Asepsis & Infection Control Flashcards

1
Q

Freedom from disease causing microorganisms

A

Asepsis

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2
Q

Technique used to decrease the possibility of transferring microorganisms from one place to another

A

Aseptic technique

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3
Q

Type of asepsis: clean technique

A

Medical asepsis

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4
Q

Type of asepsis: includes all practices intended to confine a specific microorganism to a specific area, limiting the number, growth, and transmission of microorganisms

A

Medical asepsis

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5
Q

Type of asepsis: sterile technique

A

Surgical asepsis

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6
Q

Type of asepsis: refers to practices that keep an area or object free of all organisms, includes practices that destroy all microorganisms including spores

A

Surgical asepsis

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7
Q

Technique that destroys or kills most microorganisms, except bacterial spores

A

Disinfection

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8
Q

Microscopic dormant structure formed by some pathogens that are very hardy and often survive common cleaning technique

A

Spores

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9
Q

Invasion of body tissue by microorganisms and their growth there

A

Infection

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10
Q

Infection wherein microorganisms produce no clinical evidence of disease

A

Asymptomatic or subclinical infection

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11
Q

Detectable alteration in normal tissue function

A

Disease

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12
Q

Ability of a microorganism to cause disease

A

Pathogenicity

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13
Q

Severity of a condition caused by a pathogen

A

Virulence

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14
Q

Type of disease wherein the infectious agent can be transmitted to an individual by direct or indirect contact, or as airborne infection

A

Communicable disease

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15
Q

Microorganism that causes disease

A

Pathogen

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16
Q

Microorganism that can cause a disease even in a healthy host

A

True pathogens

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17
Q

Microorganism that can cause infection in people who are immunocompromised

A

Opportunistic pathogens

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18
Q

State of infection, organ injury, or damage in response to infection

A

Sepsis

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19
Q

Type of infection that are associated with the delivery of health care services in a health care facility

A

Nosocomial infection

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20
Q

Number of days between when you’re infected and when you might see symptoms

A

Incubation period

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21
Q

Microorganisms that cause nosocomial infections that originate from the clients themselves

A

Endogenous

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22
Q

Microorganisms that are from the hospital environment and hospital personnel

A

Exogenous

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23
Q

Infection that is a direct result of diagnostic or therapeutic procedure

A

Iatrogenic infection

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24
Q

Infection that is confined to a specific part of the body

A

Local infection

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25
Q

Infection that involves different body systems

A

Systemic infection

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26
Q

Sudden onset infection

A

Acute infection

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27
Q

Slow onset or slow progression infection

A

Chronic infection

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28
Q

Chain of infection: microorganism producing an infectious process

A

Etiologic agent

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29
Q

Chain of infection: source of microorganism e.g. food, water, feces, plants, animals, environment

A

Reservoir

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30
Q

Person or animal reservoir of a specific infectious agent that usually does not manifest any clinical signs of disease

A

Carrier

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31
Q

Chain of infection: female anopheles mosquito reservoir carries malaria parasite but is unaffected by it

A

Reservoir

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32
Q

To break the chain from the _____, kill the pathogen e.g. through disinfection, early detection

A

Reservoir

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33
Q

Chain of infection: route where the microorganism leaves the reservoir

A

Portal of exit

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34
Q

What tract serves as the portal of exit for sneezing?

A

Respiratory tract

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35
Q

What tract serves as the portal of exit for coughing?

A

Respiratory tract

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36
Q

What tract serves as the portal of exit for breathing?

A

Respiratory tract

37
Q

What tract serves as the portal of exit for talking?

A

Respiratory tract

38
Q

What tract serves as the portal of exit for saliva?

A

Gastrointestinal tract

39
Q

What tract serves as the portal of exit for vomitus?

A

Gastrointestinal tract

40
Q

What tract serves as the portal of exit for feces?

A

Gastrointestinal tract

41
Q

What tract serves as the portal of exit for semen?

A

Reproductive tract

42
Q

What tract serves as the portal of exit for urine?

A

Reproductive tract

43
Q

Method of transmission that involves an immediate and direct transfer of microorganisms from person to person

A

Direct transmission

44
Q

Method of transmission that involves an indirect transfer of microorganisms from person to person

A

Indirect transmission

45
Q

Droplet spread is a form of _____ transmission but can only occur if the source and the host are within _____ feet of each other

A

Direct, three

46
Q

Vehicle is a form of _____ transmission wherein a substance serves as an immediate means to transport and introduce an infectious agent into a susceptible host through a suitable portal of entry

A

Indirect

47
Q

Fomites is a form of _____ transmission wherein _____ objects or materials harbor the infectious agent

A

Indirect, inanimate

48
Q

Vector-borne is a form of _____ transmission wherein an animal or flying/crawling insect serves as an intermediate means of transporting the infectious
agent

A

Indirect

49
Q

Method of transmission wherein the residue of evaporated droplets emitted by an infected host can remain in the air for long periods

A

Airborne transmission

50
Q

Chain of infection: microorganisms must enter the body to infect a person

A

Portal of entry

51
Q

Chain of infection: any break in the skin

A

Portal of entry

52
Q

Chain of infection: person at risk for infection

A

Susceptible host

53
Q

Local and nonspecific defensive response of the tissues to an injurious or infectious agent

A

Inflammation

54
Q

Inflammation is a mechanism that destroys or dilutes the _____ agent to _____ further spread of injury and to _____ repair of damaged tissue

A

Injurious, prevent, promote

55
Q

Phase of the inflammatory response where bleeding is stopped

A

Vascular

56
Q

Process where clotting occurs to stop bleeding

A

Hemostasis

57
Q

Process where blood vessels dilate to neutralize the pathogen and deliver nutrients to the site of injury

A

Vasodilation

58
Q

Phase of the inflammatory process wherein more fluids go to the site of injury to flush out, clean, or dilute the injurious agent

A

Exudative

59
Q

Phase of the inflammatory process wherein new tissues are repaired or formed

A

Reparative

60
Q

What are the five signs of inflammation (English)?

A

Redness, pain, heat, swelling, loss of function

61
Q

What are the five signs of inflammation (Latin)?

A

Rubor, dolor, calor, tumor, functio laesa

62
Q

Latin for redness

A

Rubor

63
Q

Latin for pain

A

Dolor

64
Q

Latin for heat

A

Calor

65
Q

Latin for swelling

A

Tumor

66
Q

Practice that lowers risk to health care associated infection

A

Hand hygiene

67
Q

T/F: Use hand rub when hands are visibly soiled

A

False - wash hands with soap and water

68
Q

5 Moments of Handwashing

A
  1. Before touching patient
  2. Before clean/aseptic procedure
  3. After touching patient
  4. After touching patient’s surroundings
  5. After handling body fluid
69
Q

Measures to prevent the spread of infection or potentially infectious microorganisms to health personnel, clients, and visitors

A

Isolation precaution

70
Q

Used in care of all hospitalized persons regardless of their diagnosis or infection status

A

Standard precautions

71
Q

Used in addition to standard precautions for clients with known or suspected infections that are spread in 1 of 3 ways (airborne, droplet, contact)

A

Transmission based precaution

72
Q

Precaution used for immunocompromised patients

A

Reverse isolation or protective environment

73
Q

Three indicators for glove use

A
  1. Before sterile condition
  2. Before contact with body fluid
  3. Before contact with patient
74
Q

Three indicators for glove removal

A
  1. Damaged glove
  2. After contact with body fluid
  3. After contact with non-intact skin and mucous membrane
  4. After contact with patient and their surroundings
  5. After contact with contaminated body site
  6. When indication for hand hygiene
75
Q

_____ _____ is a priority before any aseptic procedure

A

Hand hygiene

76
Q

Before procedure, ensure that the patient understands how to prevent _____ of equipment

A

Contamination

77
Q

_____ hospital procedures and requirements for sterile technique

A

Review

78
Q

T/F: Ill health care providers should avoid invasive procedures or at least wear a surgical mask

A

False - two surgical masks should be worn

79
Q

All objects in a sterile field must be _____

A

Sterile

80
Q

Sterile object [remains sterile/becomes nonsterile] when touched by a nonsterile object

A

Becomes nonsterile

81
Q

Sterile items below waist level are considered _____

A

Nonsterile

82
Q

Sterile fields must always be kept in _____ to be considered sterile

A

Sight

83
Q

Avoid contamination when opening or adding sterile equipment to the _____ _____

A

Sterile field

84
Q

Puncture, moisture, or tear that passes through a sterile barrier is considered _____

A

Contaminated

85
Q

Once a sterile field is set up, the border of _____ inch at the edge of the sterile drape is considered _____

A

One, nonsterile

86
Q

Any doubt about the sterility of an object is considered _____

A

Nonsterile

87
Q

Sterile persons may only contact _____ areas, nonsterile only _____ areas

A

Sterile, nonsterile

88
Q

Movement around sterile field must not _____ sterile field

A

Contaminate