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pharacology > Autonomic Nervous System > Flashcards

Autonomic Nervous System Flashcards

1
Q

Somatic Neuronal Set-up

A

1

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2
Q

Somatic activities

A

voluntary

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3
Q

Somatic Effector organ

A

Skeletal muscles

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4
Q

Autonomic Neuronal SEt-up

A

2

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5
Q

Autonomic activities

A

involuntary

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6
Q

Autonomic Effector organ

A

cardiac
smooth muscles
sweat glands
Renal vascular smooth muscle

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7
Q

SANS

A

Sympathetic

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8
Q

PANS

A

Parasympathetic

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9
Q

SANS other name

A

Adrenergic

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10
Q

PANS other name

A

Cholinergic

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11
Q

SANS origin

A

thoracolumbar

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12
Q

SANS pre-ganglionic fiber

A

short

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13
Q

SANS Post- ganglionic fiber

A

long

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14
Q

SANS location of ganglia

A

near the spinal cord

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15
Q

SANS neurotransmitter at ganglia

A

Acetylcholine

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16
Q

SANS neorotransmitter at innervated organ

A

Cathecolamines
-Epinephrine
-norepinephrine
-dopamine

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17
Q

SANS receptor at ganglia

A

Nicotinic Neural

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18
Q

SANS Receptors at innervated organ

A

Adrenergic receptor
alpha receptor
beta receptor
dopamine

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19
Q

PANS origin

A

craniosac

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20
Q

PANS Pre-ganglionic fiber

A

long

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21
Q

PANS post-ganglionic fiber

A

short

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22
Q

PANS location

A

near effector organ

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23
Q

PANS neurotransmitter at ganglia

A

Acetylcholine

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24
Q

PANS neurotransmitter at innervated organ

A

Acetylcholine

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25
Q

PANS receptor at ganglia

A

Nicotinic neural

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26
Q

PANS receptors at innervated organ

A

Nicotinic Muscarine

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27
Q

Consists of a network of autonomic nerves located in the gut wall that regulates GI motility and secretion.
→ Innervated by SANS and PANS

A

ENTERIC NERVOUS SYSTEM

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28
Q

SANS general response

A

“Fight, Flight, and Fright”

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29
Q

SANS response in Heart

A

Tachycardia

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30
Q

SANS response in Pupils

A

Mydriasis

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31
Q

SANS response in Bronchioles

A

Bronchodilation

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32
Q

SANS response in Gastrointestinal

A

Ileus

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33
Q

SANS response in Gastrointestinal Walls

A

Relax

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34
Q

SANS response in Gastrointestinal Spincter

A

Contract

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35
Q

SANS response in urinary bladder

A

Retention

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36
Q

SANS response in urinary bladder walls

A

Relax

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37
Q

SANS response in urinary bladder spinchter

A

Contract

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38
Q

PANS response in heart

A

Bradycardia

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39
Q

PANS response in Pupils

A

Miosis

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40
Q

PANS response in Brochioles

A

Bronchoconstriction

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41
Q

PANS response in Gastrointestinal

A

Defecation

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42
Q

PANS response in Gastrointestinal walls

A

Contract

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43
Q

PANS response in Gastrointestinal spinchter

A

Relax

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44
Q

PANS response in Urinary bladder

A

Urination

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45
Q

PANS response in Urinary bladder walls

A

Contract

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46
Q

PANS response in Urinary bladder spinchter

A

Relax

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47
Q

Asthma

A

treat by SANS

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48
Q

Hypertention

A

treated by PANS

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49
Q

Describes the transmission of impulse across the Interphase

A

SYNAPTIC NEUROTRANSMISSION

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50
Q

e area of connection between 2 neurons or a neuron and the effector organ.

A

Interphase

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51
Q

PANS general response

A

Rest and Digest

52
Q

BIOSYNTHESIS OF CATECHOLAMINES
Location

A

Sympathetic post-ganglionic neuron
2. Adrenal medulla (chromaffin cells)
3. Central Nervous System

53
Q

Fate of Catecholamines:

A

Bind to receptors
2. Metabolized by Monoamine Oxidase (MAO)
3. Reuptake

54
Q

→ responsible for the major loss of catecholamine
from the cleft.
→ goes back to the pre-synapse.

A

Reuptake

55
Q

metabotropic receptors (secondary messenger release of cAMP, cGMP, IP3, and DAG).

A

ADRENERGIC RECEPTORS

56
Q

present in post ganglionic neuron

A

Cathecolamines

57
Q

decrease sympathethic activity of SANS

A

Monoamine oxidase (MAO)

58
Q

Stimulatory effect on Adenylyl Cyclase Increase cAMP

A

Gs

59
Q

Inhibitory effect on Adenylyl Cyclase Decrease cAMP

A

Gi

60
Q

Activation will synthesize DAG and IP3.
release Phospholipase C which Release of calcium from SR

A

Gq

61
Q

True or false:
Gs stimulation leads to smooth muscle contraction.

A

False

62
Q

True or false:
Gi stimulation leads to smooth muscle relaxation.

A

True

63
Q

True or false:
Gs antagonism leads to smooth muscle contraction.

A

True

64
Q

cGMP stimulates MLC phosphorylation.

A

False

65
Q

cAMP inhibits MLC phosphorylation.

A

True

66
Q

Gs stimulation leads to heart contraction.

A

True

67
Q

Antagonism of β receptors leads to heart contraction.

A

False

68
Q

Both β-receptors are Gs -linked receptors.

A

True

69
Q

α1 Gq-linked response in Vascular smooth muscle

A

Vasoconstriction

70
Q

α1 Gq-linked response in Urinary bladder

A

Retention

71
Q

α1 Gq-linked response in Radial muscle of iris

A

mydriasis

72
Q

α1 Gq-linked response in Pilomotor smooth muscle

A

Contraction

73
Q

α2 Pre-synaptic: Gi-linked response in CNS

A

Inhibition of further release of
catecholamines.

74
Q

α2 Post-synaptic: Gq-linked response in Peripheral blood vessels

A

Vasoconstriction

75
Q

β1 Gs-linked response in Heart

A

(+) Inotropy
(+) Chronotropy
(+) Dromotropy

76
Q

β1 Gs-linked response in Juxtaglomerular apparatus

A

Release of Renin

77
Q

β2 Gs-linked response in Bronchioles

A

Bronchodilation

78
Q

β2 Gs-linked response in Uterine muscles

A

Uterine relaxation

79
Q

β2 Gs-linked response in Blood vessels

A

Vasodilation

80
Q

β2 Gs-linked response in Neuromuscular endplates

A

Hypokalemia

81
Q

β2 Gs-linked response in Liver

A

Glycogenolysis

82
Q

β3 Gs-linked response in Adipose tissues

A

Lipolysis

83
Q

D1 Gs-linked response in Renal Blood Vessels

A

Renal vasodilation

84
Q

D2 Gi-linked response in GIT
CNS Modulation of motor activity
Perception and behavior.

A

Loss of peristalsis

85
Q

D2 Gi-linked response in CNS

A

Modulation of motor activity Perception and behavior.

86
Q

stimulates more than one (1) general type of adrenergic receptor.
vasopressors; used in the treatment of shock states.

A

Non-Selective Agonists

87
Q

First-line cardiac stimulant

A

EPINEPHRINE Aka: Adrenaline

88
Q

→ vasoconstrictor to reduce bleeding during
surgery.
→ added to local anesthetics to prolong its
action

A

Local vasoconstrictor (1:200 000)

89
Q

→ counteracts the effects of histamine as a
physiological antagonist

A

Anaphylactic shock (1:1000 dose)

90
Q

First-line in the management of septic shock
* Hypotension due to excessive doses of vasodilators

A

NOREPINEPHRINE
Aka: Noradrenaline, Levarterenol

91
Q

Management of cardiogenic shock.
* Management of septic shock.

A

DOPAMINE

92
Q

Does not contain a catechol moiety, hence, are not
substrates for COMT and MAO.
→ Effective after oral administration and relatively have
longer duration of action than catecholamines.

A

NON-CATECHOLAMINES

93
Q

Selective Alpha-1 Agonists

A

PHENYLEPHRINE
OXYMETAZOLINE
PROPYLHEXEDRINE
TETRAHYDROZOLINE
NAFAZOLINE
MIDODRINE

94
Q

Selective Alpha-1 Agonists

A

PHENYLEPHRINE
OXYMETAZOLINE
PROPYLHEXEDRINE
TETRAHYDROZOLINE
NAFAZOLINE
MIDODRINE

95
Q

Selective Alpha-1 Agonists Indications

A

Nasal congestion
Local vasoconstrictor

96
Q

Agents are clinically used to normalize blood pressure in
patients with hypertension.
→ Acts by reducing sympathetic tone in the CNS.
→ Most common side effect is sedation.

A

Selective Alpha-2 Agonists (CNS)

97
Q

Selective Alpha-2 Agonists (CNS)

A

Clonidine (catapress) and methyldopa

98
Q

FDA-approved agent in the management of
hypertension in pregnant women.

A

methyldopa - prodrug

99
Q

Non-Selective Beta Agonist

A

Isoproterenol Aka: Isoprenaline

100
Q

Isoproterenol indication

A

Alternative for shock states and acute heart
failure.
* Previously used to treat bronchial asthma.

101
Q

Selective Beta-1 Agonist

A

DOBUTAMINE

102
Q

First-line agent in the management of
cardiogenic shock (increases cardiac output and
stroke volume).
* Management of acute heart failure (as an
inotropic agent).

A

DOBUTAMINE

103
Q

Short-Acting Beta-2 Agonists

A

SALBUTAMOL
TERBUTALINE

104
Q

Long-Acting Beta-2 Agonists

A

FORMOTEROL
SALMETEROL
INDACATEROL
PIRBUTEROL

105
Q

Hypertensive Drugs for pregnant patient

A

LAbetalol
Nifedipine
Hydralazine
Methylopa

106
Q

Selective Alpha-2 Agonists (CNS)

A

METHYLDOPA
GUANFACINE
GUANABENZ
MOXONIDINE
RILMENIDINE

107
Q

Tocolytics

A

ISOXSUPRINE
TERBUTALINE
RITODRINE

108
Q

used in labor before 37th week of
gestation

A

Tocolytics

109
Q

Dopamine-1 Agonist

A

FENOLDOPAM Alternative in the management of hypertension.

110
Q

Dopamine-2 Agonists

A

LEVODOPA
CABERGOLINE
BROMOCRIPTINE

111
Q

Dopamine-2 Agonists indication

A

Parkinson Disease
Hyperprolactinemia

112
Q

Acts by Increasing Release of Catecholamines
Catecholamines Reuptake Inhibition

A

SYMPATHOMIMETICS (Indirect-Acting)

113
Q

treatment of asthma
exacerbations

A

SABA

114
Q

treatment of asthma
PREVENTION

A

LABA

115
Q

AMPHETAMINE
PHENTERMINE
PHENMETRAZINE
PHENYLPROPANOLAMINE
indication

A

Anorexia - eating disorder

116
Q

METHYLPHENIDATE - Ritalin

A

ADHD

117
Q

MODAFINIL

A

Narcolepsy

118
Q

Tyramine

A

produced in high concentration in protein-rich
foods by decarboxylation of tyrosine during
fermentation (cheese, cured meats, pickled food)

119
Q

inhibited by sartan

A

Angiotensin II

120
Q

treat venom present in jelly fish, toads, spider

A

Alpha-latro toxin

121
Q

Norepinephrine Reuptake Inhibitors

A

REBOXETINE
ATOMOXETINE

122
Q

inhibits dopamine reuptake in the pleasure centersof the brain.

A

COCAINE

123
Q

Monoamine Oxidase Inhibitors (MAOIs) indication

A

Depression

124
Q

SYMPATHOMIMETICS (Mixed-Acting)

A

EPHEDRINE
PSEUDOEPHEDRINE

125
Q

SYMPATHOMIMETICS (Mixed-Acting) Indications:

A

Nasal congestion
Bronchial asthma

126
Q

Any drug or substance that
acts to antagonize or inhibit
the effects of the sympathetic
system.

A

ADRENOCEPTOR ANTAGONISTS

pharacology (3 decks)

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