Brainscape's Knowledge GenomeTM

Browse over 1 million classes created by top students, professors, publishers, and experts.


See full index

SPECIAL TOPICS 2 (FINALS) > AUBF > Flashcards

AUBF Flashcards

1
Q
  1. Designated tube intended for chemistry and serology in CSF?
    A. 1st
    B. 2nd
    C. 3rd
    D. 4th
A

A. 1st

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q
  1. Term used to describe CSF supernatant that is pink, orange, or yellow?
    A. Hemolyzed
    B. Pellicle
    C. Xanthochromia
    D. AOTA
A

C. Xanthochromia

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q
  1. The following descriptions, uneven blood distribution in 3 tubes, clear supernatant, presence of clot, but negative for erythrophage, are characteristics of
    A. Intracranial hemorrhage
    B. Traumatic tap
    C. Meningitis
    D. Hepatic coma
A

B. Traumatic tap

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q
  1. Abnormal condition where there is an increased number of normal cells in CSF
    A. Monocytosis
    B. Lymphocytosis
    C. Polycythemia
    D. Pleocytosis
A

D. Pleocytosis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q
  1. Centrifuge should be disinfected
    A. Monthly
    B. Weekly
    C. Every other shift
    D. Daily
A

B. Weekly

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q
  1. Which of the following results may be expected with the breakdown of urea by bacteria in a urine specimen?
    A. Negative glucose
    B. Negative nitrite
    C. Elevated pH
    D. Low pH
A

C. Elevated pH

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q
  1. The following lead/s to polyhydramnios:
    A. Spina bifida
    B. Anencephaly
    C. Umbilical cord compression
    D. A and B
A

D. A and B

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q
  1. Most of the solutes in urine are
    A. Urea and protein
    B. Urea and bilirubin
    C. Sodium and protein
    D. Urea and sodium chloride
A

D. Urea and sodium chloride

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q
  1. Normally, night urine volume of an adult would be how much?
    A. 1,000 mL
    B. 400 mL
    C. 600 mL
    D. 1,500 mL
A

B. 400 mL

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q
  1. Most of the glucose that is filtered through the glomerulus is reabsorbed in what part of the nephron?
    A. Proximal convoluted tubule
    B. Loop of Henle
    C. Collecting duct
    D. Distal convoluted tubule
A

A. Proximal convoluted tubule

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q
  1. Step-by-step documentation of handling and testing legal specimens:
    A. Chain of infection
    B. Mode of transmission
    C. Route of infection
    D. Chain of custody
A

D. Chain of custody

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q
  1. The MedTech staff received a urine specimen at 8 am, refrigerated it, and tested it at 12 pm. What tests will most likely be affected?
    A. Protein
    B. Glucose
    C. Ketones
    D. Specific gravity
A

D. Specific gravity

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q
  1. Used to monitor the course of multiple sclerosis?
    A. Rheumatoid factor
    B. Myelin basic protein
    C. Anti dsDNA
    D. Anti CCP
A

B. Myelin basic protein

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q
  1. Dark brown urine was seen with low pH after standing with (+) pseudo peroxidase chem test
    A. RBCs oxidized to methemoglobin
    B. Methyldopa
    C. Homogentistic acid
    D. Metronidazole
A

A. RBCs oxidized to methemoglobin

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q
  1. 3rd specimen is 10x WBC/HPF count and a bacterial count 10x that of the 1st specimen
    A. Pancreatitis
    B. Prostitis
    C. UTI
    D. Cystitis
A

B. Prostitis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q
  1. A mousy urine odor is associated with which of the following disorders?
    A. Tyrosinemia
    B. Trimethylaminuria
    C. Methionine malabsorption
    D. Phenylketonuria
A

D. Phenylketonuria

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q
  1. HCG bioassay using Aschheim-Zondek injects female’s urine to the subcutaneous tissue of the
    A. Male frog
    B. Female frog
    C. Male mice
    D. Female mice
A

D. Female mice

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q
  1. Product of ammonia that indicates a possible hematic coma
    A. CSF glutamine
    B. CSF lactate
    C. CSF glucose
    D. F2 isoprostanes
A

A. CSF glutamine

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q
  1. Calibration temperature of the urinometer is 20°. A refrigerated urine specimen with a temperature of 17° gives a specific gravity reading of 1.015. What is the correct reading?
    A. 1.015
    B. 1.014
    C. 1.013
    D. 1.016
A

B. 1.014

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q
  1. What is the principle of the automated reagent strip readers?
    A. Reflectance photometry
    B. Nephelometry
    C. Turbidimetry
    D. Dry slide technology
A

A. Reflectance photometry

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q
  1. Which of the following is abnormal?
    A. Sputum expectoration
    B. Sputum production
    C. Translucent sputum
    D. Presence of macrophage
A

A. Sputum expectoration

22
Q
  1. Urine clarity grading: “Few particulates, print easily seen through urine”
    A. Clear
    B. Hazy
    C. Cloudy
    D. Turbid
A

B. Hazy

23
Q
  1. Compute the creatinine clearance
    Urine volume: 2,000 mL in 24 hours
    Urine creatinine: 150 mg/dL
    Plasma creatine: 3 mg/dL
    Patient body surface: 1.8
    A. 66.7
    B. 105
    C. 32
    D. 95
A

A. 66.7

24
Q
  1. A milky urine compound dissolved after the addition of ether, the urine must have the following except?
    A. T. vaginalis
    B. Lymph fluids
    C. Lipids
    D. Chyle
A

A. T. vaginalis

25
Q
  1. Urine specific gravity is 1.040 (refractometer and urinometer; not reagent strip), the urine must have?
    A. Radiographic dye
    B. Plasma expander
    C. Urates
    D. A and B
A

D. A and B

26
Q
  1. A viscous semen that creates a thread longer than 2 cm is reported as
    A. Positive
    B. Reactive
    C. 0 – watery like
    D. 4
A

D. 4

27
Q
  1. Urine reagent strips should be stored in a
    A. Incubator
    B. Cool dry place – room temperature
    C. Refrigerator
    D. Freezer
A

B. Cool dry place – room temperature

28
Q
  1. If lymphocyte count from bronchoalveolar lavage (BAL) sample reaches >50%, this might indicate
    A. Granulomatous disease – mixed cells
    B. Viral infection
    C. Hypersensitivity
    D. DiGeorge – low T cell
A

C. Hypersensitivity

29
Q
  1. The protein section of urine reagent strip is most sensitive to:
    A. Albumin and large concentrated hemoglobin (+) reagent strip and SSA
    B. Bence Jones protein
    C. Mucoprotein
    D. Globulin
A

A. Albumin and large concentrated hemoglobin (+) reagent strip and SSA

30
Q
  1. The following will cause transudates:
    I. Nephrotic syndrome
    II. Congestive heart failure
    III. Endocarditis
    IV. Peptic ulcer
    A. AOTA
    B. III, IV
    C. I, II
    D. NOTA
A

C. I, II

31
Q
  1. Ascorbic acid causes false negative reactions in what urine reagent strip?
    A. Blood
    B. Bilirubin
    C. Leukocytes
    D. AOTA
A

D. AOTA

32
Q
  1. pKa change of polyelectrolyte is the principle used in what reagent strip test analysis?
    A. pH
    B. Protein
    C. Specific gravity
    D. Ketones
A

C. Specific gravity

33
Q
  1. In cadet proteinuria, 1st morning specimen will produce what result?
    A. False negative
    B. False positive
    C. Positive
    D. Negative
A

D. Negative

34
Q
  1. A milky pleural fluid was tested and shows:
    * Increase breakdown of cellular lipids
    * Weakly staining sudan
    * Pus cells
    I. Pseudochylous
    II. Chylous
    III. Chronic inflammation
    IV. Thoracic duct leakage
    A. I, III
    B. II, III
    C. I, IV
    D. II, IV
A

A. I, III

35
Q
  1. What are the largest cells found in the urinary sediments?
    A. Renal tubular cells
    B. Transitional epithelial cells
    C. Blood cells
    D. Squamous epithelial cells
A

D. Squamous epithelial cells

36
Q
  1. Seminal round cells are indicative of
    A. Presence of spermatid
    B. Presence of WBC
    C. Either A or B
    D. NOTA
A

C. Either A or B

37
Q
  1. Which of these urinary calculi are brown, smooth, and hard and have concentric laminations?
    A. Uric acid
    B. Oxalate
    C. Phosphate
    D. Ammonium urate
A

A. Uric acid

38
Q
  1. Sperm acrosomal cap is ___ the head and ___ of the nucleus
    A. 2/3, half
    B. ½, 2/3
    C. ½, ¼
    D. Half, ½
A

B. ½, 2/3

39
Q
  1. Provides objective determination of both sperm velocity and trajectory
    A. PACIA
    B. Coulter counter
    C. CASA
    D. NOTA
A

C. CASA

40
Q
  1. Which of the following are called “stairstep crystal” usually one or more of the corner are notched?
    A. Tyrosine
    B. Cystine
    C. Bilirubin
    D. Cholesterol
A

D. Cholesterol

41
Q
  1. A dead sperm will produce what color in modified bloom’s test?
    A. Red
    B. Bluish white
    C. Orange
    D. Brown
A

A. Red

42
Q
  1. It is a variation of the squamous epithelial cell which is indicative of vaginal infection by bacterium Gardnerella vaginalis
    A. RTE cell
    B. Clue cell / Shaggy cell
    C. Bubble cell
    D. Koilocyte
A

B. Clue cell / Shaggy cell

43
Q
  1. Rheumatoid arthritis cell or ragocytes have WBC with dark cytoplasmic granules containing:
    A. Round body
    B. Ingested neutrophil
    C. Immune complex
    D. NOTA
A

C. Immune complex

44
Q
  1. Stain that identifies yellow-brown granules of hemosiderin in cells and casts?
    A. Hansel
    B. Prussian blue
    C. Sternheimermalbin
    D. Oil red O
A

B. Prussian blue

45
Q
  1. Which of the following is a valuable aid in the identification of urine crystals?
    A. pH
    B. Specific gravity
    C. Volume
    D. Color
A

A. pH

46
Q
  1. Renal disease whose etiology is the deposition of anti-glomerular basement membrane antibody to glomerular and alveolar basement membranes:
    A. Berger’s disease
    B. Wegener’s granulomatosis
    C. Goodpasture syndrome
    D. Membranous glomerulonephritis
A

C. Goodpasture syndrome

47
Q
  1. Deposition of IgA on the glomerular membrane resulting from increase levels of IgA?
    A. IgA nephropathy
    B. Berger’s disease
    C. Nephrotic syndrome
    D. A and B
A

B. Berger’s disease

48
Q
  1. Cloudy red urine shows positive blood reagent strip, with dysmorphic RBC, (+) WBC, (-) nitrite, (+) protein, RBC broadcast (+), this indicates?
    A. Acute glomerulonephritis
    B. Hematuria
    C. Chronic glomerulonephritis
    D. AOTA
A

C. Chronic glomerulonephritis

49
Q
  1. What is the urine and blood albumin in nephrotic syndrome?
    A. Increase, decrease
    B. Decrease, increase
    C. Decrease, decrease
    D. Increase, increase
A

A. Increase, decrease

50
Q
  1. A 5-hour urine sample was tested for the cause of Steatorrhoea, it shows normal d-xylose, what is the cause of Steatorrhoea?
    A. Gall stone
    B. Gastroenteritis
    C. Crohn’s
    D. Irritable bowel syndrome
A

A. Gall stone

SPECIAL TOPICS 2 (FINALS) (4 decks)

Brainscape helps you reach your goals faster, through stronger study habits.
© 2024 Bold Learning Solutions. Terms and Conditions