AUTOFLIGHT

Question 1

1.) During an autolanding, thrust is automatically reduced to idle:

A. Between 50 and 25 feet RA.
B. 100 feet RA.
C. Manually, when the runway environment is in sight.

D. Touchdown.

Answer 1

Between 50 and 25 feet RA.

Question 2

2.) For automatic landings with crosswinds requiring a crab angle of between 5 and 10°, runway alignment occurs:

A. There is no automatic runway alignment unless crab angle exceeds 10°.
B. 100 feet RA.

C. 200 feet AGL.
D. Initially at 500 feet AGL with a second alignment at 200’ AGL.

Answer 2

Initially at 500 feet AGL with a second alignment at 200’ AGL.

Question 3

3.) Pulling the autopilot disengage bar on the MCP down:

A. Disables bank angle envelope protection.
B. Generates EICAS messages “Autopilot Disconnect” and “No Autoland”.

C. Illuminates the Master Warning light and sounds the associated aural.

D. All the above.

Answer 3

All the above.

Question 4

4.) When the autothrottles are manually or automatically disconnected _____.

A. The MasterWarning lights illuminate and theWarning Aural sounds.

B. A Caution Beeper aural sounds.
C. The EICAS caution message AUTOTHROTTLE DISC is displayed
D. Both B and C are correct

Answer 4

Both B and C are correct

Question 5

5.) The Approach (APP) switch:

A. When pushed, displays LOC or FAC and G/S or G/P in white (armed) prior to capture.
B. Is used only for ILS approaches.
C. When pushed, the glideslope will capture when the intercept track is within 80° of the localizer, even if localizer is not captured.
D. Both A and C

Answer 5

When pushed, displays LOC or FAC and G/S or G/P in white (armed) prior to capture.

Question 6

6.) Using altitude intervention during climb or descent:

A. Deletes the next altitude constraint with each push of the button if that constraint lies between the aircraft altitude and the MCP altitude.
B. Has no effect on the FMC cruise altitude.
C. Always changes the FMC cruise altitude to the altitude window value.

D. Both A and B.

Answer 6

Deletes the next altitude constraint with each push of the button if that constraint lies between the aircraft altitude and the MCP altitude.

Question 7

7.) The Bank Limit Selector has no effect when the roll mode is LNAV.

A. True.
B. False

Answer 7

TRUE

Question 8

8.) LNAV engages:

A. If armed, engages on takeoff if the aircraft is above 50’ and is within 2.5 miles of an active leg.
B. On a missed approach at 50 feet with flight director only, or 200 feet if the autopilot is on.
C. Displays LNAV (green) on the roll FMA when active.
D. All the above.

Answer 8

All the above.

Question 9

9.) Without LAND 2 or LAND 3 annunciated, the autopilot may be disengaged using force applied to the control wheel or the rudder pedals:

A. True.
B. False.

Answer 9

FALSE

Question 10

10.) A display of LAND 3 on the AFDS status annunciation indicates that the autopilot system level of redundancy is such that a single fault cannot prevent the autopilot system from making an automatic landing.

A. True.
B. False.

Answer 10

TRUE

Question 11

11.) The autothrottles disconnect automatically:

A. If a fault in the engaged autothrottle mode is detected.
B. When either reverse thrust lever is stowed from the idle detent.
C. If the thrust levers are overridden during a manual landing, after the autothrottle has begun to retard the thrust levers to idle.
D. A and C are correct.

Answer 11

A and C are correct.

Question 12

12.) In all cases, a green indication on the FMA indicates:

A. The displayed mode is armed.
B. Only LNAV and/or VNAV can be armed.

C. The displayed mode is engaged.
D. None of the above.

Answer 12

The displayed mode is engaged.

Question 13

13.) With LOC and G/S armed, which of the following conditions must exist?

A. Aircraft intercept track angle must be within 80° of localizer course for
G/S capture to occur.
B. ILS / GLS frequency must be manually or automatically selected.
C. Aircraft intercept track angle must be within 120 degrees of localizer course.

D. All the above.

Answer 13

All the above.

Question 14

14.) During T/O pushing the TO/GA switches:

A. Below 50 knots IAS, engages the A/T system in the THR REF mode.

B. Engages the A/T system in the SPD mode.
C. Above 80 knots IAS, disarms LNAV and/or VNAV if armed.

D. A and C are correct.

Answer 14

A and C are correct.

Question 15

15.) An amber “AUTOPILOT” EICAS message accompanied by the Caution beeper indicates?

A. The autopilot is in a degraded mode.
B. The autopilot is in flight envelope protection mode.

C. The autopilot is disconnected.
D. A and B are correct.

Answer 15

A and B are correct.

Question 16

16.) If the autothrottle system is not engaged by 50 knots on takeoff it cannot be engaged until above 400 feet.

A. True.
B. False.

Answer 16

TRUE

Question 17

17.) When an autopilot switch is selected ON, how many autopilots actually control the aircraft?

A. All operating autopilots.
B. Either left or right depending on the A/P switch used to engage the system. C. Any two: left & right, left and center, or right and center.
D. Always two, the Left and Right.

Answer 17

All operating autopilots.

Question 18

18.) When landing in gusty wind conditions (greater than 10 knot gusts) and the autothrottles ON:

A. Always add ½ the steady state wind value and all of the gust value.
B. The autothrottles have automatic gust compensation and do not require any wind speed or gust additives above target speed.
C. Vref for the landing flaps is automatically calculated and selected by the FMC and requires no pilot input.
D. Autothrottles are only available during CAT 2 and CAT 3 approaches.

Answer 18

The autothrottles have automatic gust compensation and do not require any wind speed or gust additives above target speed.

Question 19

19.) After LOC and G/S capture, and below 1500 feet, the LOC and G/S modes can only be disengaged by:

A. Disconnecting the autopilot and turning both Flight Directors off.

B. Pressing the APP Mode selector again.
C. Engaging TO/GA.
D. A and C are correct.

Answer 19

A and C are correct.

Question 20

20.) The correct FMA annunciation when climbing using the FLCH mode is:

A. THR REF.
B. THR.
C. TO/GA.

D. LIM.

Answer 20

THR.

Question 21

21.) When using FLCH, V/S, or FPA, the FMA pitch mode will change to ____ when the selected altitude is captured.

A. VNAV ALT
B. VNAV PATH

C. ATT
D. ALT

Answer 21

ALT

Question 22

22.) When below 1500 feet with a LAND 2 or LAND 3 annunciation, any combination of two or more autopilots is controlling the aircraft.

A. True.
B. False.

Answer 22

TRUE

Question 23

23.) In flight, TO/GA is armed whenever the flaps are out of up, or at glideslope capture and when armed displays TOGA in small white font.

A. True. B. False.

Answer 23

FALSE

Question 24

24.) Pushing either TO/GA switch twice during a Go-Around, causes the autothrottles to:

A. Engage in speed (SPD) mode.
B. Engage in thrust (THR) mode for a 2000 fpm climb.
C. Engage in thrust reference (THR REF) mode for full go-around thrust.
D. Engage in hold (HOLD) mode.

Answer 24

Engage in thrust reference (THR REF) mode for full go-around thrust.

Question 25

25.) Windshear recovery guidance is provided by the command bars and:

A. Engaged by selecting TOGA on either throttle.

B. Always armed in the takeoff mode.
C. Commands a pitch-up of 15° or slightly below the pitch limit, whichever is lower.
D. All the above.

Answer 25

All the above.

Question 26

26.) The minimum altitude the autopilot engagement after takeoff or go-around is 500’ with one or both engines operating.

A. True.
B. False.

Answer 26

FALSE

Question 27

27.) During CAT III LAND 3 operations, the autopilot automatically disengages when groundspeed decreases below 50 knots.

A. True. B. False.

Answer 27

FALSE

Question 28

28.) What envelope protection(s) does the autopilot provide while operating in the normal flight control mode?

A. Stall.
B. Overspeed.

C. Bank Angle.
D. All of the above.

Answer 28

All of the above.

Question 29

29.) Flight Director guidance during T/O provides?

A. V2 + 15 knots or the speed at rotation plus 15 knots whichever is greater.
B. Track Hold until 500 feet RA.
C. A new target speed up to V2 + 25 knots max if target speed is exceeded for 5 seconds.
D. A and C are correct.

Answer 29

A and C are correct.

Question 30

30.) During ILS/GLS operations, which of the following occurs at 1500 feet AGL?

A. Self-test of autoland system.
B. Only 2 autopilots electrically isolate.
C. LAND 2, LAND 3, or NO AUTOLAND annunciated on the ASA.

D. A and C.

Answer 30

A and C.

Question 31

31.) With the autothrottle FMA indication of THR, the thrust is set to a level that will achieve the desired vertical speed required by the pitch mode.

A. True.
B. False.

Answer 31

TRUE

Question 32

32.) During the takeoff roll prior to lift off, if the autothrottles are not engaged by , they cannot be engaged until above 400 feet AGL.

A. 80 knots indicated airspeed

B. 100 knots groundspeed
C. 50 knots indicated airspeed

D. None of the above.

Answer 32

50 knots indicated airspeed

Question 33

33.) The illumination of the light in the switch on the MCP verifies a positive engagement of the mode

A. True.
B. False.

Answer 33

FALSE

Question 34

34) Which of the following statements are correct regarding the Climb / Continuous (CLB / CON) Thrust Switch on the MCP?

A. Selecting CLB / CON with two engines operating selects FMC climb thrust.

B. Selecting CLB / CON with one engine operating selects max continuous
thrust.
C. CLB / CON is automatically selected when an engine failure is sensed during Takeoff.
D. All the above

Answer 34

All the above

Question 35

35) With regards to an EICAS “NO LAND 3” message:

A. No ILS approach to CAT III minimums is permitted.
B. A CAT III approach and autoland can be safely conducted to LAND 2 minimums if supported by airport and aircrew requirements.
C. CAT III operations are not affected.

D. ILS minimums are not affected.

Answer 35

A CAT III approach and autoland can be safely conducted to LAND 2 minimums if supported by airport and aircrew requirements.

Question 36

36) If flying an approach using the IAN feature:

A. A ground based GBAS transmitter is required.

B. Only RNAV RNP approaches may be used.
C. Either a VOR or LOC transmitter for roll guidance is required.
D. Vertical path guidance is provided using an FMC computed glide path.

Answer 36

Vertical path guidance is provided using an FMC computed glide path.

Question 37

37) Autoland capability is approved for ILS, GLS and IAN approaches.

A. True. B. False.

Answer 37

FALSE

Question 38

38) For takeoffs using HUD guidance, lateral guidance is available using:

A. Either an ILS signal or GLS signal.
B. Enhanced GPS directional control.

C. LNAV guidance.
D. Both A or B.

Answer 38

Either an ILS signal or GLS signal.

Question 39

39) If the autopilot remains engaged below 200 feet RA on a non-ILS approach, NO AUTOLAND is displayed.

A. True.
B. False.

Answer 39

TRUE

Question 40

40) Use of the IAN feature, requires flight crews to select the approach from the FMC database and use the ____ mode to enable the approach.

A. LOC

B. APP

C. LNAV

D. VOR

Answer 40

APP

Question 41

41) During a HUD Low Visibility takeoff, the roll bar on the PFD can be used for lateral guidance.

A. True. B. False.

Answer 41

FALSE