Assessment & Management of Minor Conditions Flashcards
Uncomplicated Sciatica typically resolves itself within
4-6 weeks
Ankylosing Spondylitis is an
Inflammatory Condition
How would you manage muscular sprain or strain of the back?
-Encourage gentle mobilisation
-OTC analgesia
-Provide Red Flag advice
- Refer Pt to own GP
What are the three categories of excluding factors you need to assess in back pain?
-Described or observed Red Flags
-Medical Cause of back pain
-Neurological cause of back pain
The sciatica stretch test- the sciatic nerve is tensed and stretched when the leg is raised passed _________ while the opposite leg remains flat on the floor
35°
What percentage of Metastatic spinal cord compression (MSCC) occurs in patients without an existing cancer diagnosis?
20%
What is MSCC
Metastatic Spinal Cord Compression
Metastatic tumours in the spine apply pressure to the spinal cord
What are the names of the Carpal bones
Scaphoid
Lunate
Triquetrium
Pisiform
Trapezium
Trapezoid
Capitate
Hamate
How many carpal bones are their in each hand?
Eight (8)
(Sixteen (16) in total)
What is the mnemonic that can be used to remember the carpal bones of the wrist
Some - scaphoid
Lovers - Lunate
Try -Triquerium
Positions - Pisiform
That- Trapezium
They - Trapezoid
Cant -Capitate
Handle - Hamate
Which bones make up the Knee joint
Femur
Tibia
Fibula
Patella
What are the special tests used to test for injury to the knee joint?
-Varus test
-Valgus test
-Anterior Draw test
-Lateral Collateral stress test
According to the Ottowa Knee criteria, how many steps should a Patient be able to mobilise to score negatively for ?#
Four (4)
True or False
The Knee is the largest joint in the Human body
True
The medial collateral ligament attaches the Femur to the __________
Tibia
The Medial Collateral ligament connects the Tibia to the __________
Femur
Where should you assess sensation to ensure a knee is neurovasculary intact?
Foot
What type of joint is the knee?
a) Ball and socket
b) synovial hinge
c) Pivot
d) Saddle
B) Synovial Hinge
What does “Equinas Gait” indicate in a knee exam?
Walking on the ball of the foot only to avoid pain
True or False?
The use of the McMurrays test is when assessing an acute knee injury
False
The McMurrays test is assessing for injury to the ___________.
Meniscus
Which Ligament prevents the tibia sliding too far forwards relative to the femur?
Anterior Cruciate Ligament
Which of the areas of the knee are associated with the Ottawa knee rules ?
a) Fibula Head
b) Distal Femur
c) Tibia
d) Ulna
e) Patella
f) Coccyx
A) Fibula Head and E) Patella (isolated patella tenderness)
The lateral collateral ligament connects the femur to the __________
Fibula
Which of these bones are NOT carpal bones?
a) Hamate
b) Scaphoid
c) Hammer
d) Capitate
e) Triquetrum
f) zygoma
g) Trapezoid
c) Hammer (inner ear)
f) Zygoma (facial cheek bones)
Which carpal bone has a crescent moon shape?
Lunate
Which long bone primarily forms the wrist joint by articulating with the carpal bones?
Radius
Which metacarpal joint is the most mobile in the hand?
The Thumb
On which aspect of the hand are the tendons more superficial?
a) Dorsal
b) Palmer
a) Dorsal
The capal bones are ________ to the phalanges?
Proximal
How many nerves suppy the hand and wrist? What are the called?
Three (3) nerves.
Called the Radial nerve, Median nerve and Ulnar nerve.
How many bones are there in the wrist?
Eight (8) Carpal bones
Scaphoid, Lunate, Triquetrum, Pisiform
Trapezium, Trapezoid, Capitate, Hamate
Which two bones articulate with the distal head of the radius to form the wrist joint?
Scaphoid and Lunate
What are the main bones of the ankle joint?
Tibia, Fibula and Talus
Which of the following are special tests for the foot?
a) Valgus test
b) Anterior Drawer Test
c) Lateral Drawer Test
d) Lateral Collateral Stress Test
e) Talar Tilt Test
f) football test
g) Simmonds Thompson Test
h) Sydesmosis test (squeeze test)
b) Anterior Drawer Test
e) Talar Tilt Test (ankle ligament rupture)
g) Simmonds Thompson Test (achilles tendon rupture)
h) Sydesmosis Test (Sqeeze test) (Tibiofibular ligament rupture)
Patients must be able to mobilise in _____ steps in the ED according to the Ottawa ankle rule.
Four (4) steps on both feet
(Pts unable to mobilise this distance are positive, other patients require further assessment of the 4 Ottawa sites for boney tenderness- tip of medial malleolus + 6cm superior, Navicular, proximal end of 5th metatarsal, tip of lateral malleolus + 6cm superior )
Excluding sesamoid bones m, how many bones are there in just the foot?
Twenty- Six (26)
Calcaneus
Talus
Navicular
1st Cuneiform
2nd Cuneiform
3rd cuneiform
Cuboid
1st-5th metatarsal
1st -5th proximal phalanges
2nd-5th medial phalanges
1-5th Distal phalanges
Which of the following are Ottawa related boney areas of the foot?
a) Cuboid
b) Navicular
c) Phalanges
d) base of 5th Metatarsal
e) Talus
f) Tibia
b) Navicular
d) Base of 5th Metatarsal
Where must you asses a pulse to ensure a foot is neurovascularly intact?
Dorsal Pedalis and Posterior Tibial pulses
What is the purpose of the distal tibiofibular syndesmosis?
To connect the Tibia and Fibular bones providing strength and stability.
Which ligament complex stabalises the medial side of the ankle?
The deltoid ligaments
How many bones make up just the ankle?
Three (3)
What type of joint is the ankle joint?
Hinge type Synovial joint
Why does the medial side of the ankle have greater stability than the lateral side of the ankle?
Because the medial side is supported by the deltoid ligament structure.
Which of the following is a movement that the ankle joint is able to perform?
a) Supination
b) Circumflexion
c) Medial Rotation
d) Inversion
e) Eversion
f) Pronation
g) Extension
c) Medial Rotation
d) Inversion
e) Eversion
g) Extension
The use of the Simmonds Thompson test is to check the patency of which tendon?
Achilles
What are the Ottata related boney areas of the Ankle?
Distal tip of Medial malleolus + 6cm superior
Distal tip of Lateral malleolus + 6cm superior
How is the Pisiform described?
Pea-shaped sesamoid bone
Which nerves run through the shoulder, passing beneath the clavicle?
Raial, Medial, Ulnar and Axillary
What are the special tests for injuries of the shoulder?
Scarf Test
Empty Can Test
Painful Arc Test
Gerbers lift off Test
Which bones make up the shoulder Joint?
Humerus
Scapula
Acromium process
Clavicle
Glenoid
Where should you assess pulses to ensure the shoulder has remained vascularly intact?
Bracial, Radial and Ulnar pulses.
What are the names of the boney areas of the Elbow?
Lateral epicondyle
Medial epicondyle
Olecranon
Proximal Radial head
Where should nuro assessment take place to assess for damage to nerves that may have been caused by an injury of the shoulder?
Regimental Badge sign
Assess the hand for - Radial
-Ulnar
-Medial
Finger tips
What is considered the main joint of the shoulder?
The Glenohumeral joint
What are the movements of the shoulder?
-Flexion
-Internal Rotation
-Adduction
-Extention
-Rotation
Lateral Epicondylitis (Tennis elbow) afftects the _________tendon?
(Thumbs towards the body. Olecranon= Lateral aspect)
Extensor Carpi Radialis Brevis
What are the two types of common conditions effecting the elbow?
Golfers (Medial Epicondylitis)
Tennis (Lateral Epicondylitis)
Medial Epicondylitis (golfers elbow) effects the ___________ tendon
(Thumbs towards body, ACF= Medial aspect)
Common Flexor Tendon
What muscle does a positive Gerbers test indicates injury to?
Sub Scapularis
Where would you suspect an injury if a patient presents with a positive Scarf test?
Acromioclavicular Joint (ACJ)
What injury would you suspect in a patient who presents with a positive painful arc test?
ACJ impingement
What muscle does a positive empty can test indicate injury to?
Supraspinatus
What are the four muscles of the rotator cuff?
Supraspinatus
Infraspinatus
Sub scapularis
Teres minor
If pain is greater during passive movement the injury is most likely to be to the?
Bones
If pain is greater during active movement the injury is most likely affecting the?
Soft tissues
Positive Anterior Drawer test indicates injury to the
Posterior Cruciate ligament
What is the name of the groove in which the head of fever articulates?
The Acetabulum
How would a Pubic Rami fracture be managed?
Pain relief.
What type of joint is the Hip?
A ball and socket synovial joint
How many muscles control the movement of the eye?
Six (6)
Superior Rectus
Lateral Rectus
Medial Rectus
Superior Oblique
Inferior Oblique
Levator Palebrae Superious
What are the names of the 6 muscles involved in the movement of the eyeball?
Superior rectus
Medial rectus
Lateral rectus
Superior oblique
Inferior oblique
Levator palpabrae superious
What is the name of the thick fibrous membrane that covers the outside if the eyeball (The white of the eye)
Sclera
What are the names of the three small bones of the inner ear?
Malleous, Incus, Stapes
What is the name of the clear dome shaped structure at the front of the eye that bends light?
Cornea
What is the primary function of the vitreous humour in the eye?
Retain the shape of the eyeball
What is the primary cause of red eye in photography?
Light reflecting off the retina
What is the main symptom of Blepharitis?
Itchy and irritated eyelids with dandruff like scales.
What is the primary cause of Keratitis?
Bacterial, viral or fungal infections
What symptoms are characteristic of iritis?
Ciliary flush and irregular pupil shape
What action should be taken for someone experiencing floaters?
Assume retinal detachment until proven otherwise
Temporal arteritis is more likely to affect which demographic?
Older women
What is the reccomended management for a tympanic membrane perforation caused by trauma?
Avoid water exposure and refer to ENT
What is the appropriate management for auricular hematoma?
Immediate ENT referral for drainage
What is the best initial step for management of an insect in the ear canal?
Olive oil application
