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CompTIA A+ > Assessment Test > Flashcards

Assessment Test Flashcards

0
Q 
Which layer of the OSI model has the important role of providing error checking? 
A. Session layer 
B. Presentation layer 
C. Application layer 
D. Transport layer
A

D. A key role of the Transport layer is to provide error checking. The Transport layer also provides functions such as reliable end-to-end communications, segmentation and reassembly of larger messages, and combination of smaller messages into a single larger message. See Chapter 6 for more information.

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1
Q 
Which of the following topologies allows for network expansion with the least amount of disruption for the current network users? 
A. Star 
B. Bus 
C. Ring 
D. Mesh
A

A. The star topology is the easiest to modify. A physical star topology branches each network device off a central device called a hub or a switch, making it easy to add a new workstation. See Chapter 6 for more information.

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2
Q 
Which cable standard is used for Ethernet 10Base2 installations? 
A. RG-6 
B. RG-8 
C. RG-58AU 
D. RJ-45
A

C. 10Base2 is also known as thinnet, and it uses coaxial cable. The correct cable standard is RG-58AU. RG-6 is for cable television and satellite modems, and RG-8 is for thicknet, or 10Base5. RJ-45 is a connector for twisted pair cabling. See Chapter 6 for more information.

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3
Q 
On which port does FTP run by default? 
A. 21 
B. 25 
C. 63 
D. 89
A

A. FTP listens on port 21. See Chapter 7 for more information.

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4
Q 
Which of the following protocols can be used by a client to retrieve email from a server? 
A. DNS 
B. FTP 
C. SMTP 
D. IMAP
A

D. The IMAP and POP3 protocols can be used to retrieve email from mail servers. See Chapter 7 for more information.

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5
Q 
Which of the following is a security mechanism used by HTTPS to encrypt web traffic between a web client and server? 
A. IPSec 
B. SSL 
C. L2TP 
D. PPPoE
A

B. HTTPS connections are secured using either Secure Sockets Layer (SSL) or Transport Layer Security (TLS). See Chapter 7 for more information.

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7
Q 
Which of the following is a company that provides direct access to the Internet for home and business computer users? 
A. ASP 
B. ISP 
C. DNS 
D. DNP
A

B. An Internet service provider (ISP) provides direct access to the Internet. See Chapter 8
for more information.

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8
Q 
What is the data throughput provided by one ISDN bearer channel? 
A. 16Kbps 
B. 56Kbps 
C. 64Kbps 
D. 128Kbps
A

C. An ISDN B (bearer) channel provides 64Kbps data throughput. A home-based BRI
ISDN provides two B channels. See Chapter 8 for more information.

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9
Q 
Which of the following are 4G technologies? (Choose all that apply.) 
A. LTE 
B. GSM 
C. CDMA 
D. WiMax
A

A, D. WiMax and LTE are the two current 4G cellular technologies. GSM and CDMA are
3G technologies. See Chapter 8 for more information.

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10
Q 
Which LCD component is responsible for providing brightness? 
A. Backlight 
B. Inverter 
C. Screen 
D. Backdrop
A

A. The backlight provides light to the LCD screen. The inverter provides power to the
backlight, and the screen displays the picture. See Chapter 9 for more information.

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11
Q 
Your laptop has 2GB of installed memory and uses shared video memory. If the video card is using 512MB, how much is left for the rest of the system? 
A. 2GB 
B. 1.5GB 
C. 512MB 
D. Cannot determine
A

B. If the laptop is using shared video memory, then the system memory is shared with the
video card. If the video card is using 512MB (half a gigabyte), then there is 1.5GB left for
the system. See Chapter 9 for more information.

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12
Q 
Which of the following standards is also known as CardBus? 
A. PCMCIA 1.0 
B. PCMCIA 2.0 
C. PCMCIA 5.0 
D. ExpressCard
A

C. PCMCIA 5.0 is also known as CardBus. See Chapter 9 for more information.

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13
Q

What is the function of the laser in a laser printer?
A. It heats up the toner so it adheres to the page.
B. It charges the paper so it will attract toner.
C. It creates an image of the page on the drum.
D. It cleans the drum before a page is printed.

A

C. The laser creates an image on the photosensitive drum that is then transferred to the paper
by the transfer corona. The fuser heats up the toner so it adheres to the page. The transfer
corona charges the page, and the eraser lamp cleans the drum before a page is printed. A
rubber blade is also used to physically remove toner from the drum. See Chapter 10 for more
information.

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14
Q 
What is the component called that stores the material that ends up printed to the page in a laser printer? 
A. Toner cartridge 
B. Ink cartridge 
C. Laser module 
D. Laser cartridge
A

A. Laser printers use toner, which they melt to the page in the image of the text and graphics
being printed. A toner cartridge holds the fine toner dust until it is used in the printing process.
See Chapter 10 for more information.

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15
Q 
The output of a dot-matrix printer is typically measured in what? 
A. CPM 
B. CPS 
C. PPM 
D. PPS
A

B. The output of impact printers such as dot-matrix printers is measured in characters per
second (CPS). Many bubble-jet and laser printers are measured in terms of pages per minute
(PPM). See Chapter 10 for more information.

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16
Q 
Which of the following computer components can retain a lethal electrical charge even after the device is unplugged? (Choose all that apply.) 
A. Monitor 
B. Processor 
C. Power supply 
D. RAM
A

A, C. Monitors and power supplies can retain significant electrical charges even after
they’re unplugged. Don’t open the back of a monitor or the power supply unless you are
specifically trained to do so. See Chapter 11 for more information.

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17
Q 
Roughly how much time spent communicating should be devoted to listening? 
A. 23 percent 
B. 40 percent 
C. 50 percent 
D. 80 percent
A

C. Roughly half the time spent communicating should be devoted to listening. See Chapter 11
for more information.

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18
Q

When lifting heavy equipment, what is the proper technique?
A. Get the heaviest part closest to your body and lift with your legs.
B. Get the heaviest part closest to your body and lift with your back.
C. Get the lightest part closest to your body and lift with your legs.
D. Get the lightest part closest to your body and lift with your back.

A

A. When lifting heavy equipment, center the weight as close to your body as possible. Then,
keep your back straight and lift with your legs. See Chapter 11 for more information.

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19
Q

Your laser printer has recently starting printing vertical white lines on documents it prints. What is the most likely cause of the problem?
A. The print driver is faulty.
B. The fuser is not heating properly.
C. There is toner on the transfer corona wire.
D. There is a scratch on the EP drum.

A

C. White streaks on printouts are most likely caused by toner on the transfer corona wire.
Vertical black lines are caused by a scratch or a groove in the EP drum. If the fuser was not
heating properly, toner would not bond to the paper and you would have smearing. Faulty
print drivers will cause garbage to print or there will be no printing at all. See Chapter 20
for more information.

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20
Q 
You are working with a system that is assigned IP information configuration information from a central server. You wish to manually refresh the IP information on the system. Which of the following commands would you use? 
A. IPCONFIG /REFRESH 
B. IPCONFIG /ALL 
C. IPCONFIG /RENEW 
D. WINIPCFG /ALL
A

C. The IPCONFIG command can be used with Windows XP (and others) to see the networking
configuration values at the command line. It is one of the most commonly used
command-line utilities that can be used in troubleshooting and network configurations. To
renew IP configuration information, the IPCONFIG /renew command is used to force the
DHCP server to renew the IP information assigned to the system. See Chapter 20 for more
information.

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21
Q 
One laser printer in your office keeps getting frequent paper jams. What is the most likely cause of the problem? 
A. Worn paper feed rollers 
B. Faulty stepper motor 
C. Faulty fuser assembly 
D. The EP drum not advancing properly
A

A. The most likely cause of those listed is a worn paper feed roller. Stepper motors control
the back-and-forth motion of a print head in a bubble-jet printer. If the fuser assembly were
faulty, the images would smear. See Chapter 20 for more information.

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22
Q 
Which of the following is not considered a system component that can be found inside a computer? 
A. CPU 
B. RAM 
C. PCIe graphics adapter 
D. Motherboard
A

C. System components are essential for the basic functionality of a computer system. Many
of the landmarks found on the motherboard can be considered system components, even
expansion slots to a degree. What you plug into those slots, however, must be considered
peripheral to the basic operation of the system. For more information, see Chapter 1.

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23
Q 
Which of the following is not a physical memory format used in desktop computer systems? 
A. DRAM 
B. DIMM 
C. SIMM 
D. RIMM
A 
A. Although DRAM is a very common type of RAM essentially used in all computer systems
today, it does not describe a physical memory format. SIMMs, DIMMs, and RIMMs
are all technologies on which memory-module manufacturing is based. For more information,
see Chapter 1.
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24
Q 
Which of the following are components that can commonly be found on a motherboard? (Choose all that apply.) 
A. Slots 
B. Fan connectors 
C. Gyroscope 
D. Scanner 
E. HDD
A

A, B. Motherboards commonly have RAM slots and expansion slots. Older motherboards
even had CPU slots. Modern motherboards have connectors for powering cooling fans.
Gyroscopes are most commonly found in mobile devices. Scanners are external devices.
Although there might be one or more types of HDD interfaces built into the motherboard,
the HDD itself is not. For more information, see Chapter 1.

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25
Q 
Which of the following is a chip that is integrated into PATA drives, as opposed to being mounted on a daughter card? 
A. Controller 
B. CPU 
C. Host adapter 
D. IDE
A

A. A controller chip is responsible for encoding data to be stored on the disk platters as
well as performing geometry translation for the BIOS. Translation is necessary because the
true number of sectors per track of the hard disk drive system usually exceeds what is supported
by the BIOS. For more information, see Chapter 2.

26
Q 
What is the name of the power connector that is larger than the connector used for floppy diskette drives and that is commonly used with PATA drives? 
A. AT system connector 
B. Berg 
C. Molex 
D. ATX system connector
A

C. The standard peripheral power connector, or Molex connector, is commonly used on
larger drives because it allows more current to flow to the drive than does the Berg connector,
which is used with floppy diskette drives. For more information, see Chapter 2.

27
Q 
After SATA was introduced, what was the retroactive term used for the original ATA specification? 
A. EIDE 
B. IDE 
C. PATA 
D. SCSI
A

C. IDE (ATA-1) and EIDE (ATA-2 and later) were specific nicknames for the ATA series
of standards. Although ATA is technically accurate, it refers to legacy IDE standards as
well as newer SATA standards. Instead of using the term ATA to be synonymous with IDE
and EIDE, as had been done in the past, the term PATA was coined, referring to the parallel
nature of IDE communications. The term PATA differentiates the IDE and EIDE form
of ATA from Serial ATA. SCSI is a related yet completely different type of technology. For
more information, see Chapter 2.

28
Q 
You are installing a new graphics adapter in a Windows 7 system. Which of the following expansion slots are designed for high-speed, 3D graphics adapters? (Choose all that apply.) 
A. USB 
B. AGP 
C. PCI 
D. ISA 
E. PCIe
A

B, E. Although technically PCI and ISA could be used for graphics adapters, AGP was
specifically designed for the use of high-speed, 3D graphic video cards. PCIe offers better
performance than AGP for graphics adapters. For more information, see Chapter 3.

29
Q 
Which of the following connectors is used for a parallel printer port? 
A. DE9 
B. DA15 
C. DB25 
D. DE25
A

C. Parallel printer ports use a D-subminiature connector known as a DB25. The DE9 port
is used for the RS-232 serial port. The DA15 is used for AUI and game/joystick ports. The
DE25 is not a common port. For more information, see Chapter 3.

30
Q 
Which of the following are modular ports used in data communications? (Choose all that apply.) 
A. RG-6 
B. RJ-45 
C. RJ-11 
D. DB25 
E. RG-11
A

B, C. RJ-11 ports are used in analog telephony and allow modems attached to computer
serial ports to transmit modulated digital information across the public switched telephone
network (PSTN). RJ-45 ports are used by various network interface controller (NIC) cards
for attachment to networks such as Ethernet. RG-6 and RG-11 coaxial connectors and
DB25 connectors are not modular. For more information, see Chapter 3.

31
Q 
The \_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_ is the measurement of the number of pixels an LCD monitor can display without the image appearing distorted. 
A. Native resolution 
B. Contrast ratio 
C. Pixelation 
D. Base frequency
A

A. The native resolution refers to how many pixels an LCD screen can display (across and
down) without distortion. The native resolution is based on the placement of the actual
transistors that create the image by twisting the liquid crystals. The contrast ratio is the
measurement between the darkest color and the lightest color that an LCD screen can display.
For more information, see Chapter 4.

32
Q 
Which of the following is not a common monitor technology? 
A. CRT 
B. Plasma 
C. OLED 
D. Super PMOLED
A

D. Although there is a Super AMOLED display, employing active-matrix technology, there
is not a corresponding passive-matrix version. The other technologies exist and are discussed
in further detail in Chapter 4.

33
Q 
What can be used at the check-in desk of a doctor’s office to prevent patients from viewing confidential information? 
A. An antiglare filter 
B. A privacy filter 
C. An LED display 
D. A thin client
A

B. Privacy filters are used to limit the viewing angle for a monitor. With such filters, the
screen image becomes indiscernible when viewed at just a few degrees from center. For
more information, see Chapter 4.

34
Q 
Which of the following is a standard computer that can access resources locally as well as from servers but requires no specialized enhancements? 
A. Gaming PC 
B. Home server 
C. Thin client 
D. Thick client
A

D. A thick client is any computer system with a standard configuration. The gaming PC
has enhancements over thick clients to their CPU, video, audio, and cooling. The home
server PC must have specialized capabilities and services along with a faster NIC than the
thick client and a RAID array. The thin client is a lesser device in comparison to the thick
client, but that cost-saving feature is its enhancement. These less expensive computers can
connect over the network to servers for their operating system images and applications. For
more information, see Chapter 5.

35
Q 
Which of the following is a requirement for virtualization workstations? 
A. Enhanced video 
B. Enhanced audio 
C. Maximum RAM and CPU cores 
D. RAID array
A

C. Virtualization workstations require more RAM than standard systems and need to be
equipped with as many multicore processors as possible. Video and audio are not resources
that need to be enhanced for such workstations. Although a RAID array is a wise addition
whenever servers with valuable information are involved, a virtualization workstation does
not require one. For more information, see Chapter 5.

36
Q 
Which of the following is not a requirement for a home server PC? 
A. TV tuner 
B. Print and file sharing services 
C. Gigabit NIC 
D. RAID array
A

A. A TV tuner card is a requirement for a home theater PC but not for a home server. The
other options are among those features that are required. For more information, see Chapter 5.

37
Q 
Which of the following are popular mobile-device operating systems? (Choose all that apply.) 
A. Android 
B. Windows 7 
C. Ubuntu 
D. iOS
A

A, D. Google’s Android and Apple’s iOS are two of the most popular operating systems
for mobile devices on the market. The other two are not. Although some mobile operating
systems are based on Linux or UNIX, Ubuntu is a Linux distribution not used for mobile
devices. For more information, see Chapter 18.

38
Q 
Which of the following protocols can be used in close range to transfer data between a mobile device and a computer system or to allow media to stream from the mobile device to an audio system? 
A. SMTP 
B. Bluetooth 
C. POP3 
D. IMAP4
A

B. Bluetooth allows you to pair a mobile device to a computer or to a device such as an
automotive sound system or headset. Data can be transferred between devices and media
can be streamed from the mobile device. For more information, see Chapter 18.

38
Q 
Which of the following is a virtual machine manager—the software that allows the virtual machines to exist? 
A. Comptroller 
B. Shell 
C. Kernel 
D. Hypervisor
A

D. The hypervisor is a virtual machine manager—the software that allows the virtual
machines to exist. For more information, see Chapter 12.

39
Q 
What term refers to copying data between a mobile device and a computer system to mirror such things as contacts, programs, pictures, and music? 
A. Calibration 
B. Remote wipe 
C. Pairing 
D. Synchronization
A

D. Synchronizing a mobile device with a computer system allows you to mirror personal
data between the devices, regardless of which one contains the most current data. Calibration
refers to matching the device’s and user’s perceptions of where the user is touching the screen.
Remote wipes allow you to remove personal data from a lost or stolen device. Pairing is what
must be done in Bluetooth for two Bluetooth devices to connect and communicate. For more
information, see Chapter 18.

40
Q 
Which of the following would not be considered a standard permission in Windows using NTFS? 
A. Full Control 
B. Modify 
C. Allow 
D. Write
A

C. Standard permissions are collections of special permissions, including Full Control,
Modify, Read & Execute, Read, and Write. For more information, see Chapter 12.

41
Q 
Which feature is designed to keep Windows current by automatically downloading updates such as patches and security fixes and installing these fixes automatically? 
A. Security Center 
B. Action Center 
C. Windows Update 
D. Windows Anytime
A

C. Windows includes Windows Update, a feature designed to keep Windows current by
automatically downloading updates such as patches and security fixes and installing these
fixes automatically. For more information, see Chapter 12.

42
Q 
With dynamic storage, which of the following partition types are possible? 
A. Complex, bridged, or mirrored 
B. Simple, spanned, or striped 
C. Simple, complex, or interleaved 
D. Spanned, interleaved, or striped
A

B. Windows 7, Vista, and XP support both basic and dynamic storage. Basic can have a
primary and an extended partition, while dynamic can be simple, spanned, or striped. For
more information, see Chapter 13.

43
Q 
Which MSINFO32 option is available only with Windows XP? 
A. /PCH 
B. /COMPUTER 
C. /NFO 
D. /REPORT
A

A. The /pch option is available only in Windows XP and is used to display the history
view. For more information, see Chapter 13.

44
Q 
You have been told to use Task Manager to change the priority of a process to Below Normal. This equates to a base priority of what? 
A. 2 
B. 4 
C. 6 
D. 8
A

C. For applications that don’t need to drop all the way down to Low, this equates to a base
priority of 6. For more information, see Chapter 13.

45
Q 
Encrypting File System (EFS) is available in which editions of Windows 7? (Choose all that apply.) 
A. Professional 
B. Home Premium 
C. Enterprise 
D. Ultimate 
E. Business
A

A, C, D. EFS is available in the Professional, Enterprise, and Ultimate editions of Windows
7 allowing for encryption/decryption on files stored in NTFS volumes. For more
information, see Chapter 14.

46
Q 
Which of the following can provide electrical power over Ethernet cabling? 
A. PoE 
B. QoS 
C. DoS 
D. WoL
A

A. Power over Ethernet (PoE) is a handy technology to supply both power and an Ethernet
connection. The purpose of Power over Ethernet (PoE) is pretty much described in its name:
Electrical power is transmitted over twisted-pair Ethernet cable (along with data). For more
information, see Chapter 14.

47
Q 
With which type of duplexing do communications travel in both directions but in only one direction at any given time? 
A. Full 
B. Half 
C. Auto 
D. Mechanical
A

B. With half duplex, communications travel in both directions but in only one direction at
any given time. For more information, see Chapter 14.

48
Q 
You have just added a new network to your Windows Vista laptop and it is asking you to specify a type of location. With which location types is network discovery on by default? (Choose all that apply.) 
A. Home 
B. Work 
C. Public 
D. Private 
E. HomeGroup
A

A, B. The three location types in Windows Vista for a network are Home, Work, and Public.
If you choose one of the first two, network discovery is on by default, allowing you to see
other computers and other computers to see you. For more information, see Chapter 14.

49
Q 
Which applet in Windows Vista is the primary interface for configuring synchronization of offline files? 
A. Synchronization Wizard 
B. Action Center 
C. Merge 
D. Sync Center
A

D. The Sync Center in Windows Vista is the primary interface for configuring synchronization.
For more information, see Chapter 15.

50
Q 
Which of the following Control Panel applets is unique to Windows Vista? 
A. Tablet PC Settings 
B. Network Setup Wizard 
C. Printers and Faxes 
D. Action Center
A

A. The Tablet PC Settings applet (Start a Control Panel a Tablet PC Settings) in
Windows Vista can be used, as the name implies, to configure the device on which the
operating system is installed to function as a true tablet. For more information, see
Chapter 15.

52
Q 
Which Control Panel applet allows you to administer, as well as deploy, component services and configure behavior like security? 
A. SFC 
B. Data Sources 
C. Component Services 
D. DDR
A

C. Component Services allows you to administer, as well as deploy, component services
and configure behavior like security. For more information, see Chapter 15.

53
Q 
In Windows, the Account Lockout Counter in an Account Lockout policy keeps track of the number of invalid attempts before lockout occurs. The default is 0 (meaning the feature is turned off), but it can be set from 1 to what? 
A. 9999 
B. 999 
C. 99 
D. 24
A

B. It can be set from 1 to 999. For more information, see Chapter 15.

54
Q 
What Windows operating system tool can be used to block access from the network (be it internal or the Internet)? 
A. Windows Firewall 
B. Windows Defender 
C. Advanced Security 
D. Device Manager
A

A. Windows Firewall (Start a Control Panel a Windows Firewall) is used to block access
from the network (be it internal or the Internet). For more information, see Chapter 15

55
Q 
Which of the following are programs that enter a system or network under the guise of another program? (Choose the best answer.) 
A. Worms 
B. Trojans 
C. Rootkits 
D. Spyware
A

B. Trojans are programs that enter a system or network under the guise of another program.
While rootkits may do this, it is not their primary feature and thus not the best answer for
this question. For more information, see Chapter 17.

56
Q 
Which of the following involves applying a strong magnetic field to initialize the media before tossing it away? 
A. Fraying 
B. Fracking 
C. Degaussing 
D. Spreading
A

C. Degaussing involves applying a strong magnetic field to initialize the media (this is also
referred to as disk wiping). This process helps ensure that information doesn’t fall into the
wrong hands. For more information, see Chapter 17.

57
Q 
Which term is synonymous with MAC filtering? 
A. Disabling Autorun 
B. Shredding 
C. Port disabling 
D. Network Lock
A

D. On a number of wireless devices, the term Network Lock is used in place of MAC
filtering, and the two are synonymous. For more information, see Chapter 17.

58
Q 
Which of the following is a copy of your system configuration at a given point in time? 
A. Restore point 
B. MBR 
C. Registry 
D. BOOT.INI
A

A. A restore point is a copy of your system configuration at a given point in time. It’s like
a backup of your configuration but not necessarily your data. For more information, see
Chapter 12.

59
Q 
Your system has issues with locking up intermittently. Because it is running Windows XP, what diagnostic tool can you use that does not exist in Windows Vista or Windows 7? 
A. SFC 
B. Dr. Watson 
C. NTLDR 
D. MSCONFIG
A

B. Windows XP includes a special utility known as Dr. Watson. This utility intercepts all
error conditions and, instead of presenting the user with a cryptic Windows error, displays
a slew of information that can be used to troubleshoot the problem. For more information,
see Chapter 19.

60
Q 
Which of the following could be described as a small, deviously ingenious program that replicates itself to other computers, generally causing those computers to behave abnormally? (Choose the best answer.) 
A. Rogue 
B. Redirector 
C. Virus 
D. Pop-up
A

C. A computer virus is a small, deviously ingenious program that replicates itself to other
computers, generally causing those computers to behave abnormally. Generally speaking, a
virus’s main function is to reproduce. For more information, see Chapter 17.

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