1. Parameter of blood to measure regarding uricosis in birds?
A

Check for uric acid level in blood twice in fasted and dehydrated bird

92
Q
  1. Which are the blood parameters of the ferret?
A
  • Venipuncture sites: V. cava cranialis, V. jugularis and V. Cephalica
  • Haematology (EDTA tube)
  • Clinical chemistry: (Li-heparin tube), AST, CK, ALT, GGT, bilirubin, amylase, glucose, urea, creatinin, Ca and P
93
Q
  1. Which drug to maintain pain relief intra-opertive?
A

Fentanyl, Tiletamin, Ketamin, Medetomidine, Droperidol and Fluanison

94
Q
  1. How to not sedate a reptile?
A

Put the reptiles in the refrigerator

95
Q
  1. During rabbit surgery, which one do you not put in?
A

Cerclage

96
Q
  1. What is Rhabdias infection?
A

Rhabdias Hylae is a lungworm of toads and frogs that causes pneumonia (adults in the lungs secrete eggs into the GI tract, coelomic tract and lymph spaces)

97
Q
  1. What is the minimum weight a hedgehog can be accommodated?
A

<700g if adult, 450g if growing, and suckling 100-130g

98
Q
  1. Age for breeding guinea pig?
A

Has to be 6 months and >650g

99
Q
  1. What is “Bumblefoot”?
A

Ulcerative pododermatitis (bacterial infection & inflammatory and reaction on the feet of birds, rodents & rabbits)

100
Q
  1. What is specific or sensitive to the liver?
A

AST sensitive, but not specific

101
Q
  1. How to diagnose Encephalitozoon cuniculi?
A

Serology, anamnesis, x-ray and CT

102
Q
  1. In case of dystocia in turtle, what should you not do?
A

Give paraffin oil per os

103
Q
  1. Antibiotic suitable for Per os use in rodents?
A

Fluoroquinolons, Sulfonamids, Chloramphenicol and Metronidazol

104
Q
  1. Infectious causes of kidney disease in birds?
A
  • Viral: Corona, birna, astro, entero
  • Bacterial: E.coli, staphylococcus, actinomyces, chlamydohili
  • Fungal: Aspergillus
  • Parasitic: Eimeria, sarcocystitis, cryptosporidium
105
Q

Which of the following species belongs to medium sized parrots

A

Nanday

106
Q

Which of the following species has a true winter sleep

A

Hedgehog

107
Q

At what temperature cannot hedgehogs be kept in captivity

A

8-16 (will be lethargic)

108
Q

How many times a day do you feed hedgehogs in captivity

A

once a day (evening)

109
Q

What is true for hand reared birds

A

Bond to people

110
Q

Animal which prefers sunflower seeds

A

Large to medium parrots

111
Q

Animal which prefers millet seeds

A

Budgerigar

112
Q

What is French moult

A

Loss of flight feathers

113
Q

Which adult reptile is omnivorous

A

Red eared slider (young is carnivore, adult is omnivore)

114
Q

What vitamin deficiency is common in turtles

A

Vit. A deficiency

115
Q

Which of the following are causes of MBD

A

…

116
Q

CITES, tortoise what annex does it belong to

A

B

117
Q

Soft food mix, to whom do you add it

A

parrot, finches

118
Q

Animal fed mainly rapeseed

A

canary

119
Q

At what age are female ostriches sexually mature

A

18-20 months (20-24 male)

120
Q

Something about feeding lizards

A

Ans. Has to do with dandelion

121
Q

How many times are adult lizards fed

A

2-4 times per week (young 4-5 times)

122
Q

How many times are adult corn snakes fed

A

Every 10-14 days/ Large sp: 3-4 weeks

123
Q

Which species eat 10% honey and pollen, ripe fruits

A

Day geckos

124
Q

Which species can be microchipped

A

Hermann tortoise (Spp. Names were given…I think tortoises can be microchipped acc. To CITES)

125
Q

Animals that reproduce in April

A

Hedgehog and squirrel

126
Q

How much does an ostrich weigh at slaughter

A

130-150kg

127
Q

What is the Utrecht Method

A

Gradual introduction of feed

128
Q

Tortoise species that needs 10% animal-origin feed

A

Red-footed tortoise

129
Q

Which of the following is not an omnivore

A

Blue-tongued skink(yes), Bearded dragon (yes), Leopard gecko (carnivore), Tegu(yes), veiled chameleon (yes)

130
Q

Which of the following is in the turtle’s diet

A

Fish, shrimp, veg OR meat, fish OR

Avian and exotic (4 decks)

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