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ST 2: Finals CC, MTL/Lab Man, AUBF, Micro > AUBF > Flashcards

AUBF Flashcards

1
Q

Designated tube intended for chemistry and serology in CSF?

A. 1st
B. 2nd
C. 3rd
D. 4th

A

A. 1st

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2
Q

Is a term used to describe CSF supernatant that is pink, orange, or yellow?
A. Hemolyzed
B. Pellicle
C. Xanthochromia
D. AOTA

A

C. Xanthochromia

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3
Q

The . description uneven blood distribution on 3 tubes, clear supernatant, presence of clot, but negative for erythrophage are characteristics of?
A. Intracranial hemorrhage
B. Traumatic tap
C. Meningitis
D. Hepatic coma

A

B. Traumatic tap

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4
Q

Abnormal condition where there is an increased number of normal cells in CSF
A. Monocytosis
B. Lymphocytosis
C. Polycythemia
D. Pleocytosis

A

D. Pleocytosis

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5
Q

Centrifuge should be disinfected
A. Monthly
B. Weekly
C. Every other shift
D. Daily

A

B. Weekly

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6
Q

Which of the following results may be expected with the breakdown of urea by bacteria in a urine specimen?
A. Negative glucose
B. Negative nitrite
C. Elevated pH
D. Low pH

A

C. Elevated pH

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7
Q

The following lead/s to polyhydramnios:
A. Spina bifida
B. Anencephaly
C. Umbilical cord compression
D.AandB

A

D.AandB

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8
Q

Most of the solutes in urine are:
A. Urea and protein
B. Urea and bilirubin
C. Sodium and protein
D. Urea and sodium chloride

A

D. Urea and sodium chloride

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9
Q

Normally, night urine volume on an adult would be how much?
A. 1000 mL
B. 400 mL
C. 600 mL
D. 1500 mL

A

B. 400 mL

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10
Q

Most of the glucose that is filtered through the glomerulus is reabsorbed in what part of the nephron?
A. Proximal tubule
B. Loof Henle
C. Collecting duct
D. Distal tubule

A

A. Proximal tubule

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11
Q

Step by step documentation of handling and testing of legal specimens
A. Chain of infection
B. Mode of transmission
C. Route of Infection
D. Chain of Custody

A

D. Chain of Custody

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12
Q

The medtech sta ff received a urine specimen at 8am and refrigerated it and tested it at 12pm, what tests will most likely be a ected?
A. Protein
B. Glucose
C. Ketones
D. Specific gravity

A

D. Specific gravity

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13
Q

Used to monitor the course of MULTIPLE SCLEROSIS?
A. Rheumatoid factor
B. Myelin basic protein
C. Anti dsDNA
D. Anti CCP

A

B. Myelin basic protein

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14
Q

Dark brown urine was seen in a urine with low pH after standing, with (+) pseudoperoxidase chem test?
A. RBCs oxidized to methemoglobin
B. Homogentisic acid
C. Methyldopa
D. Metronidazole

A

A. RBCs oxidized to methemoglobin

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15
Q

3rd specimen is 10x WBC/hpf count and a bacterial count 10x that of the 1st specimen
A. Pancreatitis
B. Prostatitis
C. UTI
D. Cystitis

A

B. Prostatitis

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16
Q

A mousy urine odor is associated with which of the following disorders?
A. Tyrosinemia
B. Trimethylaminuria
C. Methionine malabsorption
D. Phenylketonuria

A

D. Phenylketonuria

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17
Q

HCG bioassay using Ascheim-zondek injects female’s urine to the subcutaneous tissue of the:
A. Male frog
B. Female frog
C. Male mice
D. Female mice

A

D. Female mice

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18
Q

Product of ammonia that indicates a possible hepatic coma?
A. CSF glutamine
B. CSF lactate
C. CSF glucose
D. F2 isoprostanes

A

A. CSF glutamine

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19
Q

Calibration temperature of the urinometer is 20 degrees. A refrigerated urine specimen with a temperature of 17 degrees gives a specific gravity reading of 1.015. What is the correct reading?
A. 1.015
B. 1.014
C. 1.013
D. 1.016

A

B. 1.014

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20
Q

What is the principle of the automated reagent strip readers?
A. Reflectance Photometry
B. Nephelometry
C. Turbidimetry
D. Dry slide technology

A

A. Reflectance Photometry

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21
Q

Which of the following is abnormal?
A. Sputum expectoration
B. Sputum production
C. Translucent sputum
D. Presence of Macrophage

A

A. Sputum expectoration

22
Q

Urine clarity grading: “Few particulates, print easily through urine”.
A. Clear
B. Hazy
C. Cloudy
D. Turbid

A

B. Hazy

23
Q

Compute the creatinine clearance
Urine volume: 2,000 mL in 24 hr
Urine creatinine: 150 mg/dl
Plasma creatinine: 3 mg/dl
Patient body surface: 1.8
A. 66.7
B. 105
C. 32
D.95

A

A. 66.7

24
Q

A milky urine compounds dissolved after the addition of ether, the urine must have the EXCEPT?
A. T. vaginalis
B. Lymph fluids
C. Lipids
D. Chyle

A

A. T. vaginalis

25
Q

Urine Specific Gravity is 1.040, the urine must have?
A. Radiographic dye
B. Plasma expander
C. Amorphous urates
D. A and B

A

D. A and B

26
Q

A viscous semen that creates a thread longer than 2cm is reported as
A. Positive
B. Reactive
C. 0
D.4

A

4

27
Q

Urine reagent strips should be stored in a/an:
A. Incubator
B. Cool dry place
C. Refrigerator
D. Freezer

A

B. Cool dry place

28
Q

If lymphocyte count from bronchoalveolar lavage sample reaches >50%, this might indicate:
A. Granulomatous disease
B. Viral infection
C. Hypersensitivity
D. DiGeorge

A

C. Hypersensitivity

29
Q

The protein section of urine reagent strip is most sensitive to:
A. Albumin
B. Bence Jones Protein
C. Mucoprotein
D. Globulin

A

A. Albumin

30
Q

The following will cause transudates:
I. Nephrotic syndrome
II. Congestive heart failure
III. Endocarditis
IV. Peptic ulcer
A. AOTA
B. III, IV
C. I,II
D. NOTA

A

C. I,II

I. Nephrotic syndrome
II. Congestive heart failure

31
Q

Ascorbic acid causes false negative reactions in what urine reagent strip?
A. Blood
B. Bilirubin
C. Leukocyte
D. All of the above

A

D. All of the above

32
Q

pKa change of polyelectrolyte is the principle used in what reagent strip test analysis?
A. pH
B. Protein
C. Specific Gravity
D. Ketones

A

C. Specific Gravity

33
Q

In cadet proteinuria, the 1st morning specimen will produce what result?
A. False negative
B. False Positive
C. Positive
D. Negative

A

D. Negative

34
Q

A milky pleural fluid was tested and shows:
- Increase breakdown of cellular lipids
- Weakly staining sudan
- Pus Cells

I. Pseudochylous
II. Chylous
III. Chronic Inflammation
IV. Thoracic Duct Leakage

A. I, III
B. II, III
C. I, IV
D. II, IV

A

A. I, III

I. Pseudochylous
III. Chronic Inflammation

35
Q

Seminal round cells are indicative of:
A. Presence of spermatid
B. Presence of WBC
C. Either A or B
D. NOTA

A

C. Either A or B

36
Q

What are the largest cells found in the urinary sediments?
A. Renal Tubular Cells
B. Transitional Epithelial Cells
C. Blood Cells
D. Squamous Epithelial Cells

A

D. Squamous Epithelial Cells

37
Q

Which of these urinary calculi are brown, smooth, and hard and have concentric laminations?
A. Uric acid
B. Oxalate
C. Phosphate
D. Ammonium urate

A

A. Uric acid

38
Q

Provides objective determination of both SPERM velocity and trajectory?
A. PACIA
B. Coulter counter
C. CASA
D. NOTA

A

C. CASA

39
Q

Sperm acrosomal cap is _____ the head and _____ of the nucleus.
A. 2/3, half
B. 1/2, 2/3
C. 1/2, 1/4
D. Half, 1/2

A

B. 1/2, 2/3

40
Q

Which of the following are called “stairstep crystals” usually one or more of the corner are Notched?
A. Tyrosine
B. Crystine - incorrect word
C. Bilirubin
D. Cholesterol

A

D. Cholesterol

41
Q

A dead sperm will produce what color in a modified bloom’s test?
A. Red
B. Bluish white
C. Orange
D. Brown

A

A. Red

42
Q

It is a variation of the squamous epithelial cell which is indicative of vaginal infection by bacterium Gardnerella vaginalis
A. RTE cell
B. Clue cell/ Shaggy cell
C. Bubble cell
D. Koilocyte

A

B. Clue cell/ Shaggy cell

43
Q

Rheumatoid Arthritis (RA) cell or ragocytes have WBC with dark cytoplasmic granules containing:
A. Round body
B. Ingested neutrophil
C. Immune complex
D. NOTA

A

C. Immune complex

44
Q

Stain that Identifies yellow-brown granules of hemosiderin in cells and casts?
A. Hansel
B. Prussian blue
C. SternheimerMalbin
D.Oilredo

A

B. Prussian blue

45
Q

Which of the following is a valuable aid in the identification of urine crystals?
A. pH
B. Specific gravity
C. Volume
D. Color

A

A. pH

46
Q

Renal disease whose etiology is the deposition of anti-glomerular basement membrane antibody to glomerular and alveolar basement membranes
A. Berger’s disease
B. Wegener’s granulomatosis
C. Goodpasture syndrome
D. Membranous glomerulonephritis

A

C. Goodpasture syndrome

47
Q

Cloudy Red urine shows a positive blood reagent strip, with dysmorphic RBC, (+) WBC, (-) Nitrite, (+) Protein, RBC broadcast (+), this indicates?
A. Acute Glomerulonephritis
B. Hematuria
C. Chronic Glomerulonephritis
D. AOTA

A

C. Chronic Glomerulonephritis

48
Q

Deposition of IgA on the glomerular membrane resulting from increased levels of IgA?
A. Iga Nephropathy
B. Berger’s Disease
C. Nephrotic Syndrome
D. A and B.

A

B. Berger’s Disease

A: Angel’s Berger🍔

49
Q

A 5 hour urine sample was tested for the cause of Steatorrhea, it shows Normal D-xylose, what the cause of steatorrhea?
A. Gall stone
B. Gastroenteritis
C. Cronn’s
D. Irritable bowel Syndrome

A

A. Gall stone

50
Q

What is the urine and blood albumin in nephrotic syndrome?
A. increase, decrease
B. Decrease, increase
C. Decrease, decrease
D. Increase, Increase

A

A. increase, decrease

ST 2: Finals CC, MTL/Lab Man, AUBF, Micro (4 decks)

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