ATI Ch 18, Substance Use and Addictive Disorders Flashcards

1
Q

What are substance use disorders related to?

A

Alcohol, caffeine, cannabis, hallucinogens, inhalants, opioids, sedatives/hypnotics/anxiolytics, stimulants, tobacco, and other substances.

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2
Q

What is a substance use disorder?

A

Involves repeated use of chemical substances, leading to clinically significant impairment during a 12-month period.

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3
Q

What are non-substance-related disorders?

A

Behavioral/process addictions such as gambling, sexual activity, shopping, social media, and internet gaming.

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4
Q

What are the key characteristics of substance use and addictive disorders?

A
  • Loss of control due to the substance use or behavior
  • Participation continues despite associated problems
  • Tendency to relapse into substance use or behavior.
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5
Q

What defense mechanism is commonly used by clients with substance use disorders?

A

Denial.

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6
Q

Give an example of denial in substance use.

A

“I can quit whenever I want to, but smoking really doesn’t cause me any problems.”

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7
Q

What are some risk factors for developing a substance use disorder?

A
  • Genetics
  • Adolescent population
  • Chronic stress
  • History of trauma
  • Lowered self-esteem
  • Lowered tolerance for pain and frustration
  • Few meaningful personal relationships
  • Few life successes
  • Risk-taking tendencies.
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8
Q

What protective factors can reduce the risk of substance use disorders?

A
  • Positive family support
  • Social relationships
  • Self-esteem
  • Caregiver involvement
  • Availability of community resources
  • Employment.
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9
Q

Which cultures have a high percentage of alcohol use disorder?

A

Alaska natives and Native American groups.

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10
Q

Which cultures have a low rate of alcohol use disorder?

A

Asian groups.

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11
Q

What sociocultural factors can increase the likelihood of substance use?

A
  • Peer pressure
  • Cultural views on alcohol use.
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12
Q

What can lead older adults to develop patterns of alcohol/substance use?

A

Life stressors such as losing a partner, retirement, or social isolation.

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13
Q

What type of questions should a nurse use to obtain nursing history related to substance use?

A

Open-ended questions.

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14
Q

What information should be obtained in the nursing history for substance use?

A
  • Type of substance or addictive behavior
  • Pattern and frequency of substance use
  • Amount of substance used
  • Age at onset of substance use
  • Changes in occupational or school performance
  • Changes in use patterns
  • Periods of abstinence in history
  • Previous withdrawal manifestations
  • Date of last substance use or addictive behavior.
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15
Q

List some expected findings in a review of systems for substance use disorders.

A
  • Blackout or loss of consciousness
  • Changes in bowel movements
  • Weight loss or weight gain
  • Experience of stressful situation
  • Sleep problems
  • Chronic pain
  • Concern over substance use
  • Cutting down on consumption or behavior.
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16
Q

What is the rate of substance use among clients aged 18 to 25?

A

It is highest in this age group.

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17
Q

How does the age at initial substance use relate to the development of substance use disorders?

A

The younger the person is at the time of initial substance use, the higher the incidence of developing a substance use disorder.

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18
Q

What trend has been observed regarding cocaine use among adolescents?

A

Cocaine use is decreased among adolescents.

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19
Q

What percentage of the adolescent population reports access to marijuana?

A

About half.

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20
Q

What are substance use disorders related to?

A

Alcohol, caffeine, cannabis, hallucinogens, inhalants, opioids, sedatives/hypnotics/anxiolytics, stimulants, tobacco, and other substances.

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21
Q

What is a substance use disorder?

A

Involves repeated use of chemical substances, leading to clinically significant impairment during a 12-month period.

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22
Q

What are non-substance-related disorders?

A

Behavioral/process addictions such as gambling, sexual activity, shopping, social media, and internet gaming.

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23
Q

What are the key characteristics of substance use and addictive disorders?

A
  • Loss of control due to the substance use or behavior
  • Participation continues despite associated problems
  • Tendency to relapse into substance use or behavior.
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24
Q

What defense mechanism is commonly used by clients with substance use disorders?

A

Denial.

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25
Q

Give an example of denial in substance use.

A

“I can quit whenever I want to, but smoking really doesn’t cause me any problems.”

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26
Q

What are some risk factors for developing a substance use disorder?

A
  • Genetics
  • Adolescent population
  • Chronic stress
  • History of trauma
  • Lowered self-esteem
  • Lowered tolerance for pain and frustration
  • Few meaningful personal relationships
  • Few life successes
  • Risk-taking tendencies.
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27
Q

What protective factors can reduce the risk of substance use disorders?

A
  • Positive family support
  • Social relationships
  • Self-esteem
  • Caregiver involvement
  • Availability of community resources
  • Employment.
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28
Q

Which cultures have a high percentage of alcohol use disorder?

A

Alaska natives and Native American groups.

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29
Q

Which cultures have a low rate of alcohol use disorder?

A

Asian groups.

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30
Q

What sociocultural factors can increase the likelihood of substance use?

A
  • Peer pressure
  • Cultural views on alcohol use.
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31
Q

What can lead older adults to develop patterns of alcohol/substance use?

A

Life stressors such as losing a partner, retirement, or social isolation.

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32
Q

What type of questions should a nurse use to obtain nursing history related to substance use?

A

Open-ended questions.

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33
Q

What information should be obtained in the nursing history for substance use?

A
  • Type of substance or addictive behavior
  • Pattern and frequency of substance use
  • Amount of substance used
  • Age at onset of substance use
  • Changes in occupational or school performance
  • Changes in use patterns
  • Periods of abstinence in history
  • Previous withdrawal manifestations
  • Date of last substance use or addictive behavior.
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34
Q

List some expected findings in a review of systems for substance use disorders.

A
  • Blackout or loss of consciousness
  • Changes in bowel movements
  • Weight loss or weight gain
  • Experience of stressful situation
  • Sleep problems
  • Chronic pain
  • Concern over substance use
  • Cutting down on consumption or behavior.
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35
Q

What is the rate of substance use among clients aged 18 to 25?

A

It is highest in this age group.

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36
Q

How does the age at initial substance use relate to the development of substance use disorders?

A

The younger the person is at the time of initial substance use, the higher the incidence of developing a substance use disorder.

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37
Q

What trend has been observed regarding cocaine use among adolescents?

A

Cocaine use is decreased among adolescents.

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38
Q

What percentage of the adolescent population reports access to marijuana?

A

About half.

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39
Q

What risks does substance use while pregnant create for infants?

A

Increased likelihood of prematurity, low birth weight, and neonatal abstinence syndrome

Neonatal abstinence syndrome occurs when infants experience withdrawal symptoms from substances their mothers used during pregnancy.

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40
Q

What are some concerning behaviors of healthcare providers that may indicate drug diversion?

A
  • Volunteering for overtime
  • Coming to work on days not scheduled
  • Deteriorating appearance and job performance
  • Mood swings
  • Forgetting
  • Lying

These behaviors may signal substance abuse issues in healthcare settings.

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41
Q

What are the effects of substance use in older adults?

A
  • Prone to falls and injuries
  • Memory loss
  • Somatic reports (headaches)
  • Changes in sleep patterns

Older adults may experience exacerbated effects from substances due to age-related physiological changes.

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42
Q

What are indications of alcohol use in older adults?

A
  • Decrease in self-care ability (functional status)
  • Urinary incontinence
  • Manifestations of dementia

Alcohol can affect older adults at lower doses than younger adults.

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43
Q

What is polypharmacy and why is it a concern for older adults?

A

The use of multiple medications, raising the likelihood of adverse effects such as confusion and falls

Age-related physiological changes can increase the risk of drug interactions.

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44
Q

Name some standardized screening tools for substance use.

A
  • Michigan Alcohol Screening Test (MAST)
  • Drug Abuse Screening Test (DAST)
  • CAGE Questionnaire
  • Alcohol Use Disorders Identification Test (AUDIT)
  • Clinical Institute Withdrawal Assessment of Alcohol Scale, Revised (CIWA-Ar)
  • Clinical Opiate Withdrawal Scale
  • Screening, Brief Intervention and Referral to Treatment (SBIRT)

These tools are used to identify substance use issues and promote safer drinking.

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45
Q

What are designer or club drugs?

A

Substances like ecstasy that can combine drugs from different categories, producing varying effects of intoxication or withdrawal

The effects can be unpredictable due to the combination of substances.

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46
Q

What are opioid agonists and their intended effects?

A

Opioid agonists attach to CNS receptors, altering perception of and response to pain, leading to generalized CNS depression

Common opioid agonists include heroin, morphine, and hydromorphone.

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47
Q

What are the effects of opioid intoxication?

A
  • Slurred speech
  • Impaired memory
  • Pupillary changes
  • Decreased respirations and level of consciousness
  • Maladaptive behavioral changes

These effects can lead to death in severe cases.

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48
Q

What are the withdrawal manifestations of opioid use?

A
  • Sweating
  • Rhinorrhea
  • Piloerection (gooseflesh)
  • Tremors
  • Irritability
  • Severe weakness
  • Diarrhea
  • Fever
  • Insomnia
  • Pupil dilation
  • Nausea and vomiting
  • Muscle pain and spasms

Withdrawal is very unpleasant but not typically life-threatening.

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49
Q

What are the risks associated with CNS depressants?

A

Physiological and psychological dependence, cross-tolerance, cross-dependency, and an additive effect when taken with other substances

Common CNS depressants include alcohol and benzodiazepines.

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50
Q

What is the legal blood alcohol concentration (BAC) limit for operating a vehicle in most U.S. states?

A

0.08% (80 mg/dL)

Acute toxicity can occur at levels greater than about 0.4% (400 mg/dL), which can be fatal.

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51
Q

What are fetal alcohol syndrome symptoms?

A
  • Microcephaly
  • Craniofacial malformations
  • Limb and heart defects
  • Developmental problems

These symptoms result from alcohol exposure during pregnancy.

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52
Q

What are the intended effects of alcohol use?

A

Relaxation and decreased social anxiety

However, excessive use can lead to serious health issues.

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53
Q

What are the effects of excess alcohol intoxication?

A
  • Slurred speech
  • Nystagmus
  • Memory impairment
  • Altered judgment
  • Decreased motor skills
  • Respiratory arrest
  • Possible death

Chronic use can lead to significant health problems including liver damage.

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54
Q

What are common withdrawal manifestations from alcohol?

A

Abdominal cramping, vomiting, tremors, restlessness, inability to sleep, increased heart rate, transient hallucinations or illusions, anxiety, increased blood pressure, respiratory rate, temperature, and tonic-clonic seizures.

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55
Q

When can alcohol withdrawal delirium occur after cessation of alcohol?

A

2 to 3 days after cessation.

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56
Q

What are the manifestations of alcohol withdrawal delirium?

A

Severe disorientation, psychotic manifestations, severe hypertension, cardiac dysrhythmias, and delirium.

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57
Q

What is considered a medical emergency related to alcohol withdrawal?

A

Alcohol withdrawal delirium.

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58
Q

What types of substances are included in sedatives/hypnotics/anxiolytics?

A

Benzodiazepines, barbiturates, and club drugs.

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59
Q

What is the intended effect of sedatives like benzodiazepines?

A

Decreased anxiety, sedation.

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60
Q

List some effects of intoxication from sedatives.

A
  • Increased drowsiness and sedation
  • Agitation
  • Slurred speech
  • Uncoordinated motor activity
  • Nystagmus
  • Disorientation
  • Nausea
  • Vomiting
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61
Q

What can be fatal as a result of sedative intoxication?

A

Respiratory depression and decreased level of consciousness.

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62
Q

What antidote is available for benzodiazepine toxicity?

A

Flumazenil.

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63
Q

Is there an antidote for barbiturate toxicity?

A

No.

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64
Q

What are withdrawal manifestations from sedatives?

A
  • Anxiety
  • Insomnia
  • Diaphoresis
  • Hypertension
  • Possible psychotic reactions
  • Hand tremors
  • Nausea
  • Vomiting
  • Hallucinations or illusions
  • Psychomotor agitation
  • Possible seizure activity
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65
Q

What substances can be smoked or orally ingested as cannabis?

A

Marijuana or hashish.

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66
Q

What are the intended effects of cannabis?

A
  • Euphoria
  • Sedation
  • Hallucinations
  • Decrease of nausea and vomiting
  • Management of chronic pain
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67
Q

What are effects of intoxication from chronic cannabis use?

A
  • Increased risk for lung cancer
  • Cannabis use disorder
  • Paranoia
  • Increased appetite
  • Dry mouth
  • Tachycardia
  • Impaired motor skills
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68
Q

What can synthetic cannabinoids like K2 and Spice be associated with?

A

Toxic doses.

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69
Q

What are withdrawal manifestations from cannabis?

A
  • Anxiety
  • Insomnia
  • Lack of appetite
  • Nausea
  • Abdominal pain
  • Tremors
  • Fever
  • Headache
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70
Q

How can cocaine be consumed?

A

Injected, smoked, or inhaled.

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71
Q

What are the intended effects of cocaine?

A
  • Rush of euphoria
  • Increased energy
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72
Q

List some effects of cocaine intoxication.

A
  • Dizziness
  • Irritability
  • Tremor
  • Blurred vision
  • Hallucinations
  • Seizures
  • Extreme fever
  • Tachycardia
  • Hypertension
  • Chest pain
  • Possible cardiovascular collapse and death
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73
Q

What are withdrawal manifestations from cocaine?

A
  • Depression
  • Fatigue
  • Craving
  • Excess sleeping or insomnia
  • Dramatic unpleasant dreams
  • Psychomotor retardation
  • Agitation
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74
Q

What are the intended effects of amphetamines/methamphetamines?

A

Increased energy, euphoria.

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75
Q

What are effects of intoxication from amphetamines/methamphetamines?

A
  • Impaired judgment
  • Psychomotor agitation
  • Hypervigilance
  • Extreme irritability
  • Acute cardiovascular effects
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76
Q

What are withdrawal manifestations from amphetamines/methamphetamines?

A
  • Craving
  • Depression
  • Fatigue
  • Sleeping
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77
Q

What substances are considered inhalants?

A

Amyl nitrate, nitrous oxide, and solvents.

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78
Q

What are the intended effects of inhalants?

A

Euphoria.

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79
Q

List general effects of intoxication from inhalants.

A
  • Behavioral or psychological changes
  • Dizziness
  • Nystagmus
  • Uncoordinated movements
  • Slurred speech
  • Drowsiness
  • Hyporeflexia
  • Muscle weakness
  • Diplopia
  • Stupor or coma
  • Respiratory depression
  • Possible death
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80
Q

What are withdrawal manifestations from inhalants?

A

None.

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81
Q
A
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82
Q

What are examples of hallucinogens?

A

Lysergic acid diethylamide (LSD), mescaline (peyote), phencyclidine piperidine (PCP)

These substances are usually ingested orally but can also be injected or smoked.

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83
Q

What are the intended effects of hallucinogens?

A

Heightened sense of self and altered perceptions

Colors may appear more vivid while under the influence.

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84
Q

What are common effects of intoxication from hallucinogens?

A
  • Anxiety
  • Depression
  • Paranoia
  • Impaired judgment
  • Impaired social functioning
  • Pupil dilation
  • Tachycardia
  • Diaphoresis
  • Palpitations
  • Blurred vision
  • Tremors
  • Incoordination
  • Panic attacks
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85
Q

What is hallucinogen persisting perception disorder?

A

Visual disturbances or flashback hallucinations can occur intermittently for years.

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86
Q

What are common sources of caffeine?

A
  • Cola drinks
  • Coffee
  • Tea
  • Chocolate
  • Energy drinks
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87
Q

What are the intended effects of caffeine?

A

Increased level of alertness and decreased fatigue.

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88
Q

What are the effects of caffeine intoxication?

A
  • Tachycardia
  • Arrhythmias
  • Flushed face
  • Muscle twitching
  • Restlessness
  • Diuresis
  • GI disturbances
  • Anxiety
  • Insomnia
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89
Q

What are withdrawal manifestations of caffeine?

A
  • Headache
  • Nausea
  • Vomiting
  • Muscle pain
  • Irritability
  • Inability to focus
  • Drowsiness

Withdrawal can occur within 24 hours of last consumption.

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90
Q

What effects does nicotine have on the brain?

A

Affects nicotinic receptors in the brain, carotid body, aortic arch, and CNS.

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91
Q

What are the intended effects of nicotine?

A

Relaxation and decreased anxiety.

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92
Q

What are the effects of nicotine intoxication?

A
  • Highly toxic
  • Acute toxicity seen only in children or with exposure to nicotine in pesticides
  • Long-term effects include:
    • Cardiovascular disease (hypertension, stroke)
    • Respiratory disease (emphysema, lung cancer)
    • Oral irritation and cancer from smokeless tobacco
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93
Q

What are withdrawal manifestations of nicotine?

A
  • Irritability
  • Craving
  • Nervousness
  • Restlessness
  • Anxiety
  • Insomnia
  • Increased appetite
  • Difficulty concentrating
  • Anger
  • Depressed mood
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94
Q

What is a crucial aspect of nursing care during acute intoxication or withdrawal?

A

Safety is the primary focus.

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95
Q

What should a nurse do to maintain a safe environment for clients experiencing withdrawal?

A
  • Prevent falls
  • Implement seizure precautions as necessary
  • Provide close observation for withdrawal manifestations
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96
Q

What nursing intervention should be a last resort?

A

Physical restraint.

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97
Q

What should a nurse do to support a client during withdrawal?

A
  • Orient the client to time, place, and person
  • Maintain adequate nutrition and fluid balance
  • Create a low-stimulation environment
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98
Q

What is included in patient-centered care for clients with substance use disorders?

A
  • Provide emotional support and reassurance
  • Educate the client and family about codependent behaviors
  • Begin to educate about addiction and treatment goals
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99
Q

What should be encouraged regarding prescription medications in the home?

A

Remove any that are not being used and discourage sharing medications.

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100
Q

What is an important aspect of developing a recovery plan for clients?

A

Help the client develop an emergency plan.

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101
Q

What should nurses encourage clients to attend?

A

Self-help groups.

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102
Q

What does dual diagnosis refer to?

A

The presence of both a mental health disorder and a substance use or addictive disorder

For example, an individual may have depression and an addiction to alcohol.

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103
Q

Why is a team approach necessary in treating dual diagnosis?

A

Both disorders need to be treated simultaneously

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104
Q

What are cognitive behavioral therapies used for?

A

To decrease anxiety and change behavior

Examples include relaxation techniques and cognitive reframing.

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105
Q

What does Acceptance and Commitment Therapy (ACT) promote?

A

Acceptance of the client’s experiences and commitment to positive behavior changes

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106
Q

What is the purpose of relapse prevention therapy?

A

To assist clients in identifying the potential for relapse and promote behavioral self-control

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107
Q

What is the format of group therapy?

A

Groups of clients with similar diagnoses meet in outpatient settings or mental health residential facilities

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108
Q

What common behavior does family therapy address?

A

Codependency demonstrated by significant others or family members of individuals with substance or process dependency

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109
Q

How does a codependent person typically react?

A

In over-responsible ways that allow the dependent individual to continue substance use or addiction

110
Q

What should families learn about in family therapy?

A

Use of specific substances and issues such as family coping, problem-solving, and indications of relapse

111
Q

What is one goal of client education regarding relapse?

A

To teach the client to recognize indications of relapse and factors that contribute to it

112
Q

What cognitive-behavioral techniques should clients learn?

A

Techniques to help maintain sobriety and create feelings of pleasure from non-substance activities

113
Q

What is encouraged for clients and families to attend?

A

12-step programs such as Alcoholics Anonymous and family groups like Al-Anon

114
Q

What are some key teachings of 12-step programs?

A
  • Abstinence is necessary for recovery
  • A higher power is needed to assist in recovery
  • Clients are not responsible for their disease but are responsible for their recovery
  • They must acknowledge their feelings and problems
115
Q

What is the significance of abstinence syndrome?

A

It occurs when a client abruptly withdraws from a substance on which they are physically dependent

116
Q

What is tolerance in the context of substance use disorders?

A

When a client requires increased amounts of the substance to achieve the desired effect

117
Q

What happens during withdrawal from a substance?

A

The concentration of the substance in the bloodstream declines, leading to physiological adverse effects

118
Q

What can potentially life-threatening manifestations occur from?

A

Withdrawing from a substance that has the potential to cause abstinence syndrome

119
Q

What socioeconomic factors could impact a client’s social determinants of health?

A

Recent job loss, financial stress, transportation issues, and lack of insurance

120
Q

What questions should the nurse ask to determine social determinants of health?

A

Questions related to the client’s living situation, social support, and access to resources

121
Q

Name some community partnerships related to SDOH that mental health nurses can explore.

A

Partnerships with local health services, housing organizations, and employment assistance programs

122
Q

When do alcohol withdrawal manifestations typically start?

A

4 to 12 hours after the last intake of alcohol

Alcohol withdrawal manifestations can continue for 5 to 7 days.

123
Q

What are common manifestations of alcohol withdrawal?

A
  • Nausea
  • Vomiting
  • Tremors
  • Restlessness and inability to sleep
  • Depressed mood or irritability
  • Increased heart rate, blood pressure, respiratory rate, and temperature
  • Diaphoresis
  • Tonic-clonic seizures
  • Illusions
124
Q

What is alcohol withdrawal delirium and when can it occur?

A

It can occur 2 to 3 days after cessation of alcohol

It is considered a medical emergency with severe manifestations.

125
Q

List severe manifestations of alcohol withdrawal delirium.

A
  • Severe disorientation
  • Psychotic effects (hallucinations)
  • Severe hypertension
  • Cardiac dysthythmias
126
Q

What are the withdrawal manifestations of opioids?

A
  • Agitation
  • Insomnia
  • Flu-like manifestations
  • Rhinorrhea
  • Yawning
  • Sweating
  • Diarrhea
127
Q

True or False: Opioid withdrawal manifestations are life-threatening.

A

False

However, suicidal ideation can occur.

128
Q

What symptoms characterize tobacco (nicotine) abstinence syndrome?

A
  • Irritability
  • Nervousness
  • Restlessness
  • Insomnia
  • Difficulty concentrating
129
Q

What medications are commonly used for alcohol withdrawal?

A
  • Chlordiazepoxide
  • Diazepam
  • Lorazepam
  • Oxazepam
130
Q

What are the intended effects of benzodiazepines in alcohol withdrawal?

A
  • Maintenance of vital signs within expected reference ranges
  • Decrease in the risk of seizures
  • Decrease in the intensity of withdrawal manifestations
  • Substitution therapy during alcohol withdrawal
131
Q

What nursing actions should be taken during alcohol withdrawal?

A
  • Administer around-the-clock or PRN
  • Obtain baseline vital signs
  • Monitor vital signs and neurologic status on an ongoing basis
  • Provide for seizure precautions
132
Q

List adjunct medications for alcohol withdrawal.

A
  • Carbamazepine
  • Clonidine
  • Propranolol
  • Atenolol
133
Q

What is the intended effect of carbamazepine in alcohol withdrawal?

A

Decrease in seizures

134
Q

What are the intended effects of clonidine, propranolol, and atenolol in alcohol withdrawal?

A
  • Depression of autonomic response (decrease in blood pressure, heart rate)
  • Decrease in craving
135
Q

What nursing actions are required for adjunct medications?

A
  • Implement seizure precautions
  • Obtain baseline vital signs and continue to monitor
  • Check heart rate prior to administering propranolol, and withhold if less than 60/min
136
Q

What is disulfiram used for in abstinence maintenance?

A

It is a daily oral medication that acts as a type of aversion (behavioral) therapy.

137
Q

What happens when disulfiram is used concurrently with alcohol?

A

It causes acetaldehyde syndrome

Symptoms include nausea, vomiting, weakness, sweating, palpitations, and hypotension.

138
Q

What are potential severe effects of acetaldehyde syndrome?

A
  • Respiratory depression
  • Cardiovascular suppression
  • Seizures
  • Death
139
Q

What client education is essential for those taking disulfiram?

A
  • Drinking any alcohol is potentially dangerous
  • Avoid products containing alcohol
  • Wear a medical alert bracelet
  • Participate in a self-help program
  • Medication effects can persist for 2 weeks after discontinuation
140
Q

What is naltrexone and its intended effects?

A

A pure opioid antagonist that suppresses the craving and pleasurable effects of alcohol.

141
Q

What nursing actions should be taken when administering naltrexone?

A
  • Assess the client’s history for opioid dependency
  • Suggest monthly IM injections for adherence
142
Q

What is a key client education point for taking naltrexone?

A

Take with meals to decrease gastrointestinal distress.

144
Q

What is the typical onset time for alcohol withdrawal manifestations after the last intake?

A

4 to 12 hours

Alcohol withdrawal can continue for 5 to 7 days.

145
Q

List common manifestations of alcohol withdrawal.

A
  • Nausea
  • Vomiting
  • Tremors
  • Restlessness
  • Inability to sleep
  • Depressed mood or irritability
  • Increased heart rate
  • Increased blood pressure
  • Increased respiratory rate
  • Increased temperature
  • Diaphoresis
  • Tonic-clonic seizures
  • Illusions
146
Q

What is alcohol withdrawal delirium and when does it occur?

A

Occurs 2 to 3 days after cessation of alcohol

Considered a medical emergency.

147
Q

What are the manifestations of alcohol withdrawal delirium?

A
  • Severe disorientation
  • Psychotic effects (hallucinations)
  • Severe hypertension
  • Cardiac dysrhythmias
148
Q

What is the time frame for opioid withdrawal manifestations to occur?

A

Within hours to several days after cessation

Opioid withdrawal symptoms are not life-threatening.

149
Q

List common findings of opioid withdrawal.

A
  • Agitation
  • Insomnia
  • Flu-like manifestations
  • Rhinorrhea
  • Yawning
  • Sweating
  • Diarrhea
150
Q

What is evidenced by tobacco (nicotine) abstinence syndrome?

A
  • Irritability
  • Nervousness
  • Restlessness
  • Insomnia
  • Difficulty concentrating
151
Q

What are some other substances associated with substance use disorder?

A
  • Cannabis
  • Hallucinogens
  • Inhalants
  • Sedatives/hypnotics
  • Stimulants
152
Q

List some benzodiazepines used for alcohol withdrawal.

A
  • Chlordiazepoxide
  • Diazepam
  • Lorazepam
  • Oxazepam
153
Q

What are the intended effects of benzodiazepines during alcohol withdrawal?

A
  • Maintenance of vital signs within expected reference ranges
  • Decrease in the risk of seizures
  • Decrease in the intensity of withdrawal manifestations
154
Q

What nursing actions should be taken when administering benzodiazepines?

A
  • Administer on a scheduled or PRN basis
  • Obtain baseline vital signs
  • Monitor vital signs and neurologic status on an ongoing basis
  • Provide for seizure precautions
155
Q

List adjunct medications used in alcohol withdrawal.

A
  • Carbamazepine
  • Clonidine
  • Propranolol
  • Atenolol
156
Q

What is the intended effect of carbamazepine during alcohol withdrawal?

A

Decrease in seizures

157
Q

What are the intended effects of clonidine, propranolol, and atenolol?

A
  • Depression of autonomic response (decrease in blood pressure, heart rate)
  • Decrease in craving
158
Q

What nursing actions should be taken when administering adjunct medications?

A
  • Implement seizure precautions
  • Obtain baseline vital signs and continue to monitor
  • Check heart rate prior to administration of propranolol, and withhold if less than 60/min
159
Q

What is the purpose of disulfiram in abstinence maintenance?

A

It is a daily oral medication that acts as aversion therapy.

160
Q

What happens when disulfiram is used concurrently with alcohol?

A

Causes acetaldehyde syndrome

Effects include nausea, vomiting, weakness, sweating, palpitations, and hypotension.

161
Q

What are the potential severe effects of acetaldehyde syndrome?

A
  • Respiratory depression
  • Cardiovascular suppression
  • Seizures
  • Death
162
Q

What nursing actions should be taken when a client is on disulfiram?

A

Monitor liver function tests to detect hepatotoxicity.

163
Q

What client education should be provided regarding disulfiram?

A
  • Drinking any alcohol is potentially dangerous
  • Avoid products containing alcohol
  • Wear a medical alert bracelet
  • Participate in a self-help program
  • Medication effects persist for 2 weeks after discontinuation
164
Q

What is naltrexone and its intended effect?

A

A pure opioid antagonist that suppresses craving and pleasurable effects of alcohol.

165
Q

What nursing actions should be taken when administering naltrexone?

A
  • Assess the client’s history for opioid dependence
  • Suggest monthly IM injections for adherence
166
Q

What client education should be provided for those taking naltrexone?

A

Take naltrexone with meals to decrease gastrointestinal distress.

167
Q

What is the intended effect of Acamprosate?

A

To reduce the unpleasant effects of abstinence (dysphoria, anxiety, testiness)

Acamprosate is taken orally three times a day.

168
Q

What should clients be educated about when taking Acamprosate?

A

Diarrhea can occur; maintain adequate fluid intake to prevent dehydration

Avoid use in pregnancy.

169
Q

What is Methadone substitution used for?

A

Withdrawal and long-term maintenance

It is an oral opioid agonist that replaces the opioid to which the client is physically dependent.

170
Q

What are some nursing actions for a client on Methadone substitution?

A
  • Encourage participation in a 12-step program
  • Inform about slow tapering of the methadone dose for detoxification
  • Medication must be administered from an approved treatment center
171
Q

What are the intended effects of Clonidine?

A

To mitigate withdrawal effects related to autonomic hyperactivity (diarrhea, nausea, vomiting)

Clonidine therapy does not reduce the craving for opioids.

172
Q

What should be included in client education for Clonidine?

A
  • Avoid activities requiring mental alertness until drowsiness subsides
  • Suck on hard candy and sip small amounts of water to treat dry mouth
173
Q

What is Buprenorphine used for?

A

For withdrawal and maintenance in opioid dependence

It is an agonist-antagonist opioid that decreases feelings of craving.

174
Q

What distinguishes Buprenorphine from Methadone in terms of prescription?

A

A primary care provider can prescribe and dispense Buprenorphine

Methadone must be administered through an approved treatment center.

175
Q

What is Naloxone?

A

A specific opioid antagonist used to reverse respiratory depression, coma, and other effects of opioid toxicity

It can be given IM, SQ, IV, or via inhalation.

176
Q

What is Flumazenil?

A

A competitive benzodiazepine receptor antagonist that can reverse sedative effects and toxicity

Administered IV.

177
Q

What should clients avoid when using nicotine products?

A

Using any nicotine products while pregnant or breastfeeding.

178
Q

What is the intended effect of Bupropion?

A

Decreases nicotine craving and manifestations of withdrawal.

179
Q

What client education should be provided for Bupropion?

A
  • Chew sugarless gum
  • Suck on ice chips or hard candy
  • Sip on small amounts of water
  • Avoid caffeine and other CNS stimulants to control insomnia
180
Q

What are some forms of nicotine replacement therapy?

A
  • Nicotine gum
  • Nicotine patch
  • Nicotine nasal spray
  • Nicotine lozenges
  • Nicotine inhaler
181
Q

What is the intended effect of nicotine replacements?

A

Pharmaceutical substitutes for the nicotine in cigarettes or chewing tobacco

The rate of tobacco use cessation is nearly doubled with their use.

182
Q

What is a unique feature of the nicotine inhaler?

A

It simulates smoking because the client puffs on the inhaler, delivering nicotine.

183
Q

What nursing actions should be taken for nicotine nasal spray?

A
  • Provides pleasurable effects of smoking due to rapid rise of nicotine in the blood
  • One spray in each nostril delivers the amount of nicotine in one cigarette
  • Not recommended for clients with upper respiratory disorders
184
Q

What should clients with asthma avoid?

A

Using nicotine inhalers.

185
Q

How should nicotine inhaler use be managed?

A

Gradually taper over 2 to 3 months and then discontinue.

186
Q

What are eating disorders?

A

A complex set of behaviors related to eating, often linked to anxiety disorders.

187
Q

How do clients with eating disorders typically feel about their lives?

A

They often feel out of control in other areas and use food as a coping mechanism.

188
Q

What can affect a client’s self-perception in eating disorders?

A

Distorted perceptions of their appearance.

189
Q

Why is the prevalence of eating disorders often underestimated?

A

Due to secretiveness, denial of the illness, or avoidance of seeking help.

190
Q

What is a significant risk associated with eating disorders?

A

High mortality rate and increased risk of suicide.

191
Q

What is the focus of treatment modalities for eating disorders?

A

Normalizing eating patterns and addressing underlying issues.

192
Q

What comorbidities are commonly associated with eating disorders?

A
  • Depression
  • Personality disorders
  • Substance use disorder
  • Anxiety
193
Q

What is anorexia nervosa characterized by?

A

Persistent energy intake restriction leading to significantly low body weight.

194
Q

What fear is associated with anorexia nervosa?

A

Fear of gaining weight or becoming overweight.

195
Q

What is a key characteristic of clients with anorexia nervosa?

A

Preoccupation with food and rituals of eating, along with voluntary refusal to eat.

196
Q

In which population does anorexia nervosa most commonly occur?

A

Female clients from adolescence to young adulthood.

197
Q

What can trigger the onset of anorexia nervosa?

A

A stressful life event, such as college.

198
Q

What distinguishes the restricting type of anorexia nervosa?

A

Drastic restriction of food intake without bingeing or purging.

199
Q

What characterizes the binge-eating/purging type of anorexia nervosa?

A

Engagement in binge eating or purging behaviors.

200
Q

What is bulimia nervosa characterized by?

A

Recurrent binge eating followed by inappropriate compensatory behaviors.

201
Q

How often do binge eating and compensatory behaviors occur in bulimia nervosa?

A

On average once per week for 3 months.

202
Q

What is the typical duration and quantity of binge eating in bulimia nervosa?

A

Discrete period (usually less than 2 hours) with larger quantities of food.

203
Q

What is the typical weight range of clients with bulimia nervosa?

A

Weight within normal range or slightly higher (BMI 18.5 to 30).

204
Q

At what age does bulimia nervosa typically onset in female clients?

A

Late adolescence or early adulthood.

205
Q

What compensatory behaviors are used by clients with purging type bulimia nervosa?

A
  • Self-induced vomiting
  • Laxatives
  • Diuretics
  • Enemas
206
Q

What distinguishes the nonpurging type of bulimia nervosa?

A

Compensation through excessive exercise and misuse of laxatives or diuretics.

207
Q

What defines binge eating disorder?

A

Recurrent eating large quantities of food without compensatory behaviors.

208
Q

What accompanies binge eating episodes in binge eating disorder?

A

Distress following the binge-eating episode.

209
Q

How often do binge eating episodes occur in binge eating disorder?

A

At least once per week for 3 months.

210
Q

What age group is most commonly affected by binge eating disorder?

A

Adults age 46 to 55.

211
Q

What health risks are associated with binge eating disorder?

A
  • Type 2 diabetes mellitus
  • Hypertension
  • Cancer
212
Q

What are the additional categories of eating disorders?

A
  • Pica
  • Rumination disorder
  • Avoidant/restrictive food intake disorder
213
Q

What does pica involve?

A

Eating nonfood items like dirt, soap, or paint chips.

214
Q

What is rumination disorder?

A

Regurgitating food after eating, often referred to as ‘chewing and spitting.’

215
Q

What characterizes avoidant/restrictive food intake disorder?

A

Lack of interest in certain types of food, leading to poor growth and nutrition.

216
Q

What are prodromal manifestations of eating disorders?

A
  • Increase or decrease in weight not related to a medical condition
  • Abnormal eating habits, like severe dieting
  • Ritualized mealtime behaviors, like counting calories
  • Lying about food intake
  • Preoccupation with weight and body image
  • Compulsive and/or excessive exercising

These manifestations can indicate the onset of eating disorders.

217
Q

What occupational choices may encourage thinness as a risk factor for eating disorders?

A
  • Fashion modeling
  • Athletics, especially at elite levels or sports requiring specific weight

Careers that emphasize appearance can contribute to body image issues.

218
Q

What individual history may increase the risk of developing an eating disorder?

A
  • Being a ‘picky’ eater in childhood
  • History of obesity

These factors can predispose individuals to disordered eating patterns.

219
Q

What biological factors are implicated in eating disorders?

A
  • Hypothalamic imbalances
  • Neurotransmitter disturbances
  • Hormonal or biochemical imbalances, particularly serotonin pathways

Biological influences can play a significant role in the development of eating disorders.

220
Q

What psychological influences can contribute to eating disorders?

A
  • Rigidity and ritualism
  • Separation and individuation conflicts
  • Feelings of ineffectiveness, helplessness, and depression
  • Distorted body image
  • Internal or external locus of control
  • Potential history of physical abuse

Psychological factors are critical in understanding the complexity of eating disorders.

221
Q

What are expected findings in the nursing history of a client with an eating disorder?

A
  • Client’s perception of the issue
  • Eating habits
  • History of dieting
  • Methods of weight control
  • Value attached to specific shape and weight
  • Interpersonal and social functioning
  • Difficulty with impulsivity and compulsivity
  • Family and interpersonal relationships

A thorough nursing history is essential for assessment and treatment planning.

222
Q

What cognitive distortions are commonly observed in clients with eating disorders?

A
  • Overgeneralizations
  • All-or-nothing thinking
  • Catastrophizing
  • Personalization
  • Emotional reasoning

These cognitive distortions can significantly affect a client’s self-image and behaviors.

223
Q

What vital signs may indicate an eating disorder?

A
  • Low blood pressure
  • Decreased pulse
  • Low body temperature
  • Possible hypertension in binge eating disorder

Monitoring vital signs is crucial for identifying potential health risks associated with eating disorders.

224
Q

What weight criteria characterize clients with anorexia nervosa?

A

Body weight less than 85% of expected normal weight

Weight assessment is a key factor in diagnosing anorexia nervosa.

225
Q

What skin and hair changes may occur in clients with anorexia nervosa?

A
  • Fine, downy hair (lanugo)
  • Yellowed skin
  • Pale, cool extremities
  • Poor skin turgor

These physical signs can indicate severe malnutrition and require clinical attention.

226
Q

What dental issues may arise from purging behaviors in eating disorders?

A
  • Dental erosion
  • Caries

Oral health can be severely impacted by behaviors associated with bulimia nervosa.

227
Q

What cardiovascular symptoms may be present in clients with eating disorders?

A
  • Irregular heart rate
  • Heart failure
  • Cardiomyopathy
  • Peripheral edema
  • Acrocyanosis

Cardiovascular health is often compromised in individuals with eating disorders.

228
Q

What fluid and electrolyte imbalances can occur in clients with eating disorders?

A
  • Acidosis or alkalosis
  • Dehydration
  • Electrolyte imbalances

These imbalances can have serious health consequences and require careful monitoring.

229
Q

What musculoskeletal symptoms may clients with eating disorders experience?

A
  • Muscle weakness
  • Decreased energy
  • Loss of bone density

The impact of eating disorders on the musculoskeletal system can lead to long-term health issues.

230
Q

What is a common gastrointestinal symptom of dehydration?

A

Constipation

231
Q

What gastrointestinal symptom can result from laxative use?

232
Q

What is a potential psychosocial effect of eating disorders?

A

Low self-esteem

233
Q

What severe physical condition can occur due to bulimia?

A

Esophageal tears

234
Q

What is amenorrhea?

A

Absence of menstruation

235
Q

What are some mental health issues associated with eating disorders?

A

Depressed mood, irritability, insomnia

236
Q

What weight loss percentage indicates a need for acute care treatment?

A

20% of ideal body weight

237
Q

What vital sign indicates a critical state in patients with eating disorders?

A

Heart rate less than 50/min

238
Q

Which electrolyte imbalance is particularly common in bulimia nervosa?

A

Hypokalemia

239
Q

What is a common laboratory finding in patients with anorexia and bulimia?

A

Hypoalbuminemia

240
Q

Fill in the blank: Anorexia nervosa can lead to ________ due to malnutrition.

A

Hypomagnesemia

241
Q

What screening tool is used for assessing eating disorders?

A

Eating Disorder Inventory

242
Q

True or False: Elevated blood urea nitrogen can indicate dehydration.

243
Q

What are the expected findings associated with anorexia nervosa? (List)

A
  • Dental erosion
  • Loss of bone density
  • Esophageal tears
  • Menstrual irregularities
  • Severe dieting
  • Fear of gaining weight
  • Amenorrhea
244
Q

Which electrolyte imbalances are associated with anorexia nervosa? (Select all that apply)

A
  • Hypokalemia
  • Hyponatremia
  • Hypochloremia
  • Hypophosphatemia
245
Q

What can excessive use of diuretics or laxatives lead to?

A

Dehydration

246
Q

What are potential ECG changes seen in patients with eating disorders?

A

Prolonged QT interval

247
Q

Fill in the blank: Possible impaired liver function is evidenced by increased ________ levels.

248
Q

What is a psychological criterion for acute care treatment?

A

Severe depression

249
Q

What should a nurse perform to assess feelings regarding a client’s eating behaviors?

A

Self-assessment regarding possible feelings of frustration

This includes beliefs that the disorder is self-imposed or the need to nurture rather than care for the client.

250
Q

What type of environment should be provided for clients requiring intensive therapy?

A

A highly structured milieu in an acute care unit

This helps in managing the client’s needs effectively.

251
Q

What is essential to develop and maintain with the client?

A

A trusting nurse/client relationship

This is achieved through consistency and therapeutic communication.

252
Q

What approach should be used to promote client self-esteem?

A

A positive approach and support

This fosters a positive self-image.

253
Q

How can clients be encouraged to feel a sense of control in their care?

A

Encouraging client decision-making and participation in the plan of care

This allows them to feel involved in their treatment.

254
Q

What type of goals should be established for clients?

A

Realistic goals for weight loss or gain

This focuses on achievable outcomes.

255
Q

List some cognitive-behavioral therapies that can be promoted.

A
  • Cognitive reframing
  • Relaxation techniques
  • Journal writing
  • Desensitization exercises

These therapies help in addressing eating disorder behaviors.

256
Q

What should be monitored in the client regarding their physical health?

A

Vital signs, intake and output, and weight

A weight change of 2 to 3 lb/week is medically acceptable.

257
Q

What is the purpose of using behavioral contracts with clients?

A

To modify client behaviors

This helps in establishing clear expectations.

258
Q

What should clients be rewarded for?

A

Positive behaviors such as completing meals or consuming a set number of calories

Rewards can reinforce desired behaviors.

259
Q

When should clients be closely monitored?

A

During and after meals to prevent purging

This may require accompanying the client to the bathroom.

260
Q

What should be taught and encouraged to promote client independence?

A

Self-care activities

This empowers clients in their recovery.

261
Q

How should nutrition education be provided to the client?

A

In collaboration with a dietitian

This includes correcting misinformation regarding food and meal planning.

262
Q

What is the initial approach to developing an eating plan?

A

Consider the client’s preferences and ability to consume food

This increases adherence to the plan.

263
Q

What type of eating schedule is recommended at the start of therapy?

A

A structured and inflexible eating schedule

This promotes new eating habits and discourages binge behaviors.

264
Q

What type of meals are better tolerated by clients?

A

Small, frequent meals

These help prevent clients from feeling overwhelmed.

265
Q

What dietary restrictions should be implemented at the start of treatment?

A
  • High-fiber diet to prevent constipation
  • Low sodium to prevent fluid retention
  • Limit high-fat and gassy foods

These dietary choices support overall health.

266
Q

What supplement should be administered to clients?

A

A multivitamin and mineral supplement

This addresses potential nutrient deficiencies.

267
Q

What should clients avoid to reduce the risk of increased energy?

A

Caffeine

Caffeine can be used by clients as a substitute for healthy eating.

268
Q

What is refeeding syndrome?

A

A potentially fatal complication occurring when fluids, electrolytes, and carbohydrates are introduced to a severely malnourished client

This condition requires careful monitoring.

269
Q

What actions should be taken during the initial treatment of refeeding syndrome?

A

Consult with provider and dietitian to develop a controlled rate of nutritional support

Monitoring blood electrolytes and administering fluid replacement as prescribed is also necessary.

270
Q

What vital signs should be monitored for clients at risk of cardiac complications?

A

Continuous cardiac monitoring and frequent vital signs

This helps in detecting any changes in the client’s status.