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Pharmacology > Autonomic Pharmacology > Flashcards

Autonomic Pharmacology Flashcards

1
Q

Primary transmitter in all autonomic ganglia and at the synapses bet parasympathetic postganglionic neurons and their effector cells

A

Acetylcholine

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2
Q

What is the enzyme used in the synthesis of Ach from acetyl coa and choline?

A

Choline acetyltransferase (ChAT)

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3
Q

Choline transport is inhibited by?

A

Hemicholinium

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4
Q

ACh transport into vesicle for storage is mediated by?

A

Vesamicol

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5
Q

At what step in Ach pathway does Botulinum toxins affect?

A

Step 3: Release (alter synaptobrevin to prevent release of ACh)

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6
Q

Degradation of ACh into choline and acetate is mediated by?

A

Acetylcholinesterase

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7
Q

What indirect acting cholinomimetics inhibits step 4 of ACh pathway?

A

Neostigmine, Carbamates, Organophosphates

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8
Q

Betanechol is under what class of drug?

A

Cholinomimetic (direct, muscarinic)

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9
Q

Bladder and bowel atony ( post surgical/spinal)

A

Betanechol

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10
Q

Cevilemine is under what drug class?

A

Pilocarpine

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11
Q

What is the MOA of Pilocarpine?

A

Muscarinic M3 receptors in ciliary muscle and salivary glands

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12
Q

What is the triad of Sjogren Syndrome?

A

xerostomia, xeropthalmia, rheumatoid arthritis

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13
Q

What is the MOA of Nicotine?

A

Activate Ach receptors (Nn/ Nm)

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14
Q

What is the MOA of Edrophonium?

A

Inhibition of acetylcholinesterase; amplify endogenously released acetylcholine

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15
Q

What is the test used to diagnose Myasthenia gravis?

A

Tensilon test

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16
Q

What is the primary use of edrophonium?

A

Myasthenia gravis

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17
Q

The reversal of neuromuscular blockade is done with the use of what drug?

A

Neostigmine

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18
Q

Muscarinic effects of neostigmine are blocked by?

A

Atropine

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19
Q

Donepezil, Galantamine, and Tacrine are related to what drug?

A

Rivastigmine

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20
Q

Rivastigmine is used for what disease?

A

Alzheimers Disease

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21
Q

Organophosphate poisoning S/Sx:

A

DUMBBELSS: Diarrhea, Urination, Miosis, Bronchospasm, Bradycardia, Excitation, Lacrimation, Sweating, Salivation

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22
Q

What are the two drugs used for organophosphate poisoning?

A

Atropine and Pralidoxime

23
Q

What antidote for organophosphate poisoning is a cholinesterase regenerator?

A

Pralidoxime

24
Q

Why is Pralidoxime given 6-8 hours after exposure to pesticides?

A

Aging of organophosphate bond with cholinesterase

25
Q

What is the MOA of Atropine?

A

Competitively blocks all muscarinic receptors

26
Q

What cholinergic drug is used for Parkinson’s disease?

A

Benztropine

27
Q

What are three muscarinic antagonists used for Parkinson’s disease?

A

Trihexyphenidyl, Benztropine, Biperiden

28
Q

What is the MOA of Ipratropium?

A

block muscarinic receptor in bronchial smooth muscle, prevent vagal stimulated bronchoconstriction

29
Q

Why is ipratropium used in COPD patients?

A

less to cause tachycardia and cardiac arrythmia

30
Q

What cholinergic antagonist drug is used for motion sickness?

A

Scopolamine

31
Q

What is the MOA of dicyclomine?

A

competitively blocks M3 receptor (selective)

32
Q

Atropine Toxicity?

A

Mad Hatter: hyperthermia, decreased sensation, cutaneous vasodilation, loss of accomodation, psychosis

33
Q

What cholinergic antagonist causes postural hypotension?

A

Hexamethonium

34
Q

Examples of nondepolarizing neuromuscular blockers?

A

Tubocuraraine, Pancuronium, Atracurium, Vecuronium

35
Q

Example of depolarizing neuromuscular blockers?

A

Succinylcholine

36
Q

Norepinephrine is the primary transmitter at sympathetic postganglionic neuron effector cell synapses except for?

A

(1) eccrine sweat glands; (2) vasodilator sympathetic fibers in skeletal muscle

37
Q

Norepinephrine pathway: what inhibits tyrosine hydroxylation in step 1?

A

Metyrosine

38
Q

What inhibits norepinephrine and dopamine transport into vesicles?

A

Monoamine oxidase (cytoplasm)

39
Q

What inhibits vesicular transport in Step 2 of NE pathway?

A

Reserpine

40
Q

What inhibits NE release in Step 3?

A

Guanethedine

41
Q

What promotes release of NE in Step 3?

A

Amphetamines and Tyramine

42
Q

What inhibits diffusion and reuptake via NET and DAT in synaptic clefts?

A

Cocaine and TCA

43
Q

Examples of COMT inhibitors?

A

tolcapone and entecapone

44
Q

What sympathomimetics the last line for cardiogenic shock?

A

Norepinephrine

45
Q

Common side effect of phenylephrine?

A

Rebound nasal congestion

46
Q

What is given for rebound hypertension?

A

Phentolamine

47
Q

What nonselective alpha blockers are used for pheochromocytoma?

A

Phenoxybenzamine, Phentolamine, Tolazoline

48
Q

What 2 drugs (adrenergic, nonselective alpha blockers) used as antidote to alpha 1 agonist overdose?

A

Phentolamine and Tolazoline

49
Q

What adrenergic antagonist is selective for prostatic smooth muscles?

A

Tamsulosin

50
Q

Common side effect of phentolamine and tolazoline?

A

reflex tachycardia

51
Q

Nonselective beta blockers used for glaucoma?

A

Timolol and Betaxolol

52
Q

What 2 drugs, similar to propanolol, has alpha and beta effects?

A

Labetalol and Carvedilol

53
Q

Two examples of beta blockers with ISA?

A

Pindolol and Acebutol

54
Q

What selective beta 1 blocker used for supraventricular tachycardia?

A

Esmolol

Pharmacology (4 decks)

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