AUDIT 4 Flashcards

1
Q

Which department’s are responsible for preparing the sales order, approving the sales order, preparing the bill of lading, and preparing the invoice?

A
  1. Sales Department: Prepares the sales order
  2. Credit Department: Approves the sales order
  3. Shipping Department: Prepares the bill of lading
  4. Billing Department: Prepares the invoice
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

Which department should approve write-offs of uncollectible accounts?

A

The treasurer should approve write-offs of uncollectible accounts.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

A listing of cash receipts should be sent to which three departments?

A

The cashier, accounts receivable (billing), and general accounting departments should each receive a copy of the cash receipts listing.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

What are some common audit procedures related to the revenue cycle?

A

They may include:

  1. Trace a sample of shipping docs. to sales invoices and the sales journal (completeness)
  2. Vouch a sample of sales transactions from the sales journal to the shipping documents (existence)
  3. Examine sales transactions from shortly before and after year-end for recording in the proper period (cutoff)
  4. Confirmation of a sample of AR (existence)
  5. Testing of the allowance for uncollectible accounts (valuation)
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

Compare and contrast positive, negative, and blank confirmation.

A

Positive: You are expected to return the confirmation to the auditor. Should be used when accounts are large, errors are expected, or items are disputed.

Negative: Customer is requested to reply only if amount stated by auditor is incorrect. Should be used when: combined assessed level of inherent and control risk is low, a large number of small balances are being confirmed, and recipients are not expected to disregard the confirmations.

Blank: A positive confirmation that does not include the balance, instead requesting the recipient to provide his information. Blank confirmations provide greater assurance and may result in lower response rates.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

In a purchase transaction, which departments are responsible for preparing the purchase order, preparing the receiving report, recording the payable, approving the invoice, signing the check, and mailing the check?

A

Purchasing department: Prepares the purchase order

Receiving Department: Prepares the receiving report

Accounts Payable Department: Records the payable and approves the invoice

Treasurer’s department: Signs and mails the check

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

What documents should be compared before an invoice is approved for payment and why?

A

The purchase order, receiving report, and vendor invoice should be compared before an invoice is approved for payment. This is to ensure that the company does not pay for goods that were ordered but not received.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

What are some common audit procedures related to the expenditure cycle?

A

They might include:

  1. Performing a search for unrecorded liabilities (Completeness)
  2. Accounts payable confirmations (existence)
  3. Examination of purchases before and after year-end for recording in the proper period (cutoff)
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

Describe the procedure performed when an auditor is searching for unrecorded accounts payable.

A

The auditor should select cash disbursements made SUBSEQUENT to year-end and examine supporting documentation (i.e receiving reports, vendor invoices). The auditor is looking for items that should have been recorded at the balance sheet date, but were not.

Note: Cash disbursements made subsequent to year-end may be identified by reviewing the cash disbursements journal, subsequent bank statements, or the voucher register.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

When might accounts payable confirmations be used, and to whom would they be sent?

A

AP Confirmations may be used when:

  • Internal control is weak
  • There are disputed amounts
  • Monthly vendor statements are not available

They would be sent to vendors with small or zero balances, because errors often involve unrecorded liabilities.

Note: Confirmation of recorded AP will not provide evidence regarding unrecorded liabilities, but confirmations sent to vendors with zero (or small) balances might provide such evidence.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

Define lapping.

A

Lapping is delaying the recording of cash receipts to conceal the theft of cash.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

Define kitting. Describe an auditing procedure that would detect kitting.

A

Kitting is an overstatement of bank balances by transferring cash between banks and reporting the amount in both bank balances simultaneously.

The auditor may detect kitting by reviewing each transfer on the bank transfer schedule. The auditor is looking for a disbursement date per books after year-end and a receipt date before year-end.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

What are the primary audit procedures used to test the existence, completeness, and valuation of cash?

A
  • Standard bank confirmations sent to all banks with which the client has done business during the year
  • Testing of the year-end bank reconciliation
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

What are some common audit procedures related to the inventory cycle?

A
  • Observing the physical inventory count
  • Performing test counts and tracing into the inventory report
  • Performing cutoff testing of purchases and sales
  • Verifying appropriate presentation and disclosure
  • Inquiring about obsolete or damaged goods
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

What are some common audit procedures related to the investment cycle?

A

May include:

  1. Confirmation of securities
  2. Physical inspection of securities (existence)
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

Explain the auditor’s responsibility when auditing fair values

A

Obtain sufficient appropriate evidence to provide reasonable assurance that the fair value measures discloses by the client are in conformity with the framework

The auditor is not responsible for predicting future conditions, but must base his or her evaluation on information available at the time of the audit.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

What are some audit procedures related to PPE?

A
  • Vouching additions and reviewing retirements (existence)
  • Reviewing repair and maintenance expense (completeness and classification)
  • Performing cutoff tests (cutoff)
  • Recalculating depreciation and gain or loss on disposals (valuation)
18
Q

What functions should be segregated related to payroll and personnel? ARC

A
  1. Authorization (Hr, staff, time-keeping and cost accounting)
  2. Recording keeping (payroll department)
  3. Custody of assets (treasurer)
19
Q

List some common audit procedures for payroll.

A
  • Evaluate seg. of duties

- Test direct deposit transfers

20
Q

What are some common audit procedures related to the debt (financing cycle)?

A

-Agree debt to ledger

21
Q

What are some common audit procedures related o stockholder’s equity and treasury stock?

A

Vouch stock transaction to supporting doc,

Review minutes

Review articles of incorporation

Analyze RE since the last audit

22
Q

What is the effect on the auditor’s opinion if a client refuses to permit inquiry of its attorney or if the attorney refuses to respond?

A

If a client does not permit inquiry of its attorney, the auditor would generally disclaim an opinion or withdraw from the audit.

If a lawyer has devoted substantial attention to litigation but refuses to respond to the auditor’s letter of inquiry, a scope limitation sufficient to preclude an unmodified opinion exists (qualified or disclaimer based on severity)

23
Q

What is the going concern period for FS where the applicable reporting framework is under the guidance of the following:

  • FASB
  • GASB
A

FASB: One year after the date the FS are issued (or available to be issued, as applicable)

GASB: One year beyond the date of the FS. GASB further requires that, if a governmental entity currently knows information that may raise substantial doubt shortly thereafter, such information should also be considered.

24
Q

Evidence from what auditing procedures may lead the auditor to conclude that there is a significant doubt about an entity’s ability to continue as a going concern?

ADMITS!

A
  1. Analytical procedures
  2. Debt compliance
  3. Minutes
  4. Inquiry of client’s legal counsel
  5. Third parties
  6. Subsequent events review
25
Q

What conditions and events may indicate substantial doubt about an entity’s ability to continue as a going concern?

A
  1. Financial difficulties
  2. Internal matters, such as labor difficulties, substantial dependence on a particular project
  3. Negative trends
  4. External matters, such as legal proceedings, new legistation, loss of principal customer, natural disaster
26
Q

What phrases must be included in a going-concern additional (emphasis of matter or explanatory) paragraph?

A

“substantial doubt” and “going concern”

27
Q

What are the auditor’s responsibilities when evaluating estimates?

A

They are to:

  1. Assess management’s written policies and practices
  2. Evaluate the degree of estimation uncertainty with the accounting estimate
  3. Verify all material estimates have been developed
  4. Determine that accounting estimates are reasonable
  5. Ensure that accounting estimates are properly disclosed in conformity with GAAP
28
Q

What procedures might an auditor use to evaluate an estimate?

A
  1. Reviewing and testing management’s procedures
  2. Developing an independent estimate for comparative purposes
  3. Reviewing subsequent events and transactions that corroborate the estimate value
29
Q

What circumstances would increase the likelihood of a misstatement being considered material?

A
  1. Affects trends in profitability, masks trends, or changes a loss to income
  2. Affects compliance
  3. Increases MGT compensation
  4. Affects significant FS elements
  5. Can be determined objectively
30
Q

Give examples of management bias.

A
  1. Selective correction of misstatements brought to management’s attention during the audit
  2. The identification by management of additional adjusting entries that offset misstatements accumulated by the auditor
  3. Bias in the selection and application of accounting principles
  4. Bias in accounting estimates
31
Q

What are the three primary purposes for obtaining written representations from management?

A
  1. To confirm representations explicitly given to the auditor
  2. To indicate and document the continuing appropriateness of such representations
  3. To reduce the possibility of misunderstanding concerning matters that are subject of the representations
32
Q

What general types of item are included in a management representation letter, and who should sign it?

A

Include information related to:
-Fs, completeness, fraud, related parties, recognition, measurement, disclosre, subsequent events, issues

Should be signed by the CEO, CFO, and any other members of management who are responsible for and knowledgeable about the items contained in the letter.

33
Q

What are the functions of the audit committee?

A
  • Selects and appoints the independent auditor and sets the audit fee
  • Reviews the nature and details of the audit engagement
  • Reviews the quality of the auditor’s work
  • Reviews the scope of the audit
  • Determines that nay recommendations made by the auditor are given proper attnetion
  • Maintains lines of communication
  • Helps solve any disagreements
  • Evaluates the internal control of the company with the help of the indepependent auditor
34
Q

List the items that an auditor is required to communicate to those charged with governance.

A
  • The auditor’s responsibility under GAAS

- Significant audit findings

35
Q

What is an integrated audit?

When is an integrated audit required?

A

An integrated audit requires the auditor to audit both the FS and IC. The two audits must be performed together, and two opinions will be rendered (one on IC and one on FS). It is required for:

  1. All audits of issuers
  2. When an issuer is engaged to examine the internal control of a nonissuer.
36
Q

What is a control deficiency?

A

A control deficiency exists when the design or operation of a control does not allow management or employees, in the normal course of performing their assigned functions, to prevent or detect/correct misstatements on a timely basis.

37
Q

What is a significant deficiency?

A

It is a deficiency, or a combination of deficiencies, in internal control over financial reporting that is less severe than a material weakness, yet important enough to merit attention to those charged with governance (responsible for oversight of the company’s FR).

38
Q

What is a material weakness?

A

A deficiency, or a combination of deficiencies, in internal control over FR, such that there is a reasonable possibility that MM of the company’s annual or interim financial statements will not be prevented or detected/corrected on a timely basis.

39
Q

What is the auditor’s responsibility with respect to control deficiencies identified during a financial statement audit of a nonissuer?

A
  • The auditor has a responsibility to evaluate control deficiencies identified during the audit to determine whether they represent significant deficiencies or material weaknesses.
  • Significant deficiencies and material weaknesses should be communicated in writing to management and those charged with governance within 60 days of the report release date.
  • The communication with management and those charged with governance should be restricted use.
40
Q

How would an auditor report noncompliance of a law or regulation assuming 1) It has a material effect on the FS 2) there is insufficient evidence or 3) the client refuses to accept a modified report.

A

1) If not adequately reflected in the FS, a qualified or adverse opinion should be issued.
2) If unable to obtain sufficient evidence of a suspected noncompliance, a qualified opinion or disclaimer of opinion should be issued.
3) If the client refuses to accept a modified report, the auditor should withdraw from the engagement and contract, in writing, those charged with governance.