ATI NOTES Flashcards

1
Q

Pancuronium treats:

Acute respiratory depression syndrome (ARDS)

A

Neuromuscular blocking agent
Improves chest wall

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2
Q

Potassium food sources:

A

Bananas
Orange juice
Spinach

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3
Q

Take furosemide with _____

A

Milk

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4
Q

Ferrous sulfate: when to take it?

A

With meals
1 hour before bedtime

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5
Q

Important to infuse vancomycin over 60 minutes -

A

Prevent red man syndrome
(Rashes, flushing, and hypotension)

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6
Q

Cephalosporins for UTI- client education

A

Take oral medication with food
Take full course of medication

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7
Q

How should ceftriazxone be administered?

A

IM or IV

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8
Q

Amoxicillin client teaching

A

Instruct to take med on time and full course
Increase fluids
Report signs of rash, hives, itching or wheezing

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9
Q

Treatment for opioid use disorder

A

Methadone

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10
Q

Treatment for smoking cessation

A

Bupropion

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11
Q

Treatment from methamphetamine withdrawal

A

Modafinil

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12
Q

Mannitol adverse effect

A

Lung crackles

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13
Q

Adverse effect of fentanyl patches

A

Constipation

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14
Q

Gastric ulcer - famotidine adverse effect

A

Jaundice- Report yellowing of the skin

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15
Q

Filgrastim produces

A

Neutrophils

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16
Q

Ciprofloxacin (antibiotics) contraindications

A

Tendonitis
(Risk of tendon rupture)

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17
Q

Oxybutynin (anticholinergic) adverse effects

A

Dry mouth
Dry eyes
Blurred vision

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18
Q

Client takes aspirin daily - notify provider immediately

A

Hyperventilation
Might have acute salicylate poisoning - respiratory alkalosis

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19
Q

Which medication should a client use prior to physical activity?

A

Cromolyn

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20
Q

Clozapine (schizophrenia) - nurse should review what labs before administering?

A

Total cholesterol

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21
Q

Atropine eye drops - expected finding

A

Blurred vision

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22
Q

Risedronate (osteoporosis) client understanding

A

Sit up for 30 minutes after taking medication

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23
Q

Manifestations of diazepam toxicity

A

Respiratory depression
Hypotension

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24
Q

Diazepam antidote

A

Flumazenil

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25
Q

Digoxin toxicity manifestations

A

Yellow tinged vision
Nausea
Vomiting
Loss of appetite
Fatigue

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26
Q

Assess for positive chvostek’s and trousseau’s signs with

A

Hypomagnesemia

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27
Q

Ferrous Sulfate - do not take with

A

Antacids

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28
Q

Hypomagnesemia monitor for:

A

Disorientation and orientation

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29
Q

Liver function tests include

A

AST
ALT
ALP
Bilirubin
Albumin

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30
Q

Early manifestations of liver damage

A

Nausea
Vomiting
Diarrhea
Sweating
Abdominal discomfort — hepatic failure, coma and death

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31
Q

Impaired kidney function characteristics

A

Decreased urine output
Weight gain from fluid retention
Increased BUN & creatinine

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32
Q

Dehydration signs & symptoms

A

Dry mouth
Increased thirst
Oliguria
Lethargy

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33
Q

Alendronate (bisphosphonates) client teaching

A

Instruct client to sit upright for 30 minutes after taking medication

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34
Q

Bisphosphonates contraindications

A

Dysphagia
Esophageal disorders
Kidney impairment
Hypocalcemia

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35
Q

Individuals who cannot sit upright or stand for at least 30 minutes cannot take ____.

A

Bisphosphonate

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36
Q

What is cromolyn?

A

Mast cell stabilizer
Long term control

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37
Q

Esomeprazole (proton pump inhibitor) client teaching

A

Take 60 minutes before eating

38
Q

Levodopa (Parkinson’s) contraindications with what medication

A

Phenelzine
(MAOI) — hypertensive crisis

40
Q

What is abdominal distention a manifestation of?

A

An inflammatory intestinal disorder

41
Q

What are key precautions for a patient with AIDS?

A
  • Wash toothbrush weekly in dishwasher or in bleach solution
  • Avoid eating raw fruits and vegetables
  • Avoid drinking liquids that have stood for 60 minutes or more
  • Check temperature daily
42
Q

What indicates a positive response to prescribed HIV treatment?

A

Decreased viral load

43
Q

What is a priority assessment for acute cholecystitis?

A

Tachycardia

44
Q

What allergies are associated with propofol?

A

Peanuts & eggs

45
Q

Which medications alter skin allergy test results?

A
  • ACE inhibitors
  • Beta-blockers
  • Theophylline
  • Nifedipine
  • Glucocorticoids (prednisone)
46
Q

What teaching aids can help a patient with Alzheimer’s disease?

A
  • Easy-to-read clocks
  • Calendar on the wall
  • Complete outfits for daily selection
47
Q

What are adverse effects of Amphotericin B?

A
  • Nephrotoxic
  • Increased BUN or creatinine level
  • Decreased hematocrit
  • Bone marrow suppression
  • Hyponatremia
  • Hypokalemia
  • Hypomagnesemia
48
Q

What are the classic signs of appendicitis?

A
  • Right lower quadrant pain
  • Fever
  • Anorexia
49
Q

What precautions should be taken for bacterial meningitis?

A
  • Wear a mask
  • Keep room dim
  • Avoid bright light to reduce photophobia
50
Q

What is cardiac catheterization used for?

A

Measurement of coronary artery blood flow

51
Q

What are the symptoms of compartment syndrome?

A

Pain that increases with passive movement

52
Q

What are common symptoms of Crohn’s disease?

A
  • Blood in stool
  • Right lower quadrant pain
  • Fever
  • Anorexia
53
Q

What is Cushing’s Triad?

A
  • Bradycardia
  • Hypertension
  • Widening pulse pressure
54
Q

What are contraindications for a CT scan with IV contrast?

A
  • History of asthma
  • Allergies to contrast dye (shellfish, eggs, milk, chocolate)
55
Q

Who is at increased risk for renal failure when using contrast media?

A
  • Diabetes mellitus
  • Renal impairment
  • Heart failure
56
Q

What are the signs of Diabetes Insipidus (DI)?

A
  • Urine specific gravity between 1.001 and 1.005
  • Hypotension
  • Weak peripheral pulses
  • Polydipsia
  • Polyuria
57
Q

What is the management protocol for Diabetic Ketoacidosis (DKA)?

A
  • Hydration
  • Correcting acid-base imbalances
  • Decreasing blood glucose levels
58
Q

What should be available at bedside for a patient with dysphagia?

A

Suction machine

59
Q

Where should Enoxaparin be injected?

A

Anterolateral abdominal wall

60
Q

What is the goal of erythropoietin therapy?

A

Increase the level of hematocrit in clients who have anemia

61
Q

What is a risk associated with feverfew?

A

Risk for bleeding

62
Q

What are signs of hemorrhaging?

A
  • Increase in heart rate
  • Increase in respiratory rate
  • Slight increase in diastolic blood pressure
  • Decrease in systolic blood pressure
63
Q

What are the symptoms of hyperthyroidism?

A

High BP and risk for thyroid storm

64
Q

What indicates hypertonic dehydration?

A
  • Urine specific gravity greater than 1.030
  • Increased respiratory rate
  • Blood sodium level above expected range
65
Q

What infection prevention measures should be taken for chemotherapy patients?

A
  • Wear gloves when changing pet’s litter box
  • Wash fruits and vegetables thoroughly
  • Wash genital area with antimicrobial soap
  • Avoid drinking liquids out for more than 1 hour
66
Q

What dietary changes help manage Irritable Bowel Syndrome (IBS)?

A
  • Increase fiber intake to at least 30 grams per day
  • Consume at least 2 L of water daily
  • Avoid dairy products, raw fruits, grains that cause bloating
67
Q

What should be avoided when taking iron supplements?

A
  • Antacids
  • Dairy products
68
Q

What should be monitored after a laparotomy with a closed incision?

A
  • Signs of infection
  • Elevated temperature
  • Drainage from surgical wound
69
Q

What should be avoided when taking levothyroxine?

A

Calcium supplements within 4 hours

70
Q

What is Lyme disease caused by?

A

Vector-borne illness by the deer tick

71
Q

What are adverse effects of magnesium sulfate?

A
  • Respiratory paralysis
  • Depressed or absent reflexes
  • Depressed cardiac function
  • Systemic vasodilation and hypotension
72
Q

What is the care protocol for a partial thickness burn on the hand?

A
  • Wrap fingers individually
  • Perform ROM exercises every hour
  • Change dressing every 12 to 24 hours
73
Q

What indicates lung re-expansion in a pneumothorax?

A

Bubbling in the water seal chamber ceases

74
Q

What should be done post skin graft for full-thickness burns?

A
  • Elevate and immobilize the graft site
  • Prevent dislodging and promote revascularization
75
Q

What indicates pacemaker capture on an ECG?

A

Pacemaker artifact followed by a QRS complex

76
Q

What are symptoms of pernicious anemia?

A
  • Glossitis
  • Smooth red tongue
77
Q

What is the inspection protocol for a plaster cast?

A
  • One finger fit between cast and leg
  • Inspect for drainage and alignment every 8 to 12 hours
78
Q

What are signs of peripheral arterial disease?

A
  • Hair loss on lower legs
  • Painful ulcerations on toes
  • Pain relieved by dangling lower extremities
79
Q

What is the protocol for a drain after a radical mastectomy?

A

Drain remains for 1 to 3 weeks, removed when output is 25 mL or less

80
Q

What should be done to care for skin during radiation therapy?

A
  • Gently wash with warm water and mild soap
  • Avoid direct sunlight for at least 1 year
81
Q

What are the consequences of a right hemispheric stroke?

A
  • Visual spatial deficits
  • Left hemianopsia
  • One-sided neglect
82
Q

What precautions are necessary with a sealed radiation implant for cervical cancer?

A
  • Lead-lined container and forceps in the room
  • Limit visitor exposure to 30 minutes a day
83
Q

What does telemetry detect?

A

The ability of cardiac cells to generate electrical impulses

84
Q

What is the function of Transcutaneous Electrical Nerve Stimulation (TENS)?

A

Delivers small electric currents to the painful area

85
Q

When is a patient with tuberculosis no longer infectious?

A

After three negative sputum cultures

86
Q

What is the care protocol for a ureterostomy?

A
  • Cut skin barrier 0.3 cm wider than stoma
  • Avoid using moisturizing soaps
87
Q

What is the primary purpose of Warfarin therapy?

A

Decrease the risk of stroke, MI, PE from blood clots

88
Q

What should be done for a patient with gastric hemorrhage going into shock?

A
  • Administer oxygen
  • Initiate IV therapy
  • Insert NG tube
89
Q

What is famotidine used to treat?

A

Stomach ulcers

90
Q

What does inadequate urine output indicate?

A

Dehydration and delayed wound healing