AUBF MOCK PRELIM LAB EXAM Flashcards
The hazard posed by exposure to pathogens
a. Chemical Hazard
b. Fire Hazard
c. Biological Hazard
d. Health Hazard
C
The NPFA classification symbol contains information on all of the following except:
a. Fire hazards
b. Biohazards
c. Reactivity
d. Health hazard
B
Hazy should be reported as
a. Cannot be seen
b. Easily seen
c. Blurred
d. Cloudy
B
Which is/ are true about Ketones EXCEPT:
a. Principle: double indicator system
b. 45s reaction time
c. Sensitive for light
d. All of the above
D
Container for SHARPS hazard
a. Yellow container with triad symbol
b. Green Puncture proof container
c. All of the above
d. None of the above
D
What the purpose and the analyte confirmed by the SSA precipitation test?
a. Degree of turbidity – blood
b. Copper reduction – glucose
c. Degree of turbidity – proteins
d. Oxidation of detergents – ketones
C
Refractometers are calibrated using:
a. Distilled water and protein
b. Distilled water and blood
c. Distilled water and sodium chloride
d. Distilled water and urea
C
Freshly voided normal urine is usually clear; however, if it is alkaline, a white turbidity may be present due to:
A. Amorphous phosphates and carbonates
B. Uroerythrin
C. WBCs
D. Yeast
A
The primary cause of a false-negative bilirubin reaction is:
a. Highly pigmented urine
b. Specimen contamination
c. Specimen exposure to light
d. Excess conjugated bilirubin
C
Bile mediations may cause the urine to have __
a. Silver or milky
b. Hazy
c. Colorless
d. Yellow foam
D
In transparency, “TURBID“ should be reported as
a. print cannot be seen
b. Easily seen
c. Blurred
d. Cloudy
A
Which is NOT TRUE about specimen collection EXCEPT?
a. at least 40ml
b. Wide mouthed; screw cap
c. Labeled at the body of the container
d. all of the above
B
Specific gravity is important for
a. Small urea molecules
b. Ability of kidney reabsorption
c. Abnormalities pf ADH
d. 2 of the above
D
What is the principle of Urinometer in determining specific gravity?
a. Optimal light scatter
b. Reflective photometry
c. Absorbance and intensity
d. Density
D
In physical exam of urine, which is NOT part of the reporting EXCEPT:
a. Sediments
b. Contamination of hair
c. Turbidity
d. None of the above
D
Which conditions may give a positive reaction for Benedict’s test?
a. Hyperglycemia
b. Diabetes Miletus
c. Oliguria
d. 2 of the above
D
Grounds for specimen acceptance EXCEPT?
a. Specimens contaminated with feces or toilet paper
b. Specimens in containers that are unlabeled or improperly labeled
c. At least 50 ml
d. 2 of the above
D
Which are NOT known as purpose for Urinalysis EXCEPT?
a. Drug Testing
b. Determination of metabolic functions
c. Monitoring of the effectiveness of therapy
d. All of the above
D
Specimen for urinalysis has the specimen integrity of?
a. 90 mins
b. 30 mins
c. 150 mins
d. 120 mins
D
Which part of physical examination of urine gives the least amount of significance?
a. Color
b. Transparency
c. Specific gravity
d. Odor
D
Specimen of Diabetes Miletus patient may have
a. Concentrated, clear urine
b. Pale yellow color, hazy urine
c. Ammoniacal odor, orange color
d. Fruity odor, pale yellow color
D
What is the purpose of the automated reagent strip reader?
a. Time efficiency
b. Comparison of color reaction in manually may be subjective
c. Follows the principle of reflective photometry
d. 2 of the above
D
Brown black color of urine indicates
a. Hematuria
b. Methhemoglobin
c. Proteinuria
d. Myoglobin
B
Principle for Benedicts test
a. Oxidation of protein
b. Correlation to ketones
c. Reduction of sucrose
d. Confirmatory test for glucose
D
Quality control of reagent strip bottle must be done
a. Every week
b. Every 24hr shift
c. Every opening new bottle
d. 2 of the above
D
Which are NOT considered grounds for specimen rejection EXCEPT?
i. At least 40 ml
ii. adulterated urine for drug testing
iii. label only on lid of container
iv. Same full name of another patient
v. written policies for rejection
a. I only
b. II, III. V
c. All of the above
d. I,II,III, V
D
What is the appropriate volume for microscopic examination
a. 20ml
b. 15 ml
c. 12 ml
d. 30ml
C
Reagent used for Exton’s test
a. 5 % glacial acetic acid
b. 2-3 drops SSA
c. 2ml of SSA
d. 3% of Acetic acid
D
Type of specimen best for pregnancy testing?
a. Midstream clean catch
b. Random specimen
c. Suprapubic aspiration
d. First morning
D
In urine clarity, which is properly paired?
a. Milky - print easily seen
b. Turbid- blurred
c. Hazy – Print easily seen
d. Cloudy - may precipitate
C
Ascorbic acid intake may interfere the determination of what component of the reagent strip?
a. Glucose
b. Urobilinogen
c. Protein
d. Ketones
A
The reason for the pigment amber color of normal urine
a. Urochrome
b. Urobilin
c. Bilirubin
d. Urobilinogen
A
The reading of distilled water by the refractometer is 1.003. You should:
a. Subtract 1.003 from each specimen reading
b. Add 1.003 to each specimen reading
c. Use a new refractometer
d. Adjust set screw
D
For specimen preservation, it is important to consider
a. Room temp for 24hrs – urine culture
b. Refrigeration may cause precipitation of crystals
c. Room temp – chemical testing
d. 2 of the above
D
An employee who is accidentally exposed to a possible blood-borne pathogen should immediately:
a. Report to a supervisor
b. Flush the area with water
c. Clean the area with disinfectant
d. Receive HIV propylaxis
A
Which is NOT considered as pathologic in urine EXCEPT?
a. Epithelial cells
b. Blood
c. Bacteria
d. 2 of the above
D
Which manner of reporting is incorrectly paired EXCEPT?
a. Blood – 0.005
b. Specific gravity – 1.020
c. Nitrite – traces
d. 2 of the above
D
Greiss reaction is associated to which component
a. Ph
b. Urobilinogen
c. Leukocyte esterase
d. Nitrite
D
Delayed specimen greater than 2hrs may lead to
a. Decrease in pH
b. Increase of ketones
c. Decrease of glucose
d. Increase of WBCs
C
In Drug specimen collection, pH of 9.0 must be
a. Reject because of Dilution
b. Reject because of Substitution
c. Indication of metabolic acidosis
d. Reject because of adulteration
D
Specimen with Urinary Tract infection may NOT exhibit the following results EXCEPT
a. Positive in Leukocyte esterase
b. Transparent / clear
c. Dark yellow color
d. 2 of the above
D
The concentration of a normal urine specimen can be estimated by which of the following?
a. Color
b. Clarity
c. Foam
d. Odor
A
Reporting for transparency should be done
a. Against white background
b. In natural light
c. Against printed background
d. With flash or artificial light
C
Green color of urine may indicate
a. Polyuria
b. Parasitic Infection
c. Presence of melanin
d. Porphyrins
B
Which type of specimen cannot be used for diagnosing UTI for male patients
a. Prostatitis Specimen
b. 3glass collection
c. 2 of the above
d. None of the above
C
Employees should not work with radioisotopes if they are:
a. Wearing contact lenses
b. Allergic to iodine
c. Sensitive to latex
d. Pregnant
D
Known advantage/s of refrigeration a method of preservation
a. Does not interfere with chemical tests
b. Prevents glycolysis
c. Excellent sediment preservative
d. 2 of the above
A
Which may cause glucose in an unpreserved bacteria to decrease?
a. Disintegration in diluted urine
b. Volatilization
c. Glycolysis and bacterial use
d. None of the above
C
The principle of the reagent strip test for bilirubin is the:
a. Diazo reaction
b. Ehrlich reaction
c. Greiss reaction
d. Peroxidase reaction
A
Clinical significance of mousy odor
a. Tyrosinemia
b. Isovaleric acidemia
c. MSUD
d. Phenylketonuria
D
