AUDIT 5 Flashcards

1
Q

Describe the top-down approach used to select controls to test for issuer/nonissuer clients

A

Following chronological levels:

  1. FS Level
  2. Entity level
  3. Accounts, disclosure, assertions level
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2
Q

How does the extent of testing of internal controls differ between a financial statement audit and an audit of internal control for nonissuers.

A

The extent of testing of internal controls for a financial statement audit is more limited than in an audit of internal control.

When rendering an opinion on internal control for an audit of internal controls, the auditor should obtain evidence regarding the effectiveness of selected controls over all relevant assertions. This level of testing is not required for a financial statement audit.

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3
Q

What is the accountant’s responsibility with respect to control deficinincies identified during an engagement to audit the internal control of a nonissuer?

A

Sig. def. and material weaknesses should be communicated to those charged with governance by the report release date.

Control def. that are not significant or material should be communicated in writing to management within 60 days of the report release date.

A material weakness results in an adverse opinion.

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4
Q

How are control deficiencies, significant deficineines, and material weaknesses communicated by the auditor to the issuer in an integrated audit?

A

Internal control deficiencies: in writing to managements

Sig def: In writing to audit committee

Material weaknesses: To management and audit committe in writing

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5
Q

What standards are referenced in the auditor’s report that provides an opinion on the operating effectiveness of internal control for

  1. Issuers
  2. Nonissuers
A
  1. Issuers must reference that the audit was conducted in accordance with the standards of the PCAOB.
  2. Auditing standards generally accepted in the USA
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6
Q

What is included in the inherent limitations paragraph in the auditor’s report that provides an opinion on the operating effectiveness of internal control?

A

Because of its inherent limitations, IC over financial reporting may not prevent or detect and correct misstatements. Also, projections of any evaluation of effectiveness to future periods are subject to the risk that controls may become inadequate because of changes in conditions, or that the degree of compliance with the policies or procedures may deteriorate.

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7
Q

Is the report that contains an opinion on the operating effectiveness of internal control restricted?

A

Generally, it is not restricted.

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8
Q

May an auditor who is engaged to perform an integrated audit provide a report stating that all control deficiencies or all significant deficiencies have been identified?

A

An auditor should not issue a report stating that all control deficiencies or all significant deficiencies have been identified.

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9
Q

May an auditor issue a report stating that no material weaknesses were identified when engaged to perform an integrated audit?

A

An auditor should not issue a report stating that no material weaknesses were identified. Because the auditor’s objective in an audit of internal control is to form an opinion on the effectiveness of the entity’s internal control, the auditor should not issue a report indicating that no material weaknesses were identified during the integrated audit.

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10
Q

Is it possible for an auditor to render an unmodified opinion on the FS and an adverse opinion on internal control over FR?

A

Yes, and auditor may render this opinion. The IC could not be operating effectively but the FS may be fairly stated.

Note: auditor should disclose this and whether the FS were affected by this adverse opinion.

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11
Q

Define an attestation engagement.

A

It it one in which a CPA is engaged to issue or does issue an examination, a review, or an agreed upon procedures report on a subject matter, or on an assertion about the subject matter, that is the responsibility of another party (management).

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12
Q

List 6 major attestation services.

A
  1. Agreed upon procedures
  2. Financial forecasts and projections
  3. Pro forma financial statements
  4. Reporting on controls at a service organization
  5. Compliance with statutory, regulatory, or contractual agreements
  6. Managements Discussion and Analysis
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13
Q

How are attestation standards different for GAAS?

A
  1. Broader in scope
  2. No reference is made to GAAP or to FS
  3. Lower level of assurance
  4. Tailored to the need of the user
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14
Q

What are the common concepts related to all attestation engagements?

A
  1. Compliance with all attestation standards relevant to the engagement.
  2. Acceptance and continuance are satisfactory performed for client relationships and attestation engagements.
  3. Preconditions for an attestation engagement are present, including independence and responsibility for and appropriateness of subject matter.
  4. Engagement documentation standards for timeliness, retention, ownership, and confidentiality apply.
  5. Acceptance of a change in the terms of the engagement as reasonable, when applicable.
  6. Using the work of an other practitioner is allowed with appropriate due dilligence.
  7. Responsibility for quality control by the engagement partner.
  8. Professional skepticism and professional judgement are required in the planning and performance of an attestation engagement.
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15
Q

What levels or assurance may be provided by attestation engagements?

A

Examination: A positive opinion, high level of assurance, generally based on a variety of procedures, including search, verification, inquiry, and analysis.

Review (negative assurance): Moderate level of assurance, generally based on inquiry and analytical procedures.

Agreed-Upon procedures: No assurance, but procedures and findings are listed.

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16
Q

Identify the 7 conditions that must exist in order to perform an agreed upon procedures attestation engagement. (I AM SURE)

A
  1. Independence of the practitioner
  2. Agreement of the parties
  3. Measurability and consistency of subject matter
  4. Sufficiency of the procedures
  5. Use of report restricted to specified parties
  6. Responsibility of subject matter is with client
  7. Engagements to perform agreed-upon procedures on prospective FS must include a summary of significant assumptions.
17
Q

List some of the key elements in a report on an engagement to apply agreed-upon procedures.

A
  1. A title, etc.
18
Q

What is the difference between a financial forecast and a financial projection?

A

A financial forecast reflects, to the best of the responsible parties knowledge, the expected financial results of a future period based on expected conditions and expected courses of action. A forecast is appropriate for general or limited use.

A financial projection is based on hypothetical assumptions and reflects a “what if” scenario. A projection is appropriate for limited use only.

19
Q

In what ways might the CPA be associated with prospective financial statements?

A

They may:
-Prepare, compile, apply agreed upon procedires, or examine.

NOTE: A review of prospective FS is not allowed.

20
Q

What should be included in the accountant’s report on a compilation of prospective FS?

A
  1. Identification of the entity and the date
  2. “Management is responsible”
  3. It has been performed in accordance with SSARS
21
Q

What type on engagement can an accountant perform on pro forma FS and what procedures are necessary for a pro forma FS engagement?

A

Examination or rview.

22
Q

When are a service organization’s services considered to be a part of an entity’s information system?

A

When those services affect the initiation, execution, processing, or reporting of the user company transactions

23
Q

What 2 types of reports may a service auditor provide, and what is the difference in how the user auditor may use them?

A
  1. Type 1: Report on Management’s Description and Design

Type 2: Support a reduction in the assessed level of control risk

24
Q

Under US AS, when may an auditor issue a special report on a client’s compliance with contractual agreements or regulatory requirements?

A

1) Must have audited the client’s FS and expressed an unmodified or qualified opinion

and

2) May only give negative assurance on the compliance

25
Q

Identify three situations for which an auditor may be asked to report on compliance.

A

1) contractual or regulatory requirement in connection with an audit
2)

26
Q

When issuing a report on a client’s compliance with contractual agreements or regulatory requirements n connection with a FS audit, how may the report be presented?

A

May either be a separate report or provided in an other-matter paragraph in the auditor’s report on the FS

27
Q

What is the formula for audit risk of noncompliance (as adapted from the audit risk model)?

A

AR of NonCompliance = Risk of Material Noncompliance x Detection Risk

28
Q

What 4 objectives may be included in performance audits under GAGAS?

A
  • Effectiveness, internal control, compliance, prospective analysis
29
Q

Audits of governmental entities may draw on up to three sets of standards or supplementary requirements. Wht are they?

A

GAAS, GAGAS (Yellowbook audits)

2 CFR 200.500 (expendingmore than 750k in assistance annually)

30
Q

What are the objectives of a single audit

A

Audit of the entity’s FS and reporting on a separate schedule of expenditures of federal awards

Compliance audit of federal awards expended during the year, as a basis for issuing additional reports on compliance and on internal control over compliance for major programs

31
Q

How does materiality under the Single Audit Act differ from materiality under both GAAS and GAGAS

A

It is in relation to each major program. not simply in relation to the FS

32
Q

Material noncompliance with the requirements of major federal assisstance programs results in what type of opinion on noncompliance

A

Qualified (except for) or adverse.

33
Q

What are the 4 reports recommended under the Single Audit Act?

A
  1. Opinion on FS and schedule of expenditures of awards
  2. Report on compliance and on iC on a FS audit
  3. Same but on each major program
  4. Schedule of findings and questioned costs