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AUBF Flashcards

1
Q
  1. Designated tube intended for chemistry and serology in CSF?
    A. 1st
    B. 2nd
    C. 3rd
    D. 4th
A

A. 1st

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2
Q
  1. Term used to describe CSF supernatant that is pink, orange, or yellow?
    A. Hemolyzed
    B. Pellicle
    C. Xanthochromia
    D. AOTA
A

C. Xanthochromia

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3
Q
  1. The following descriptions, uneven blood distribution in 3 tubes, clear supernatant, presence of clot, but negative for erythrophage, are characteristics of
    A. Intracranial hemorrhage
    B. Traumatic tap
    C. Meningitis
    D. Hepatic coma
A

B. Traumatic tap

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4
Q
  1. Abnormal condition where there is an increased number of normal cells in CSF
    A. Monocytosis
    B. Lymphocytosis
    C. Polycythemia
    D. Pleocytosis
A

D. Pleocytosis

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5
Q
  1. Centrifuge should be disinfected
    A. Monthly
    B. Weekly
    C. Every other shift
    D. Daily
A

B. Weekly

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6
Q
  1. Which of the following results may be expected with the breakdown of urea by bacteria in a urine specimen?
    A. Negative glucose
    B. Negative nitrite
    C. Elevated pH
    D. Low pH
A

C. Elevated pH

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7
Q
  1. The following lead/s to polyhydramnios:
    A. Spina bifida
    B. Anencephaly
    C. Umbilical cord compression
    D. A and B
A

D. A and B

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8
Q
  1. Most of the solutes in urine are
    A. Urea and protein
    B. Urea and bilirubin
    C. Sodium and protein
    D. Urea and sodium chloride
A

D. Urea and sodium chloride

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9
Q
  1. Normally, night urine volume of an adult would be how much?
    A. 1,000 mL
    B. 400 mL
    C. 600 mL
    D. 1,500 mL
A

B. 400 mL

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10
Q
  1. Most of the glucose that is filtered through the glomerulus is reabsorbed in what part of the nephron?
    A. Proximal convoluted tubule
    B. Loop of Henle
    C. Collecting duct
    D. Distal convoluted tubule
A

A. Proximal convoluted tubule

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11
Q
  1. Step-by-step documentation of handling and testing legal specimens:
    A. Chain of infection
    B. Mode of transmission
    C. Route of infection
    D. Chain of custody
A

D. Chain of custody

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12
Q
  1. The MedTech staff received a urine specimen at 8 am, refrigerated it, and tested it at 12 pm. What tests will most likely be affected?
    A. Protein
    B. Glucose
    C. Ketones
    D. Specific gravity
A

D. Specific gravity

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13
Q
  1. Used to monitor the course of multiple sclerosis?
    A. Rheumatoid factor
    B. Myelin basic protein
    C. Anti dsDNA
    D. Anti CCP
A

B. Myelin basic protein

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14
Q
  1. Dark brown urine was seen with low pH after standing with (+) pseudo peroxidase chem test
    A. RBCs oxidized to methemoglobin
    B. Methyldopa
    C. Homogentistic acid
    D. Metronidazole
A

A. RBCs oxidized to methemoglobin

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15
Q
  1. 3rd specimen is 10x WBC/HPF count and a bacterial count 10x that of the 1st specimen
    A. Pancreatitis
    B. Prostitis
    C. UTI
    D. Cystitis
A

B. Prostitis

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16
Q
  1. A mousy urine odor is associated with which of the following disorders?
    A. Tyrosinemia
    B. Trimethylaminuria
    C. Methionine malabsorption
    D. Phenylketonuria
A

D. Phenylketonuria

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17
Q
  1. HCG bioassay using Aschheim-Zondek injects female’s urine to the subcutaneous tissue of the
    A. Male frog
    B. Female frog
    C. Male mice
    D. Female mice
A

D. Female mice

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18
Q
  1. Product of ammonia that indicates a possible hematic coma
    A. CSF glutamine
    B. CSF lactate
    C. CSF glucose
    D. F2 isoprostanes
A

A. CSF glutamine

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19
Q
  1. Calibration temperature of the urinometer is 20°. A refrigerated urine specimen with a temperature of 17° gives a specific gravity reading of 1.015. What is the correct reading?
    A. 1.015
    B. 1.014
    C. 1.013
    D. 1.016
A

B. 1.014

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20
Q
  1. What is the principle of the automated reagent strip readers?
    A. Reflectance photometry
    B. Nephelometry
    C. Turbidimetry
    D. Dry slide technology
A

A. Reflectance photometry

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21
Q
  1. Which of the following is abnormal?
    A. Sputum expectoration
    B. Sputum production
    C. Translucent sputum
    D. Presence of macrophage
A

A. Sputum expectoration

22
Q
  1. Urine clarity grading: “Few particulates, print easily seen through urine”
    A. Clear
    B. Hazy
    C. Cloudy
    D. Turbid
23
Q
  1. Compute the creatinine clearance
    Urine volume: 2,000 mL in 24 hours
    Urine creatinine: 150 mg/dL
    Plasma creatine: 3 mg/dL
    Patient body surface: 1.8
    A. 66.7
    B. 105
    C. 32
    D. 95
24
Q
  1. A milky urine compound dissolved after the addition of ether, the urine must have the following except?
    A. T. vaginalis
    B. Lymph fluids
    C. Lipids
    D. Chyle
A

A. T. vaginalis

25
25. Urine specific gravity is 1.040 (refractometer and urinometer; not reagent strip), the urine must have? A. Radiographic dye B. Plasma expander C. Urates D. A and B
D. A and B
26
26. A viscous semen that creates a thread longer than 2 cm is reported as A. Positive B. Reactive C. 0 – watery like D. 4
D. 4
27
27. Urine reagent strips should be stored in a A. Incubator B. Cool dry place – room temperature C. Refrigerator D. Freezer
B. Cool dry place – room temperature
28
28. If lymphocyte count from bronchoalveolar lavage (BAL) sample reaches >50%, this might indicate A. Granulomatous disease – mixed cells B. Viral infection C. Hypersensitivity D. DiGeorge – low T cell
C. Hypersensitivity
29
29. The protein section of urine reagent strip is most sensitive to: A. Albumin and large concentrated hemoglobin (+) reagent strip and SSA B. Bence Jones protein C. Mucoprotein D. Globulin
A. Albumin and large concentrated hemoglobin (+) reagent strip and SSA
30
30. The following will cause transudates: I. Nephrotic syndrome II. Congestive heart failure III. Endocarditis IV. Peptic ulcer A. AOTA B. III, IV C. I, II D. NOTA
C. I, II
31
31. Ascorbic acid causes false negative reactions in what urine reagent strip? A. Blood B. Bilirubin C. Leukocytes D. AOTA
D. AOTA
32
32. pKa change of polyelectrolyte is the principle used in what reagent strip test analysis? A. pH B. Protein C. Specific gravity D. Ketones
C. Specific gravity
33
33. In cadet proteinuria, 1st morning specimen will produce what result? A. False negative B. False positive C. Positive D. Negative
D. Negative
34
34. A milky pleural fluid was tested and shows: * Increase breakdown of cellular lipids * Weakly staining sudan * Pus cells I. Pseudochylous II. Chylous III. Chronic inflammation IV. Thoracic duct leakage A. I, III B. II, III C. I, IV D. II, IV
A. I, III
35
36. What are the largest cells found in the urinary sediments? A. Renal tubular cells B. Transitional epithelial cells C. Blood cells D. Squamous epithelial cells
D. Squamous epithelial cells
36
35. Seminal round cells are indicative of A. Presence of spermatid B. Presence of WBC C. Either A or B D. NOTA
C. Either A or B
37
37. Which of these urinary calculi are brown, smooth, and hard and have concentric laminations? A. Uric acid B. Oxalate C. Phosphate D. Ammonium urate
A. Uric acid
38
39. Sperm acrosomal cap is ___ the head and ___ of the nucleus A. 2/3, half B. ½, 2/3 C. ½, ¼ D. Half, ½
B. ½, 2/3
39
38. Provides objective determination of both sperm velocity and trajectory A. PACIA B. Coulter counter C. CASA D. NOTA
C. CASA
40
40. Which of the following are called “stairstep crystal” usually one or more of the corner are notched? A. Tyrosine B. Cystine C. Bilirubin D. Cholesterol
D. Cholesterol
41
41. A dead sperm will produce what color in modified bloom’s test? A. Red B. Bluish white C. Orange D. Brown
A. Red
42
42. It is a variation of the squamous epithelial cell which is indicative of vaginal infection by bacterium Gardnerella vaginalis A. RTE cell B. Clue cell / Shaggy cell C. Bubble cell D. Koilocyte
B. Clue cell / Shaggy cell
43
43. Rheumatoid arthritis cell or ragocytes have WBC with dark cytoplasmic granules containing: A. Round body B. Ingested neutrophil C. Immune complex D. NOTA
C. Immune complex
44
44. Stain that identifies yellow-brown granules of hemosiderin in cells and casts? A. Hansel B. Prussian blue C. Sternheimermalbin D. Oil red O
B. Prussian blue
45
45. Which of the following is a valuable aid in the identification of urine crystals? A. pH B. Specific gravity C. Volume D. Color
A. pH
46
46. Renal disease whose etiology is the deposition of anti-glomerular basement membrane antibody to glomerular and alveolar basement membranes: A. Berger’s disease B. Wegener’s granulomatosis C. Goodpasture syndrome D. Membranous glomerulonephritis
C. Goodpasture syndrome
47
48. Deposition of IgA on the glomerular membrane resulting from increase levels of IgA? A. IgA nephropathy B. Berger’s disease C. Nephrotic syndrome D. A and B
B. Berger’s disease
48
47. Cloudy red urine shows positive blood reagent strip, with dysmorphic RBC, (+) WBC, (-) nitrite, (+) protein, RBC broadcast (+), this indicates? A. Acute glomerulonephritis B. Hematuria C. Chronic glomerulonephritis D. AOTA
C. Chronic glomerulonephritis
49
50. What is the urine and blood albumin in nephrotic syndrome? A. Increase, decrease B. Decrease, increase C. Decrease, decrease D. Increase, increase
A. Increase, decrease
50
49. A 5-hour urine sample was tested for the cause of Steatorrhoea, it shows normal d-xylose, what is the cause of Steatorrhoea? A. Gall stone B. Gastroenteritis C. Crohn’s D. Irritable bowel syndrome
A. Gall stone

SPECIAL TOPICS 2 (FINALS) (4 decks)

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