Automatic Flight Flashcards

1
Q

What do the three FCCs control?

A

Three separately hydraulically powered autopilot control servos to operate the flight controls

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2
Q

What flight controls does the autopilot control under normal conditions and during multiple autopilot approach?

A

Just the aileron and elevator under normal conditions and the rudder and nose wheel steering (during rollout) on multiple autopilot approach

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3
Q

Do the FCCs get separate electrical power sources during a multiple autopilot ILS approach?

A

Yes

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4
Q

What do the FCCs provide the AFDS inputs to for the ADI? (2)

A

Operating modes to display and also the flight director commands

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5
Q

How can the localiser and glideslope modes be deactivated after capture? (2)

A
  1. Disengage autopilot and turn both flight directors off

2. Select G/A mode

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6
Q

Two normal ways to disengage autopilot?

A

Either control wheel autopilot disengage switch or the MCP autopilot disengage bar

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7
Q

If an active AFDS mode fails what happens and is shown (4)

A
  1. autopilot remains engaged in an attitude stabilising mode
  2. amber line drawn through the mode annunciation
  3. Autopilot light illuminates
  4. EICAS caution message AUTOPILOT displays
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8
Q

When does F/D steering indication appear if the related F/D switch is off?

A

When the G/A switch is pushed, the airspeed is greater than 80kts, and the flaps are not retracted

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9
Q

What do the following ASA indications mean?

  1. LAND 3
  2. LAND 2
  3. NO LAND 3
  4. NO AUTOLAND
A
  1. LAND 3 - 3 autopilots engaged and operating normally for an autoland
  2. LAND 2 - AFDS redundancy reduced, in some cases only two autopilots available
  3. NO LAND 3 - indicates a fault condition exists which results in LAND 2 condition
  4. NO AUTOLAND - AFDS unable to make an automatic landing
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10
Q

Difference between fail operational and fail passive (LAND 3 vs LAND 2)

A
  • LAND 3 means the level of redundancy is such that a single fault cannot prevent the autopilot system from making an autoland (fail operational)
  • LAND 2 means the level of redundancy is such that a single fault cannot cause a significant deviation from the flight path (fail passive)
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11
Q

What happens to ASA below 200ft AGL and what does this mean?

A

The ASA cannot change to anything other than NO AUTOLAND. Faults not requiring crew action or awareness are annunciated after touchdown.

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12
Q

What thrust does autothrottle give during G/A? Also when both F/Ds and A/P are off?

A

2000ft per min ROC, or G/A reference thrust subject to flap and VMO limits

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13
Q

What distance within track does arming LNAV give immediate activation?

A

2.5nm

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14
Q

What heading does HDG HOLD hold?

A

Holds present heading or if in a turn it holds heading reached after rolling out.

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15
Q

Within how many degrees does the aFDS capture the LLZ?

A

120deg

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16
Q

When does G/A mode armed (2) and how can you tell it has armed?

A

Armed when flaps greater than up or at G/S capture. You can tell because thrust reference goes to G/A

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17
Q

What lateral guidance does the G/A mode give?

A

Maintain ground track and time of engagement

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18
Q

When does rollout arm and when is it active?

A

Armed below 1500ft AGL and activates below 5ft

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19
Q

When does rollout activate and what does it sue for lateral guidance?

A

Activates after touchdown and uses the LLZ for centreline control

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20
Q

How many degrees nose up does T/O mode give?

A

8 deg

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21
Q

After takeoff what does the T/O pitch bar provide? (3)

A
  • Pitch command of greater than V2+15 or lift off speed +15
  • If current airspeed remains above target speed for 5 seconds, target speed resents to current airspeed, to a maximum of V2+25
  • IF IAS/MACH window speed is changed to a speed greater than target speed
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22
Q

Where does AFDS get V2 speed prior to takeoff for F/D T/O pitch bar?

A

IAS/MACH speed window

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23
Q

What speed is commanded on pitch bar once G/A initiated and when does it change?

A
  • Commanded speed is either the MCP IAS/MACH window or current speed, whichever is higher
  • If airspeed increases above target speed for greater than 5 seconds then it is reset to current speed up to IAS/MACH window +25kts
  • If airspeed was already greater than IAS/MACH +25kts then that higher speed is maintained
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24
Q

When does VNAV ALT occur?

A

When there is a discrepancy between the NAV profile and the MCP altitude

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25
Q

When does VNAV SPD display?

A

When off VNAV path and gets its speed from either the ADI or CDU CLIMB or DESCENT pages. Also during speed intervention when MCP IAS/MACH manually sets the speed

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26
Q

When does RESET MPC ALTITUDE display?

A

When approaching TOD and MCP altitude set to current cruise altitude

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27
Q

When does FLARE arm, activate, and disengage?

A

Arms below 1500ft AGL during autoland, activates at 45ft radalt, deactivates at touchdown and the nose wheel smoothly lowers to the runway

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28
Q

Two systems in the automatic flight control system

A
  1. AFDS - Autopilot flight director system

2. A/T - Autothrottle

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29
Q

Is there sufficient gust protection from the autothrottles when at land flap and VREF+5?

A

Yes

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30
Q

Why in turbulent conditions does the autothrottle system generally hold a higher average speed than the command speed?

A

Because the autothrottle is quick to power on if speed below command speed, but slow to reduce power if above. Therefore, in turbulent conditions on average it holds a higher power than needed to hold command speed

31
Q

Three basic function of the Thrust Management Computer?

A
  1. calculate thrust limits and settings or follow FMC thrust settings
  2. detect and transmit autothrottle failures
  3. actuate the thrust levers
32
Q

If you move manually the throttles whilst the autothrottle is engaged what happens after you release the throttles?

A

They go back to where the autothrottles want them to comply with the engaged mode

33
Q

Two ways to disconnect the autothrottles?

A
  1. A/T arm switch to off

2. Pushing the A/T disconnect switch on the thrust lever

34
Q

When does A/T automatically disconnect? (2)

A
  1. If a fault occurs

2. When reverse thrust lever is raised to reverse idle

35
Q

At what speed does A/T go to THR HLD during takeoff?

A

80Kts

36
Q

When does THR HLD remain until after takeoff? (3)

A

When either a pitch mode, A/T mode, or thrust reference mode is selected.

37
Q

When do the remaining two autopilots arm for a multiple autopliot approach?

A

When the APP mode is armed

38
Q

What does the runway align sub mode do? Ho does it operate? (3)

A
  • Reduces the crab angle established during crosswind conditions prior to automatic landing
    1. actuated at 500ft when in LAND 2 or 3
    2. initiates a slip with a max bank angle of 2deg when crab angle exceeds 5deg
    3. wing levelling initiated when ROLLOUT mode is engaged
39
Q

How does FLARE submode operate? (2)

A
  • At 45ft FLARE engaged

- At 25ft thrust levers go to IDLE

40
Q

What do you need to note when operating in LAND 2 and the autopilots get disengaged at low level? In a go-around?

A

In LAND 2 at 330ft an amount of nose up trip is automatically added to help the FLARE mode. If the autopilots are disengaged then 20-30lbs of forward control column force may be needed to counteract the auto trim.
If a G/A is initiated the trim is automatically taken out so no force needed

41
Q

When does ROLLOUT engage?

A

Below 5ft

42
Q

When does A/T disengage automatically on ROLLOUT? How tell?

A

When thrust levers moved to reverse idle position. A/T DISC caution light and EICAS message and aural warnings are not activated

43
Q

Do the flight director bars come on when G/A activated and F/D switches are off?

A

Yes

44
Q

When does the G/A remain armed until?

A

2 sec after going below 5ft

45
Q

What happens if G/A pushed but aircraft been floating off the ground for more than 2 seconds?

A

Pitch mode will remain in FLARE and A/T go-around mode will engage

46
Q

If aircraft is on the ground but but has been less than 5ft for less than 2 seconds what happens when G/A pushed?

A

G/A pitch mode will engage but A/T will remain at idle

47
Q

How does flap setting affect thrust mode selection during a go-around?

A

For flaps 20 or less another thrust mode can be selected.

48
Q

What is the note regarding single autopilot go-arounds and elevator authority?

A

Elevator authority during a single autopilot go-around is limited (to reduce effects of autopilot malfunction) so there may be insufficient elevator authority to counteract pitch up caused by rapid application of full go-around thrust

49
Q

What does AFDS provide for pitch and roll modes in windshear recovery?

A

Normal roll mode as per G/A (ground track), and either 15deg nose up or pitch limit whichever is lower

50
Q

What limits are monitored automatically by the AFDS and TMC in all modes except V/S? (3)

A
  1. Flap limit speeds (FLAP LIM)
  2. Max angle of attack (ALPHA)
  3. Max speed (SPD LIM)
51
Q

What mode does the F/D first engage when F/D switch cycled to off then on in flight?

A

V/S and HDG HOLD

52
Q

Speed range of IAS/MACH window? (IAS and MACH)

A

Speed = 100-399kts, MACH = 0.40-0.95

53
Q

When does IAS/MACH change between IAS and MACH in climb and descent?

A
Climb = approx 0.80 Mach
Descent = approx 300KIAS
54
Q

What does LNAV do if it reaches the last active waypoint, passes the last waypoint in a DISCO, or passing last route offset waypoint?

A

Maintains current heading

55
Q

What automatically happens to HDG window on LLZ capture?

A

Goes to ILS front course

56
Q

What does AUTO bank angle selector do? (deg limit?)

A

Adjusts bank angle between 15-25deg depending on TAS (slow = 25, high = 15)

57
Q

Range of V/S display? (ft)

A

-8000fpm to +6000fpm

58
Q

Altitude window range?

A

0-50000ft

59
Q

What does pushing the altitude button during climb or descent do - with altitude constraints?

A

deletes the next waypoint constraint between the airplane altitude and the MCP altitude

60
Q

What does pushing the altitude button during climb - no altitude constraints and the MCP altitude window is above cruise altitude?

A

Changes cruise altitude to MCP altitude window value (i.e. new cruise alt)

61
Q

What altitude is flown when the ALT HOLD button is pushed?

A

The altitude at the time the button was pushed

62
Q

What is the note regards A/P roll manoeuvres after LLZ capture?

A

May compare inconsistent with F/D roll commands for 1-2 minutes after LLZ capture

63
Q

How can you disarm LLZ mode before it is captured? (2)

A
  1. push the LLZ switch a second time

2. arm LNAV

64
Q

How deactivate LLZ mode after LLZ capture? (3)

A
  1. Select a roll mode other than LNAV
  2. Push G/A switch
  3. Disengage A/P and turn both F/Ds off
65
Q

Angle must be within LLZ to get G/S capture?

A

Within 80 deg

66
Q

When do the other A/Ps automatically arm on APP?

A

Through 501500ft radalt and LLZ and G/S captured

67
Q

When does LAND 2 or 3 appear automatically?

A

When both LLZ and G/S are captured and below 1500ft radalt

68
Q

How long does the green box appear around AFDS and A/T mode changes?

A

10 sec

69
Q

What 3 warnings does a second push of the A/P disengage switches cancel?

A
  1. Master Warning
  2. EICAS Warning
  3. Aural warning
70
Q

What does amber AUTO PILOT light indicate? How extinguish?

A
  1. A degraded operating condition exists in engage autoplilot
  2. Extinguished when condition is corrected or alternate autopilot is connected (provided fualt is not common to alternate autopilot)
71
Q

Why is min height for A/P engagement at 200ft?

A

Proved in testing that 200ft is min height to manually recover from an A/P hard nose over

72
Q

Max overshoot/undershoot allowed in RVSM airspace?

A

150ft

73
Q

When operating in RVSM airspace and within 5nm and 2000ft of other traffic what should you do during climb and descent to minimise generation of TAs and RAs?

A

Reduce vertical speed to 1000fpm and below